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81 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

330. An aircraft threatened by serious and/or imminent danger which requires immediate assistance is
considered as a/an condition.
A. urgent
B. distress
C. concerned
D. lost

B. distress

331. If you are in contact with an aircraft with a suspected bomb threat, what action should you not take?
A. Comply with the pilots requests
B. Handle the aircraft as an emergency
C. Suggest actions for the pilot to take
D. Provide the most expeditious handling possible
A. Comply with the pilots requests

332. A pilot of an aircraft experiencing radio failure can be expected to squawk .
A. 7300
B. 7500
C. 7600
D. 7700
C. 7600

333. Fuel remaining is expressed in _____ .
A. time
B. pounds
C. gallons
D. nautical miles
A. time

334. Because specific procedures are not prescribed for every emergency situation, air traffic control personnel
must .
A. pursue a course of action which appears to be most appropriate under the circumstances
B. receive the supervisor’s approval before decisive action is taken
C. make an entry in the facility log
D. notify the pilot’s point of departure as soon as an emergency is declared
A. pursue a course of action which appears to be most appropriate under the circumstances

335. Which facility is responsible for receiving and relaying all pertinent ELT signal information to the appropriate
authorities?
A. AFSS
B. ARTCC
C. RCC
D. ATCT
B. ARTCC

336. Which of the following refers to a condition of being concerned about safety and of requiring timely, but not
immediate assistance?
A. Flight assistance
B. Distress
C. Routine emergency
D. Urgency
D. Urgency

522. The phrase “MAYDAY” describes a/an situation.
A. potential
B. composed
C. distress
D. urgency
C. Distress

523. The pilot of an aircraft which has been hijacked can be expected to squawk Code ____.
A. 7300
B. 7500
C. 7600
D. 7700
B. 7500

536. Who has the final responsibility for the course of action to be followed in an emergency?
A. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)
B. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) Specialist
C. Pilot
D. Aircraft owner
C. Pilot

549. Which of the following is not one of the minimum information requirements for handling an emergency?
A. Nature of the emergency
B. Aircraft identification and type
C. Aircraft color
D. Pilot’s desires
C. Aircraft Color

684. The universal emergency frequencies are .
A. VHF 121.0; VHF 243.5
B. VHF 122.5, UHF 245.0
C. VHF 121.5, UHF 243.0
D. VHF 245.0, UHF 122.5
C. VHF 121.5, UHF 243.0

143. An interagency agreement that provides for the effective utilization of all available facilities during search
and rescue missions is called a(an) _.
A. Search and Rescue Mission
B. Rescue Coordination Center
C. National Search and Rescue Plan
D. Alert Notice
C. National Search and Rescue Plan

144. When a VFR aircraft becomes overdue, who initiates the INREQ message?
A. ARTCC
B. AFSS
C. RCC
D. ATCT
B. AFSS

145. The ALNOT search area is generally described as _.
A. 100 miles either side of the route of flight from departure point to destination
B. 50 miles either side of the route of flight from departure point to destination
C. 100 miles either side of the route of flight from the last reported position to destination
D. 50 miles either side of the route of flight from the last reported position to destination
D. 50 miles either side of the route of flight from the last reported position to destination

146. The transfer of search responsibility to RCC is done _.
A. when the ALNOT search has been completed with negative results
B. if the aircraft has not been located within 30 minutes after issuance of the ALNOT
C. 1 hour past ETA
D. at fuel exhaustion time plus 1 hour
A. when the ALNOT search has been completed with negative results

147. An aircraft on a VFR flight plan is considered overdue when it fails to arrive ___ minutes after its ETA
and communications or location cannot be established.
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 60
B. 30

148. A pilot requesting Lake Reporting Service will report every 10 minutes. Search and rescue must be initiated
if no report is received in ___ minutes.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 60
B. 15

149. Consider an IFR aircraft overdue and take appropriate action when .
A. 30 minutes has passed since an ETA over a compulsory reporting point
B. 30 minutes has passed since clearance void time
C. you have reason to believe the aircraft is overdue
D. any of the above
D. any of the above

523. An aircraft on a VFR flight plan is first considered _____ 30 minutes after its ETA.
A. late
B. unreported
C. overdue
D. missing
C. Overdue

