Atb 523-609

Front 1

523. An aircraft on a VFR flight plan is first considered ________ 30 minutes after its ETA.

Back 1

overdue (LP 23, p. 9)

Front 2

525. When a parcel of air has all the water vapor it can hold, it is ________.

Back 2

saturated (LP 24, p. 10)

Front 3

526. A warm, moist air mass moving over a ________ surface often produces ________, poor visibility, stratiform clouds, fog, and drizzle.

Back 3

cold, smooth air (LP 24, p. 24)

Front 4

527. What type of precipitation occurs when the temperature remains below freezing throughout the entire depth of the atmosphere?

Back 4

Snow (LP 24, p. 32)

Front 5

528. Which effect will an airplane experience when taking off with a tailwind?

Back 5

A longer take off roll is required. (LP 25, p. 8)

Front 6

529. Ice becomes perceptible. Rate of accumulation is slightly greater than sublimation. Deicing/anti-icing equipment is NOT utilized unless encountered for an extended period of time (over 1 hour). What type of ice is being described?

Back 6

Trace (LP 25, p. 39)

Front 7

530. In a METAR/SPECI Wind Group, wind speed is referenced to which unit of measure?

Back 7

Knots (LP 26, p. 19)

Front 8

531. +TSRAGR

Back 8

“Thunderstorm, heavy rain, hail” (LP 26, pp. 30, 31)

Front 9

532. Which in-flight advisory would provide a forecast of occasionally severe turbulence over Colorado?

Back 9

SIGMET (LP 27, p. 26)

Front 10

533. What product is for ATC use to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next two hours?

Back 10

CWA (LP 27, p. 41)

Front 11

534. A report of meteorological conditions encountered by aircraft in flight is known as a/an ________.

Back 11

PIREP (LP 28, p. 3)

Front 12

535. Which is not a reportable intensity of icing?

Back 12

Heavy (LP 28, p. 17)

Front 13

536. Who has the final responsibility for the course of action to be followed in an emergency?

Back 13

Pilot (LP 22, p. 14)

Front 14

537. The effective utilization of all available search and rescue facilities, including Federal, state, and local efforts, is described by the ________.

Back 14

National Search and Rescue Plan (LP 23, p. 2)

Front 15

538. The average vertical depth of this layer of the atmosphere is 36,000 feet, but varies from about 65,000 feet at the equator to 20,000 feet at the poles.

Back 15

Troposphere (LP 24, p. 5)

Front 16

539. What cloud type indicates thermal lift of air, and whose tops can reach over 60,000 feet?

Back 16

Cumuliform (LP 24, p. 17)

Front 17

540. Which front moves in such a way that colder air replaces warmer air?

Back 17

Cold front (LP 24, p. 25)

Front 18

541. What National Weather Service office provides meteorological forecasts, and advice to ARTCCs and other FAA facilities regarding weather impact on their missions?

Back 18

Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU) (LP 24, p. 41)

Front 19

542. IFR weather is primarily a hazard ________.

Back 19

during takeoff and landing (LP 25, p. 13)

Front 20

543. What can produce almost every weather hazard?

Back 20

Thunderstorm (LP 25, p. 45)

Front 21

544. Which of the following METAR code groups designate a ceiling?

Back 21

VV006 (LP 26, p. 37)

Front 22

545. Based on the following METAR, the temperature is _________. KOKC 181456Z 23015G28KT 10SM FEW025 SCT040 BKN150 OVC200 01/M01 A2981 RMK AO2 SLP096

Back 22

1°C (LP 26, p. 45)

Front 23

546. Convective SIGMETs are valid for ________ hours and are used to report convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft.

Back 23

two (LP 27, p. 30-31)

Front 24

547. A Meteorological Impact Statement (MIS) is ________.

Back 24

A. an unscheduled discussion product that summarizes anticipated weather conditions with potential impact on air traffic flow control and flight operations in an ARTCC’s area of responsibility (LP 27, p. 45)

Front 25

548. Air Traffic Facilities are required to solicit PIREPs when ________ is reported or forecasted.

Back 25

Light icing (LP 28, p. 6)

Front 26

549. Which of the following is not one of the minimum information requirements for handling an emergency?

Back 26

Aircraft color (LP 22, p. 9)

Front 27

550. The Rescue Coordination Center is operated by the ________.

Back 27

military (LP 23, p. 6)

Front 28

551. At what rate does temperature decrease with height (lapse rate) in the standard atmosphere?

Back 28

2°c/1,000 feet (LP 24, p. 6)

Front 29

552. Which statement about a pressure system and cloud creation is TRUE?

Back 29

Air in a low pressure system will rise, cool, and create clouds (LP 24, p. 19)

