Atb: 436-522

Front 1

436. Taxiway centerline lights emit ______.
A. steady green lights
B. flashing green lights
C. alternating green and blue lights
D. steady blue lights

Back 1

A. steady green lights (LP 3, p. 33)

Front 2

437. What aircraft is pictured above?
A. B737
B. B757
C. A300
D. B777

Back 2

D. B777 (LP 14, p. 62)

Front 3

438. What aircraft is pictured above?
A. BE58
B. PAY1
C. PA34
D. P28A

Back 3

C. PA34 (LP 14, p. 44)

Front 4

439. Generally, what are the two basic types of landing gear?
A. Bicycle and tricycle
B. Tricycle and conventional
C. Bicycle and conventional
D. Tricycle and nose dragger

Back 4

B. Tricycle and conventional (LP 14, p. 29)

Front 5

440. An aircraft with a certified takeoff weight of ________ pounds or less will fall into the small weight class.
A. 12,500
B. 41,000
C. 50,000
D. 155,000

Back 5

B. 41,000 (LP 14, p. 9)

Front 6

441. A helicopter generates wingtip vortices when ________.
A. lift is first generated
B. in stationary hover
C. in vertical ascent
D. in forward flight

Back 6

D. in forward flight (LP 13, p. 22)

Front 7

442. Which three aircraft characteristics represent the greatest generated wake turbulence?
A. Heavy, dirty, slow
B. Small, clean, fast
C. Large, dirty, slow
D. Heavy, clean, slow

Back 7

D. Heavy, clean, slow (LP 13, p. 4)

Front 8

443. The pitch (angle of attack) of a helicopter rotor blade is controlled by the ________.
A. cyclic
B. throttle
C. collective
D. antitorque pedal

Back 8

C. collective (LP 12, p. 40)

Front 9

444. Actual atmospheric pressure at a given time and place does not depend on which of the following?
A. Temperature
B. Wind
C. Density of the air
D. Altitude

Back 9

B. Wind (LP 12, p. 17)

Front 10

445. A term for the air flow which is parallel with, and opposite to, the direction of flight is called a/an ____________.
A. angle of attack
B. relative wind
C. flight path
D. headwind

Back 10

B. relative wind (LP 12, p. 6)

Front 11

446. When an IFR flight loses two-way communications with ATC, controllers should consider the pilot’s actions with regard to their:
A. route, speed and altitude
B. route, time to leave their clearance limit and speed
C. altitude, route and time to leave their clearance limit
D. altitude, time to leave their clearance limit and speed

Back 11

C. altitude, route and time to leave their clearance limit (LP 11, p. 40)

Front 12

447. FAR Part ___________ covers General Operating and Flight Rules.
A. 67
B. 121
C. 91
D. 135

Back 12

C. 91 (LP 11, p. 3)

Front 13

448. Which of the following statements concerning special VFR (SVFR) is true?
A. ATC clearance is required.
B. SVFR operations may be conducted at any altitude below FL180.
C. Pilot need not request SVFR clearance.
D. 3SM visibility is required.

Back 13

A. ATC clearance is required. (LP 11, p. 22)

Front 14

449. A pilot in command operating in VFR conditions shall not cancel an IFR flight plan while operating in Class ________ Airspace.
A. D
B. C
C. B
D. A

Back 14

D. A (LP 10, p.27)

Front 15

450. What pre-flight action does FAR 91 require pilots to take before beginning a flight?
A. File a flight plan
B. Receive ATC authorization for the flight
C. Advise ATC of intentions
D. Familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight

Back 15

D. Familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight (LP 10, p. 13)

Front 16

451. Which special use airspace is always located offshore?
A. Warning Area
B. Alert Area
C. Controlled Firing Area
D. National Security Area

Back 16

A. Warning Area (LP 9, p. 19)

Front 17

452. What aircraft is pictured above?
A. Citation 550
B. Citation 10
C. Beechjet
D. Golden Eagle

Back 17

A. Citation 550 (LP 14, p. 52)

Front 18

453. Which of the following aircraft is depicted in this graphic?
A. C172
B. C208
C. C210
D. C130

Back 18

C. C210 (LP 14, p. 38)

Front 19

454. Which statement is NOT true regarding the general characteristics of Category II aircraft?
A. Large weight class
B. They operate at FL240 and below
C. Speed is 160-250 knots
D. Climb rate is 1,000 to 2,000 feet per minute

Back 19

A. Large weight class (LP 14, p. 6)

Front 20

455. A C17 is included in aircraft Category ___________.
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

Back 20

C. III (LP 14, p. 4)

Front 21

456. Counter control to a wake turbulence induced roll is most effective when _______.
A. there is no more than a 5 knot crosswind
B. a large aircraft follows a heavy aircraft
C. a rapid descent is made
D. the ailerons extend beyond the edge of the vortex

