Atb 523-609

Front 1

523. The pilot of an aircraft which has been hijacked can be expected to squawk Code ________.
A. 7300
B. 7500
C. 7600
D. 7700

Back 1

523. B. 7500 (LP 22, p. 17)

Front 2

524. An aircraft on a VFR flight plan is first considered ________ 30 minutes after its ETA.
A. late
B. unreported
C. overdue
D. missing

Back 2

524. C. overdue (LP 23, p. 9)

Front 3

525. When a parcel of air has all the water vapor it can hold, it is ________.
A. evaporated
B. unsaturated
C. saturated
D. condensed

Back 3

525. C. saturated (LP 24, p. 10)

Front 4

526. A warm, moist air mass moving over a ________ surface often produces ________, poor visibility, stratiform clouds, fog, and drizzle.
A. warm, turbulence
B. warm, smooth air
C. cold, turbulence
D. cold, smooth air

Back 4

526. D. cold, smooth air (LP 24, p. 24)

Front 5

527. What type of precipitation occurs when the temperature remains below freezing throughout the entire depth of the atmosphere?
A. Ice
B. Snow
C. Ice pellets
D. Freezing rain

Back 5

527. B. Snow (LP 24, p. 32)

Front 6

528. Which effect will an airplane experience when taking off with a tailwind?
A. A longer take off roll is required.
B. A shorter take off roll is required.
C. A larger initial rate of climb occurs.
D. It will drift off the side of the runway.

Back 6

528. A. A longer take off roll is required. (LP 25, p. 8)

Front 7

529. Ice becomes perceptible. Rate of accumulation is slightly greater than sublimation. Deicing/anti-icing equipment is NOT utilized unless encountered for an extended period of time (over 1 hour). What type of ice is being described?
A. Trace
B. Light
C. Moderate
D. Mixed

Back 7

529. A. Trace (LP 25, p. 39)

Front 8

530. In a METAR/SPECI Wind Group, wind speed is referenced to which unit of measure?
A. Knots
B. Meters per second
C. Miles per hour
D. Kilometers per hour

Back 8

530 A. Knots (LP 26, p. 19)

Front 9

531. +TSRAGR
A. “Heavy thunderstorm, rain, snow grains”
B. “Severe thunderstorm, rain showers, hail”
C. “Thunderstorm, heavy rain, hail”
D. “Thunderstorm, heavy rain showers, snow grains”

Back 9

531. C. “Thunderstorm, heavy rain, hail” (LP 26, pp. 30, 31)

Front 10

532. Which in-flight advisory would provide a forecast of occasionally severe turbulence over Colorado?
A. AIRMET Tango
B. AIRMET Zulu
C. SIGMET
D. Convective SIGMET

Back 10

532. C. SIGMET (LP 27, p. 26)

Front 11

533. What product is for ATC use to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next two hours?
A. AIRMET
B. FA
C. TAF
D. CWA

Back 11

533. D. CWA (LP 27, p. 41)

Front 12

534. A report of meteorological conditions encountered by aircraft in flight is known as a/an ________.
A. AIRMET
B. PIREP
C. SIGMET
D. Surface Observation

Back 12

534. B. PIREP (LP 28, p. 3)

Front 13

535. Which is not a reportable intensity of icing?
A. Trace
B. Light
C. Moderate
D. Heavy

Back 13

535. D. Heavy (LP 28, p. 17)

Front 14

536. Who has the final responsibility for the course of action to be followed in an emergency?
A. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)
B. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) Specialist
C. Pilot
D. Aircraft owner

Back 14

536. C. Pilot (LP 22, p. 14)

Front 15

537. The effective utilization of all available search and rescue facilities, including Federal, state, and local efforts, is described by the ________.
A. Rescue Coordination Center (RCC)
B. Letters of Agreement (LOA)
C. National Search and Rescue Plan
D. Air Force and Coast Guard