Front 30

553. The three necessary ingredients for precipitation formation are ________, ________, and ________.

Back 30

water vapor, lift, a growth process (LP 24, p. 31)

Front 31

554. Which condition is responsible for the most weather-related aviation accidents?

Back 31

Adverse wind (LP 25, p. 4)

Front 32

555. Turbulence that causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude describes ________ turbulence.

Back 32

severe (LP 25, p. 29)

Front 33

556. What is an unscheduled report that is taken when certain criteria have been observed?

Back 33

SPECI (LP 26, p. 5)

Front 34

557. M1/4SM FG

Back 34

“Visibility less than one-quarter, fog” (LP 26, p. 23)

Front 35

558. TAFs are used by air traffic controllers to anticipate weather changes that will affect aircraft operations ________.

Back 35

at specified terminals (LP 27, p. 3)

Front 36

559. Which in-flight advisory would provide a forecast of moderate icing over New York and Pennsylvania?

Back 36

AIRMET Zulu (LP 27, p. 35)

Front 37

560. A computer generated forecast of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at selected times, altitudes, and locations is a(n) _________ forecast.

Back 37

wind and temperature aloft (LP 27, p. 50)

Front 38

561. Each PIREP reporting turbulence must include the ________.

Back 38

turbulence intensity (LP 28, p. 7)

Front 39

562. Positive control is the ________ of all air traffic within designated airspace by ATC.

Back 39

separation (7110.65; LP 1, p. 15)

Front 40

563. The first duty priority of an air traffic controller is ________.

Back 40

separating traffic and issuing safety alerts (7110.65; LP 1, p. 16)

Front 41

564. Rotating airport beacons flashing white and green at regular intervals identifies what type of airport?

Back 41

Lighted land airport (AIM; LP 3, p. 29)

Front 42

565. What type of separation is defined as the spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed in units of time or miles?

Back 42

Longitudinal (7110.65; LP 4, p. 15)

Front 43

566. Assigning departing aircraft headings which diverge by at least 45 degrees is an example of ________ separation.

Back 43

lateral (7110.65; LP 4, p. 14)

Front 44

567. This NOTAM consists of information that requires wide dissemination and pertains to En route navigational aids, airports listed in the Airport Facility Directory (AFD), facilities and services.

Back 44

NOTAM D (7930.2; LP 5, p. 6)

Front 45

568. Which of the following is not a component of a secondary radar system?

Back 45

Receiver (ETM 12-0-1; LP 6, p. 23)

Front 46

569. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a secondary radar system?

Back 46

Only displays aircraft with transponders (ETM 12-0-1; LP 6, p. 30)

Front 47

570. This document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures for use in the United States National Airspace System (NAS).

Back 47

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) (AIM; LP 7, p. 18)

Front 48

571. Which airspace extends from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports?

Back 48

Class B (AIM; LP 9, p. 6)

Front 49

572. ATC specialists in Terminal/Center, age 39 and below, shall be scheduled for medical examinations by facility managers _________.

Back 49

every two years (FAR 67; LP 10, p. 41)

Front 50

573. A pilot flying VFR must stay at least 2,000 feet laterally from the clouds in classes ________ and ________ airspace.

Back 50

C;D (FAR 91; LP 11, p. 15)

Front 51

574. A pilot must use supplemental oxygen for the entire flight when flying at altitudes ________.

Back 51

above 14,000 MSL (FAR 91; LP 11, p. 48)

Front 52

575. Relative wind flows in a direction __________ and __________ the direction of flight.

Back 52

parallel with; opposite to (8083-25; LP 12, p. 6)

Front 53

576. When ________ and ________ are in equilibrium, the aircraft neither gains nor loses altitude.

Back 53

lift; weight (8083-25; LP 12, p. 14)

Front 54

577. What type of icing is an aircraft likely to encounter when flying in temperatures above freezing?

Back 54

Carburetor icing (8083-25; LP 12, p. 51)

Front 55

578. The definition of “wake turbulence” includes a number of phenomenon affecting flight safety. Which of the following choices is not included in the definition?

Back 55

Mach buffet (7110.65; LP 13, p. 3)

Front 56

579. A hovering helicopter will generate a high speed outward vortex to a distance of approximately ________ times the diameter of the rotor.

Back 56

3 (8083-21; LP 13, p. 21)

Front 57

580. An aircraft with a certificated takeoff weight of more than 41,000 lbs. up to but not including 300,000 lbs. is classified as ________.