537. The effective utilization of all available search and rescue facilities, including Federal, state, and local
efforts, is described by the _.
A. Rescue Coordination Center (RCC)
B. Letters of Agreement (LOA)
C. National Search and Rescue Plan
D. Air Force and Coast Guard
C. National Search and Rescue Plan

550. The Rescue Coordination Center is operated by the .
A. FCC
B. ARTCC
C. ATCT
D. military
D. military

645. Which of the following is an interagency agreement which provides for the effective use of all available
facilities in all types of search and rescue missions?
A. Letter of Understanding (LOU)
B. National Search and Rescue Plan
C. Letters of Agreement (LOA)
D. Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)
B. National Search and Rescue Plan

685. The Coast Guard and Air Force conduct operations through the Rescue Coordination Center.
A. airborne search and rescue
B. sheriffs department search and rescue
C. telephonic search and rescue
D. physical search and rescue
D. physical search and rescue

177. AFSSs are identified by stating name of the facility followed by what?
A. Flight Service
B. Flight Watch
C. Radio
D. Broadcast
C. Radio

178. What is the call sign for a civil aircraft with the President aboard?
A. “AIR FORCE ONE”
B. “EXECUTIVE ONE PRESIDENT”
C. “PRESIDENT ONE”
D. “EXECUTIVE ONE”
D. “EXECUTIVE ONE”

179. Jet route 35 would be spoken as .
A. “J THIRTY-FIFE”
B. “JET ROUTE THREE FIFE”
C. “Q - THIRTY-FIFE”
D. “J THREE FIFE”
A. “J THIRTY-FIFE”

180. Which of the following is the correct way to state an assigned altitude of 16,000 feet?
A. One six zero hundred
B. One six zero zero zero
C. One six thousand
D. One six zero thousand
C. One six thousand

181. An action to transfer radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another when the aircraft will
enter the receiving controller’s airspace and radio communication is transferred is a .
A. point out
B. handover
C. handoff
D. transfer
C. handoff

182. What is the action whereby the responsibility for separation of an aircraft is transferred from one controller
to another?
A. Transfer of control
B. Transfer of communications
C. Point out
D. Handoff
A. Transfer of Control

183. How is a time of 6:42 a.m. stated as UTC time?
A. ”Zero six four two zulu”
B. ”Zero six four two local”
C. ”Zero six four two alpha mike”
D. ”Oh six four two zulu”
A. ”Zero six four two zulu”

184. According to the ICAO alphabet pronunciation table, in radiotelephony “C-H-A-P” should be pronounced_.
A. CHARLIE HONEY ALFA PETER
B. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PAPA
C. CHARLIE HECTOR ALFA PAPA
D. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PETER
B. B. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PAPA

185. The terminology for stating an altimeter of 28.72 is _.
A. “Altimeter two eight point seven two”
B. “Altimeter two eight decimal seven two”
C. “Altimeter two eight seven two”
D. “Altimeter twenty-eight seventy-two”
C. “Altimeter two eight seven two”

186. The surface wind is from 170 degrees at 20 knots. This would be stated as _.
A. “Wind one seventy at twenty knots”
B. “Wind south at twenty knots”
C. “Wind one seven zero at zero two zero”
D. “Wind one seven zero at two zero”
D. “Wind one seven zero at two zero”

187. When can a pilot interrupt their communications guard?
A. When requested
B. When requested and an agreeable time off frequency is established
C. When requested and in VFR conditions
D. At any time
B. When requested and an agreeable time off frequency is established

188. How often are interphones and assigned frequencies to be monitored?
A. According to the level of traffic in the area
B. At half-hour intervals
C. Continuously
D. Hourly
C. Continuously

189. During which step in the relief process does the relieving specialist check, verify, and update the position
information obtained?
A. Preview the position
B. Verbal briefing
C. Assumption of position responsibility
D. Review the position
D. Review the position

190. When stating flight levels, an aircraft at 28,000 feet would be said to be at an altitude of .
Flight level two eight zero”

191. Runway 31C would be spoken as _.
“Runway tree one center”

192. The phraseology for contacting Columbia Automated Flight Service Station would be .
“COLUMBIA RADIO”

193. The first priority during coordination or during the transfer of information is .
emergencies

194. List, in order, the four steps in the position relief process.
1.) Preview position
2.) Verbal briefing
3.) Assumption of position responsibility
4.) Position review