Back 15

537. C. National Search and Rescue Plan (LP 23, p. 2)

Front 16

538. The average vertical depth of this layer of the atmosphere is 36,000 feet, but varies from about 65,000 feet at the equator to 20,000 feet at the poles.
A. Troposphere
B. Tropopause
C. Stratosphere
D. Mesosphere

Back 16

538. A. Troposphere (LP 24, p. 5)

Front 17

539. What cloud type indicates thermal lift of air, and whose tops can reach over 60,000 feet?
A. Cirriform
B. Nimboform
C. Cumuliform
D. Stratiform

Back 17

539. C. Cumuliform (LP 24, p. 17)

Front 18

540. Which front moves in such a way that colder air replaces warmer air?
A. Clouded front
B. Warm front
C. Cold front
D. Stationary front

Back 18

540. C. Cold front (LP 24, p. 25)

Front 19

541. What National Weather Service office provides meteorological forecasts, and advice to ARTCCs and other FAA facilities regarding weather impact on their missions?
A. Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU)
B. Weather Forecast Office (WFO)
C. Meteorological Watch Office (MWO)
D. Aviation Weather Center (AWC)

Back 19

541. A. Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU) (LP 24, p. 41)

Front 20

542. IFR weather is primarily a hazard ________.
A. during takeoff and landing
B. en route
C. while in a holding pattern
D. while changing altitudes

Back 20

542. A. during takeoff and landing (LP 25, p. 13)

Front 21

543. What can produce almost every weather hazard?
A. Hurricane
B. Thunderstorm
C. Tornado
D. Turbulence

Back 21

543. B. Thunderstorm (LP 25, p. 45)

Front 22

544. Which of the following METAR code groups designate a ceiling?
A. FEW045
B. CLR
C. VV006
D. SCT100

Back 22

544. C. VV006 (LP 26, p. 37)

Front 23

545. Based on the following METAR, the temperature is _________. KOKC 181456Z 23015G28KT 10SM FEW025 SCT040 BKN150 OVC200 01/M01 A2981 RMK AO2 SLP096
A. 1°F
B. 1°C
C. –1°F
D. –1°C

Back 23

545. B. 1°C (LP 26, p. 45)

Front 24

546. Convective SIGMETs are valid for ________ hours and are used to report convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft.
A. four
B. two
C. three
D. six

Back 24

546. B. two (LP 27, p. 30-31)

Front 25

547. A Meteorological Impact Statement (MIS) is ________.
A. an unscheduled discussion product that summarizes anticipated weather conditions with potential impact on air traffic flow control and flight operations in an ARTCC’s area of responsibility
B. an unscheduled weather advisory issued by CWSU meteorologists for ATC use to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next two hours
C. a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions significant to aviation for a specified time period within 5SM of an airport.

Back 25

547. A. an unscheduled discussion product that summarizes anticipated weather conditions with potential impact on air traffic flow control and flight operations in an ARTCC’s area of responsibility (LP 27, p. 45)

Front 26

548. Air Traffic Facilities are required to solicit PIREPs when ________ is reported or forecasted.
A. Ceiling at or below 7,000 feet
B. Light icing
C. Light turbulence
D. Visibility at or below 10 miles

Back 26

548. B. Light icing (LP 28, p. 6)

Front 27

549. Which of the following is not one of the minimum information requirements for handling an emergency?
A. Nature of the emergency
B. Aircraft identification and type
C. Aircraft color
D. Pilot’s desires

Back 27

549. C. Aircraft color (LP 22, p. 9)

Front 28

550. The Rescue Coordination Center is operated by the ________.
A. FCC
B. ARTCC
C. ATCT
D. military

Back 28

550. D. military (LP 23, p. 6)

Front 29

551. At what rate does temperature decrease with height (lapse rate) in the standard atmosphere?
A. 1°c/1,000 feet
B. 2°c/1,000 feet
C. 4°c/1,000 feet
D. 8°c/1,000 feet