Back 57

large (7110.65; LP 14, p. 9)

Front 58

581. All helicopters are classified as ________.

Back 58

category I (ATG-2; LP 14, p. 4)

Front 59

582. The aircraft pictured above is a ________.

Back 59

MD11 (ATG-2; LP 14, p. 65)

Front 60

583. 2 PM on a 24-hour clock equals _________.

Back 60

1400 (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 15, p. 19)

Front 61

584. An aircrafts TAS is significantly higher than its IAS ________.

Back 61

at high altitudes (FAA-H-8083-25, LP 15, p. 38)

Front 62

585. VORs are classed according to operational use. There are three classes. Which one of the selections below is not one of those classes?

Back 62

UH (Ultra high altitude) (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 16 p. 5)

Front 63

586. Class B operating rules can be found on the back of _______.

Back 63

VFR Terminal Area Charts (TAC legend; LP 17, p. 34)

Front 64

587. The primary purpose of an IFR Area Chart is to furnish ________.

Back 64

terminal data for IFR flights in congested areas (AIM; LP 18, p. 45)

Front 65

588. Which DP is always printed graphically and must be assigned by ATC?

Back 65

SID (7110.65; LP 19, p. 12)

Front 66

589. On the profile view of a non-precision instrument approach, the Maltese Cross depicts the __________.

Back 66

Final Approach Fix (FAF) (8083-15; LP 20, p. 27)

Front 67

590. The height of obstructions shown on the planview and airport diagram section of an IAP are always given in ________.

Back 67

MSL (AIM; LP 20, p. 8)

Front 68

591. Symptoms of hypoxia include all of the following except ___________.

Back 68

increased alertness (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 21, p. 45)

Front 69

592. Which of the following refers to a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance?

Back 69

Distress (7110.65; LP 22, p. 4)

Front 70

593. A pilot of an aircraft experiencing radio failure can be expected to squawk ________.

Back 70

7600 (7100.65; LP 22, p. 16)

Front 71

594. What cloud type indicates thermal lift of air, and whose tops can reach over 60,000 feet?

Back 71

Cumuliform (NWS Jetstream -Online School for Weather; LP 24,

Front 72

595. What National Weather Service office provides meteorological forecasts, and advice to ARTCCs and other FAA facilities regarding weather impact on their missions?

Back 72

Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU) (NWS Jetstream -Online School for Weather; LP 24, p. 41)

Front 73

596. Which of the following is NOT true regarding fog?

Back 73

Fog forms slowly, allowing pilots to avoid this hazard (FMH1, p. A-4; LP 25, p. 15)

Front 74

Which of the following METAR code groups does NOT designate a ceiling?

Back 74

SKC (AC 00-45; LP 26, p. 35)

Front 75

“A scheduled report transmitted at fixed intervals” describes a ________.

Back 75

METAR (FMH1; LP 26, p. 4)

Front 76

What type of forecast is issued when specific conditions are affecting or are expected to affect an area of at least 3,000 square miles or an area judged to have a significant impact on the safety of aircraft operations?

Back 76

SIGMET (AC 00-45; LP 27, p. 26)

Front 77

The message type “UUA” indicates that the PIREP falls under what classification?

Back 77

Urgent PIREP (7110.10; LP 28, p. 3)

Front 78

Each PIREP must include the altitude, location, time, and ________.

Back 78

aircraft type (7110.10; LP 28, p. 7)

Front 79

An action taken to transfer radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another controller when the aircraft will enter the receiving controller’s airspace and radio communications will be transferred is called a(n) ________.

Back 79

handoff (7110.66; LP 29, p. 51)

Front 80

How is a time of 6:42 a.m. stated as UTC time?

Back 80

ZERO SIX FOUR TWO ZULU (7110.65; LP 29, p. 12)

Front 81

604. Which of the following represents, in order, the steps of the position relief briefing?

Back 81

Preview position, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility, position review (7110.65; LP 29 p. 61)

Front 82

605. What is the proper procedure for deleting any umwanted or unused altitudes?

Back 82

Write an X through it (7110.65; LP 30, p. 9)

Front 83

606. On terminal flight progress strips, blocks 10 -18 are ________.

Back 83

specified by facility directive (7110.65; LP 30, p. 18)

Front 84

607. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft may only deviate from the provisions of an air traffic clearance when a(n) ________ occurs, or a(n) ________ is obtained.

Back 84

emergency; amended clearance (7110.65; LP 31, p. 5)

Front 85

608. The terminal flight progress strip has ________ use(s) in the terminal option.

Back 85

three (7110.65; LP 30, p. 17)

Front 86

609. Use prefixes when relaying ________, ________, or ________ through non-ATC facilities.

Back 86

clearances, information, requests (7110.65; LP 31, p. 10)