195. Which item is always included in a clearance?
A. Aircraft identification
B. Departure procedure
C. Holding instructions
D. Altitude
A. Aircraft Identification

196. The purpose of an ATC clearance is to .
A. relieves controller stress.
B. provides classified instructions to pilots.
C. prevent collision between known aircraft.
D. provide for emergency situations.
C. prevent collision between known aircraft

602. An action taken to transfer radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another controller when the
aircraft will enter the receiving controller’s airspace and radio communications will be transferred is called
a(n) .
A. exchange
B. handoff
C. point out
D. transfer
B. handoff

603. How is a time of 6:42 a.m. stated as UTC time?
A. ZERO SIX FOUR TWO ZULU
B. ZERO SIX FOUR TWO LOCAL
C. ZERO SIX FOUR TWO ALFA MIKE
D. OH SIX FOUR TWO ZULU
A. ZERO SIX FOUR TWO ZULU

655. The correct ICAO phonetic spelling of the word “UNIT” is _.
A. UNIFORM-NINER-INDIA-TANGO
B. UNO-NOVEMBER-INDIGO-TANGO
C. UNIFORM-NINER-INDIGO-TANGO
D. UNIFORM-NOVEMBER-INDIA-TANGO
D. UNIFORM-NOVEMBER-INDIA-TANGO

656. RNAV route 24 would be spoken as .
A. “QUEBEC TWO FOUR”
B. “ROMEO TWENTY FOUR”
C. “Q TWENTY FOUR”
D. “RNAV TWO FOUR”
C. “Q TWENTY FOUR”

693. According to the ICAO alphabet pronunciation table, in radiotelephony “C-H-A-P” should be pronounced_.
A. CHARLIE HONEY ALFA PETER
B. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PAPA
C. CHARLIE HECTOR ALFA PAPA
D. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PETER
B. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PAPA

694. Which of the following is the correct way to state an altitude of 16,000 feet?
A. SIXTEEN COMMA THOUSAND
B. ONE SIX ZERO ZERO ZERO
C. ONE SIX THOUSAND
D. SIXTEEN ZERO HUNDRED
C. ONE SIX THOUSAND

378. Authorized symbols and abbreviations must be used for recording .
A. TCAS RAs when voice recorders are operational
B. relief briefings
C. clearances, requests and advisories
D. clearances, reports and instructions
D. clearances, reports and instructions

379. The letters “OTP” on a strip stand for _.
A. VFR conditions-on-top
B. oceanic transfer point
C. procedure turn
D. out of control area
A. VFR conditions-on-top
380. What symbol indicates that an aircraft’s clearance is void if not airborne by a specific time?
A. V=
B. ~V
C. V <
D. V
C. V <

381. What symbol should be used to delete any unwanted or unused altitude information?
A. X
B. −
C. +
D. /
A. X

382. Flight progress strips are used for .
A. traffic count only
B. traffic sequencing only
C. posting current data on air traffic
D. traffic metering
C. posting current data on air traffic

383. Flight progress strips are considered ____ documents.
A. outdated
B. necessary
C. legal
D. current
C. legal

384. When used on a strip, “VA” indicates which of the following?
A. Volcanic Ash
B. Variable Altitude
C. Visual Approach
D. Virginia
C. Visual Approach

385. Which of the following is the correct format to record a block altitude?
A. 100B120
B. 210/230
C. 230B210
D. B150/170
A. 100B120

386. Flight progress strips that are hand printed must _.
A. use standard characters
B. be legible
C. conform to the machine printed format
D. all the above
D. all of the above

387. On all en route strips, Block 5 is used for what purpose?
A. Aircraft ID
B. Equipment suffix
C. Aircraft type
D. Filed true airspeed
D. Filed true airspeed

388. For en route strips, altitude information is found in which block?
A. 8
B. 27
C. 16
D. 20
D. 20

389. On an en route strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
C. 3

390. On an en route strip, which block contains the center-estimated time over the fix?
A. 11
B. 15
C. 19
D. 25
B. 15

391. Which control symbol(s) indicates that an ARTCC has forwarded flight plan information?
A. Slash
B. Horizontal line
C. Check mark
D. Red circle
D. Red circle

396. How is a terminal strip marked to indicate that the aircraft has an emergency?
A. Black “E”
B. ”EMRG”
C. Red check mark
D. Red ‘E”
D. Red “E”