Back 29

551. B. 2°c/1,000 feet (LP 24, p. 6)

Front 30

552. Which statement about a pressure system and cloud creation is TRUE?
A. Air in a high pressure system will rise, cool, and create clouds
B. Air in a low pressure system will rise, cool, and create clouds
C. Air in a high pressure system will descend, warm, and create clouds
D. Air in a low pressure system will descend, warm, and dissipate clouds

Back 30

552. B. Air in a low pressure system will rise, cool, and create clouds (LP 24, p. 19)

Front 31

553. The three necessary ingredients for precipitation formation are ________, ________, and ________.
A. water vapor, lift, a growth process
B. evaporation, saturation, condensation
C. condensation, compression, cold air
D. dew point, compression, warm air

Back 31

553. A. water vapor, lift, a growth process (LP 24, p. 31)

Front 32

554. Which condition is responsible for the most weather-related aviation accidents?
A. Adverse wind
B. Instrument (IFR) weather
C. Turbulence
D. Thunderstorms

Back 32

554. A. Adverse wind (LP 25, p. 4)

Front 33

555. Turbulence that causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude describes ________ turbulence.
A. moderate
B. severe
C. light
D. trace

Back 33

555. B. severe (LP 25, p. 29)

Front 34

556. What is an unscheduled report that is taken when certain criteria have been observed?
A. AUTO
B. METAR
C. COR
D. SPECI

Back 34

556. D. SPECI (LP 26, p. 5)

Front 35

557. M1/4SM FG
A. “Visibility below one-quarter, fog”
B. “Visibility less than one-quarter, fog”
C. “Visibility less than one-quarter statute mile, fog”
D. “Visibility minus one-quarter statute mile, fog”

Back 35

557. B. “Visibility less than one-quarter, fog” (LP 26, p. 23)

Front 36

558. TAFs are used by air traffic controllers to anticipate weather changes that will affect aircraft operations ________.
A. within an air route traffic control center’s (ARTCC’s) airspace
B. within a terminal radar approach control (TRACON) facility’s airspace
C. along specified routes of flight
D. at specified terminals

Back 36

558. D. at specified terminals (LP 27, p. 3)

Front 37

559. Which in-flight advisory would provide a forecast of moderate icing over New York and Pennsylvania?
A. AIRMET Sierra
B. AIRMET Tango
C. AIRMET Zulu
D. SIGMET

Back 37

559. C. AIRMET Zulu (LP 27, p. 35)

Front 38

560. A computer generated forecast of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at selected times, altitudes, and locations is a(n) _________ forecast.
A. area
B. automated barometric information
C. terminal aerodrome
D. wind and temperature aloft

Back 38

560. D. wind and temperature aloft (LP 27, p. 50)

Front 39

561. Each PIREP reporting turbulence must include the ________.
A. turbulence intensity
B. remarks
C. sky conditions
D. temperature

Back 39

561. A. turbulence intensity (LP 28, p. 7)

Front 40

562. Positive control is the ________ of all air traffic within designated airspace by ATC.
A. separation
B. observation
C. deviation
D. sequencing

Back 40

562. A. separation (7110.65; LP 1, p. 15)

Front 41

563. The first duty priority of an air traffic controller is ________.
A. issuing safety alerts and providing additional services
B. separating traffic and providing additional services
C. separating traffic and supporting homeland defense
D. separating traffic and issuing safety alerts

Back 41

563. D. separating traffic and issuing safety alerts (7110.65; LP 1, p. 16)

Front 42

564. Rotating airport beacons flashing white and green at regular intervals identifies what type of airport?
A. Lighted land airport
B. Lighted water airport
C. Lighted heliport
D. Military airport

Back 42

564. A. Lighted land airport (AIM; LP 3, p. 29)

Front 43

565. What type of separation is defined as the spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed in units of time or miles?
A. Lateral
B. Longitudinal
C. Vertical
D. Visual

Back 43

565. B. Longitudinal (7110.65; LP 4, p. 15)

Front 44

566. Assigning departing aircraft headings which diverge by at least 45 degrees is an example of ________ separation.
A. longitudinal
B. runway
C. lateral
D. visual

Back 44

566. C. lateral (7110.65; LP 4, p. 14)

Front 45

567. This NOTAM consists of information that requires wide dissemination and pertains to En route navigational aids, airports listed in the Airport Facility Directory (AFD), facilities and services.
A. Pointer NOTAM
B. FDC NOTAM
C. NOTAM D
D. Military NOTAM

Back 45

567. C. NOTAM D (7930.2; LP 5, p. 6)

Front 46

568. Which of the following is not a component of a secondary radar system?
A. Interrogator
B. Antenna
C. Transponder
D. Receiver

Back 46

568. D. Receiver (ETM 12-0-1; LP 6, p. 23)

Front 47

569. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a secondary radar system?
A. Only displays aircraft with transponders
B. Provides a shorter range than primary radar
C. More vulnerable to blind spots
D. Responses are degraded by weather or ground clutter

Back 47

569. A. Only displays aircraft with transponders (ETM 12-0-1; LP 6, p. 30)

Front 48

570. This document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures for use in the United States National Airspace System (NAS).
A. 7110.65
B. 7110.10
C. Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)
D. 1320.1

Back 48

570. C. Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) (AIM; LP 7, p. 18)

Front 49

571. Which airspace extends from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

Back 49

571. B. Class B (AIM; LP 9, p. 6)

Front 50

572. ATC specialists in Terminal/Center, age 39 and below, shall be scheduled for medical examinations by facility managers _________.
A. twice a year
B. every year
C. every three years
D. every two years

Back 50

572. D. every two years (FAR 67; LP 10, p. 41)

Front 51

573. A pilot flying VFR must stay at least 2,000 feet laterally from the clouds in classes ________ and ________ airspace.
A. B;C
B. C;D
C. C;E
D. D;E

Back 51

573. B. C;D (FAR 91; LP 11, p. 15)

Front 52

574. A pilot must use supplemental oxygen for the entire flight when flying at altitudes ________.
A. between 12,500 MSL up to and including 14,000 MSL
B. above 14,000 MSL
C. above 15,000 MSL
D. the pilot is not required to use supplemental oxygen

Back 52

574. B. above 14,000 MSL (FAR 91; LP 11, p. 48)

Front 53

575. Relative wind flows in a direction __________ and __________ the direction of flight.
A. parallel with; opposite to
B. parallel with; perpendicular to
C. opposite to; perpendicular to
D. opposite to; divergent from

Back 53

575. A. parallel with; opposite to (8083-25; LP 12, p. 6)

Front 54

576. When ________ and ________ are in equilibrium, the aircraft neither gains nor loses altitude.
A. lift; weight
B. lift; thrust
C. thrust; drag
D. weight; drag

Back 54

576. A. lift; weight (8083-25; LP 12, p. 14)

Front 55

577. What type of icing is an aircraft likely to encounter when flying in temperatures above freezing?
A. Pitot tube icing
B. Wing icing
C. Carburetor icing
D. Windshield icing

Back 55

577. C. Carburetor icing (8083-25; LP 12, p. 51)

Front 56

578. The definition of “wake turbulence” includes a number of phenomenon affecting flight safety. Which of the following choices is not included in the definition?
A. Mach buffet
B. Thrust steam turbulence
C. Propeller wash
D. Jet blast

Back 56

578. A. Mach buffet (7110.65; LP 13, p. 3)

Front 57

579. A hovering helicopter will generate a high speed outward vortex to a distance of approximately ________ times the diameter of the rotor.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Back 57

579. C. 3 (8083-21; LP 13, p. 21)

Front 58

580. An aircraft with a certificated takeoff weight of more than 41,000 lbs. up to but not including 300,000 lbs. is classified as ________.
A. heavy
B. large
C. small
D. medium