605. What is the proper procedure for deleting any umwanted or unused altitudes?
A. Draw a line underneath it
B. Draw a slash (/) through it
C. Erase it
D. Write an X through it
D. Write an X through it

657. What does the clearance abbreviation “PD” represent?
A. Cleared to depart from the fix
B. Cleared to the airport
C. Cleared to hold and instructions issued
D. Cleared to climb/descend at pilot’s discretion
D. Cleared to climb/descend at pilot’s discretion

658. Which of the following statements is not true of flight progress strips?
A. They are considered legal documents.
B. They are either handwritten or printed on special printers.
C. They are used to post clearances required for ATC control.
D. They are formatted the same for each air traffic option.
D. They are formatted the same for each air traffic option

695. What does the abbreviation “RA” mean when used on a flight progress strip?
A. Radar Advisories (flight following)
B. Resolution Advisory (pilot reported TCAS event)
C. Runway Approach
D. Radar Approach
B. Resolution Advisory (pilot reported TCAS event)

197. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall comply with all provisions of an ATC clearance unless an
amended clearance has been obtained, an emergency exists or _.
A. conducting military operations
B. participating in a speed run
C. operating aircraft in IFR conditions
D. responding to a TCAS resolution advisory
D. responding to a TCAS resolution advisory

198. Select the correct sequence of the following clearance items:
1. Route of flight
2. Holding instructions
3. Aircraft identification
4. Clearance limit
5. Mach number, if applicable
6. Altitude data in order flown
7. Frequency and beacon code information
8. Departure procedure or DP/FMSP
9. Any special instructions
A. 3,4,8,1,6,5,2,9,7
B. 3,8,1,2,4,5,9,6,7
C. 3,9,8,7,4,1,6,2,5
D. 3,1,6,4,8,5,2,7,9
A. 3,4,8,1,6,5,2,9,7

199. Use prefixes when relaying , , or through non-ATC facilities.
A. clearances, instructions, reports
B. information, instructions, requests
C. clearances, information, requests
D. instructions, reports, requests
C. clearances, information, requests

200. The type of clearance that provides for intermediate stops while en route is a/an ___ Clearance.
A. Approach
B. Through
C. Composite
D. Cruise
B. Through

201. An authorization for a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including
the altitude specified in the IFR clearance is a/an Clearance.
A. Cruise
B.Landing
C. Approach
D. Composite
A. Cruise

202. Considering the prescribed order of clearance items, which of the following clearances is correct?
A. “United seventy seven, descend and maintain one zero thousand, fly heading two four zero for spacing.”
B. “Lifeguard tree echo foxtrot, cleared to the Tulsa VORTAC, hold west, descend and maintain one zero
thousand.”
C. “Continental twenty tree, cleared to the Little Rock airport, climb and maintain flight level two three zero
via J twenty, squawk four four two seven.”
D. “November six seven x-ray, cleared direct Bartlesville V-O-R, climb and maintain one two thousand.”
D. “November six seven x-ray, cleared direct Bartlesville V-O-R, climb and maintain one two thousand.”

607. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft may only deviate from the provisions of an air traffic clearance when a(n)
___occurs, or a(n)____ is obtained.
A. change of flight plan; initial clearance
B. emergency; amended clearance
C. bad weather; initial clearance
D. change of flight plan; amended clearance
B. emergency; amended clearance

609. Use prefixes when relaying , , or through non-ATC facilities.
A. clearances, instructions, reports
B. information, instructions, requests
C. clearances, information, requests
D. instructions, reports, requests
C. clearances, information, requests

610. Taxi clearances are instructions provided by ATC for the route aircraft/vehicles are to follow while on the ____
of an airport.
A. apron areas
B. movement and non-movement areas
C. movement areas
D. non-movement areas
C. movement areas

659. An authorization by air traffic control for aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled
airspace for the purpose of preventing collisions between known aircraft is called an .
A. ATC clearance
B. ATC coordination
C. ATC instruction
D. ATC separation
A. ATC clearance

660. There can be as many as ___air traffic clearance items; the _____is issued first, and is always
included in a clearance.
A. 6; clearance limit
B. 9; route of flight
C. 6; altitude data in order flown
D. 9; aircraft identification
D. 9; aircraft identification

661. There are types of ATC prefixes used when relaying through a non-ATC facility.
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
B. three