Back 58

580. B. large (7110.65; LP 14, p. 9)

Front 59

581. All helicopters are classified as ________.
A. category III
B. category IV
C. category I
D. category II

Back 59

581. C. category I (ATG-2; LP 14, p. 4)

Front 60

582. The aircraft pictured above is a ________.
A. B727
B. B747
C. A320

Back 60

582. D. MD11 (ATG-2; LP 14, p. 65)

Front 61

583. 2 PM on a 24-hour clock equals _________.
A. 1200
B. 0200
C. 2200
D. 1400

Back 61

583. D. 1400 (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 15, p. 19)

Front 62

584. An aircrafts TAS is significantly higher than its IAS ________.
A. at low altitudes
B. at sea level
C. at high altitudes
D. with a tailwind

Back 62

584. C. at high altitudes (FAA-H-8083-25, LP 15, p. 38)

Front 63

575. VORs are classed according to operational use. There are three classes. Which one of the selections below is not one of those classes?
A. T (Terminal)
B. UH (Ultra high altitude)
C. H (High altitude)
D. L (Low Altitude)

Back 63

575. B. UH (Ultra high altitude) (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 16 p. 5)

Front 64

586. Class B operating rules can be found on the back of _______.
A. IFR/VFR planning charts
B. VFR Terminal Area Charts
C. Sectional Charts
D. WAC Charts

Back 64

586. B. VFR Terminal Area Charts (TAC legend; LP 17, p. 34)

Front 65

587. The primary purpose of an IFR Area Chart is to furnish ________.
A. VFR reporting points
B. visual landmarks for use in congested areas
C. navigation information using a smaller scale that the En Route Low Altitude Chart
D. terminal data for IFR flights in congested areas

Back 65

587. D. terminal data for IFR flights in congested areas (AIM; LP 18, p. 45)

Front 66

588. Which DP is always printed graphically and must be assigned by ATC?
A. ODPs
B. IDP
C. SID
D. STAR

Back 66

588. C. SID (7110.65; LP 19, p. 12)

Front 67

589. On the profile view of a non-precision instrument approach, the Maltese Cross depicts the __________.
A. Final Approach Fix (FAF)
B. glide slope intercept point
C. Missed Approach Point (MAP)
D. threshold crossing point

Back 67

589. A. Final Approach Fix (FAF) (8083-15; LP 20, p. 27)

Front 68

590. The height of obstructions shown on the planview and airport diagram section of an IAP are always given in ________.
A. AGL
B. MSL
C. Both AGL and MSL
D. MSA

Back 68

590. B. MSL (AIM; LP 20, p. 8)

Front 69

591. Symptoms of hypoxia include all of the following except ___________.
A. slow reactions
B. impaired thinking
C. increased alertness
D. unusual fatigue

Back 69

591. C. increased alertness (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 21, p. 45)

Front 70

592. Which of the following refers to a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance?
A. Flight assistance
B. Urgency
C. Routine emergency
D. Distress

Back 70

592. D. Distress (7110.65; LP 22, p. 4)

Front 71

593. A pilot of an aircraft experiencing radio failure can be expected to squawk ________.
A. 7300
B. 7500
C. 7600
D. 7700

Back 71

593. C. 7600 (7100.65; LP 22, p. 16)

Front 72

594. What cloud type indicates thermal lift of air, and whose tops can reach over 60,000 feet?
A. Cirriform
B. Nimboform
C. Cumuliform
p. 17)
D. Stratiform

Back 72

594. C. Cumuliform (NWS Jetstream -Online School for Weather; LP 24,

Front 73

595. What National Weather Service office provides meteorological forecasts, and advice to ARTCCs and other FAA facilities regarding weather impact on their missions?
A. Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU)
B. Weather Forecast Office (WFO)
C. Meteorological Watch Office (MWO)
D. Aviation Weather Center (AWC)

Back 73

595. A. Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU) (NWS Jetstream -Online School for Weather; LP 24, p. 41)

Front 74

596. Which of the following is NOT true regarding fog?
A. Fog reduces horizontal visibility to less than5/8 SM
B. Fog forms slowly, allowing pilots to avoid this hazard
C. Fog forms when the temperature and dewpoint spread is at or near zero
D. Fog is a cloud with it’s base at the earth’s surface

Back 74

596. B. Fog forms slowly, allowing pilots to avoid this hazard (FMH1, p. A-4; LP 25, p. 15)

Front 75

597. Which of the following METAR code groups does NOT designate a ceiling?
A. BKN045
B. VV006
C. SKC
D. OVC100

Back 75

597. C. SKC (AC 00-45; LP 26, p. 35)

Front 76

598. “A scheduled report transmitted at fixed intervals” describes a ________.
A. METAR
B. SPECI
C. TAF
D. UUA

Back 76

598. A. METAR (FMH1; LP 26, p. 4)

Front 77

599. What type of forecast is issued when specific conditions are affecting or are expected to affect an area of at least 3,000 square miles or an area judged to have a significant impact on the safety of aircraft operations?
A. AIRMET
B. Convective SIGMET
C. SIGMET
D. CWA

Back 77

599. C. SIGMET (AC 00-45; LP 27, p. 26)

Front 78

600. The message type “UUA” indicates that the PIREP falls under what classification?
A. Routine PIREP
B. Urgent Surface Observation
C. Urgent PIREP
D. Routine Surface Observation

Back 78

600. C. Urgent PIREP (7110.10; LP 28, p. 3)

Front 79

601. Each PIREP must include the altitude, location, time, and ________.
A. aircraft type
B. remarks
C. sky conditions
D. temperature

Back 79

601. A. aircraft type (7110.10; LP 28, p. 7)

Front 80

602. An action taken to transfer radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another controller when the aircraft will enter the receiving controller’s airspace and radio communications will be transferred is called a(n) ________.
A. exchange
B. handoff
C. point out
D. transfer

Back 80

602. B. handoff (7110.66; LP 29, p. 51)

Front 81

603. How is a time of 6:42 a.m. stated as UTC time?
A. ZERO SIX FOUR TWO ZULU
B. ZERO SIX FOUR TWO LOCAL
C. ZERO SIX FOUR TWO ALFA MIKE
D. OH SIX FOUR TWO ZULU

Back 81

603. A. ZERO SIX FOUR TWO ZULU (7110.65; LP 29, p. 12)

Front 82

604. Which of the following represents, in order, the steps of the position relief briefing?
A. Preview position, position review, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility
B. Position review, position equipment check, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility
C. Monitor position, position equipment check, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility
D. Preview position, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility, position review

Back 82

604. D. Preview position, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility, position review (7110.65; LP 29 p. 61)

Front 83

605. What is the proper procedure for deleting any umwanted or unused altitudes?
A. Draw a line underneath it
B. Draw a slash (/) through it
C. Erase it
D. Write an X through it

Back 83

605. D. Write an X through it (7110.65; LP 30, p. 9)

Front 84

606. On terminal flight progress strips, blocks 10 -18 are ________.
A. specified by facility directive
B. always the same
C. never used
D. specified in the 7110.65

Back 84

606. A. specified by facility directive (7110.65; LP 30, p. 18)

Front 85

607. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft may only deviate from the provisions of an air traffic clearance when a(n) ________ occurs, or a(n) ________ is obtained.
A. change of flight plan; initial clearance
B. emergency; amended clearance
C. bad weather; initial clearance
D. change of flight plan; amended clearance

Back 85

607. B. emergency; amended clearance (7110.65; LP 31, p. 5)

Front 86

608. The terminal flight progress strip has ________ use(s) in the terminal option.
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four

Back 86

608. C. three (7110.65; LP 30, p. 17)

Front 87

609. Use prefixes when relaying ________, ________, or ________ through non-ATC facilities.
A. clearances, instructions, reports
B. information, instructions, requests
C. clearances, information, requests
D. instructions, reports, requests

Back 87

609. C. clearances, information, requests (7110.65; LP 31, p. 10)