Back 21

D. the ailerons extend beyond the edge of the vortex (LP 13, p.19)

Front 22

457. The effect of the rotating air masses generated behind the wing tips of aircraft or behind the rotor tips of helicopters in forward motion is __________.
A. updrafts and downdrafts
B. wake turbulence
C. low-level wind shear
D. attitude variations

Back 22

B. wake turbulence (LP 13, p. 3)

Front 23

458. The forces that are acting on a helicopter in flight are lift, thrust, _______, and _______.
A. torque, drag
B. weight, gravity
C. angle of attack, drag
D. weight, drag

Back 23

D. weight, drag (LP 12, p. 39)

Front 24

459. With a(n) ________ in airspeed, drag ________.
A. increase; increases rapidly
B. increase; decreases rapidly
C. decrease; increases rapidly
D. decrease; remains the same

Back 24

A. increase; increases rapidly (LP 12, p. 14)

Front 25

460. When air is forced to travel at a faster speed across the top of a wing versus the bottom, this will result in ________ the wing.
A. lower pressure above
B. lower pressure below
C. higher pressure above
D. atmospheric pressure above

Back 25

A. lower pressure above (LP 12, p. 4)

Front 26

461. A pilot flying VFR must maintain at least 5 miles visibility in all or part of class ________ and ________ airspace.
A. E;A
B. E;G
C. G;D
D. C;D

Back 26

B. E;G (LP 11, pp. 16 and 18)

Front 27

462. No person may operate an aircraft under VFR in Class C airspace with a flight visibility of less than ________.
A. 1NM
B. 1SM
C. 3NM
D. 3SM

Back 27

D. 3SM (LP 11, p. 15)

Front 28

463. An ATC specialist who is 41 years of age and works in the Terminal option is required to have a medical examination every ________.
A. year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

Back 28

A. year (LP 10, p. 41)

Front 29

464. Which of the following statements is true concerning FAR Part 91 aircraft speed restrictions?
A. Above 10,000 MSL, no aircraft may exceed 250 knots.
B. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots in any Class C airspace.
C. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots when operating below Class B airspace.
D. Under no circumstances may an aircraft exceed 250 knots in Class B airspace.

Back 29

C. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots when operating below Class B airspace. (LP 10, p. 21)

Front 30

465. A(n) ________is specified information, relating to the intended flight of an aircraft.
A. ATC Clearance
B. Flight Plan
C. Supplement
D. Notice

Back 30

B. Flight Plan (LP 10, p. 7)

Front 31

466. ATC does not have the authority or the responsibility to issue clearances in class _____ airspace.
A. C
B. D
C. E
D. G

Back 31

D. G (LP 9, p. 12)

Front 32

467. Recognition features of the B737 are ___________.
A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing
B. Two jet engines under each wing, low wing
C. One jet engine under each wing, T-tail
D. One jet engine under each wing, one jet in tail

Back 32

A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing (LP 14, p. 58)

Front 33

468. What is a prominent identification feature of the BE35?
A. Tricycle gear
B. Low-wing
C. Propeller-driven
D. “V”-tail

Back 33

D. “V”-tail (LP 14, p. 40)

Front 34

469. A civilian aircraft designator __________.
A. is always 4 alpha-numerics
B. indicates the mission
C. generally indicates the manufacturer
D. may be 1 to 4 characters

Back 34

C. generally indicates the manufacturer (LP 14, p. 11)

Front 35

470. _________ is jet engine exhaust.
A. Prop-wash
B. Wake turbulence
C. Jet blast
D. Counter control

Back 35

C. Jet blast (LP 13, p. 24)

Front 36

471. Which of the following statements regarding wingtip vortices is true?
A. They drift inward and sink.
B. They drift outward and sink.
C. They drift inward and rise.
D. They drift outward and rise.

Back 36

B. They drift outward and sink. (LP 13, p. 12)

Front 37

472. The most hazardous aspect of structural icing is _______.
A. decreases weight
B. increased drag
C. reduced thrust
D. airfoil distortion

Back 37

D. airfoil distortion (LP 12, p. 49)

Front 38

473. Which are the primary control surfaces on an airplane?
A. Ailerons, elevator, and flaps
B. Elevator, flaps, and trim tabs
C. Rudder, ailerons, and elevator
D. Flaps, ailerons, and propeller

Back 38

C. Rudder, ailerons, and elevator (LP 12, p. 26)

Front 39

474. Which of the following is NOT a principal airfoil?
A. Wing
B. Propeller
C. Horizontal tail surface
D. Fuselage

Back 39

D. Fuselage (LP 12, p. 7)

Front 40

475. What is the requirement for supplemental oxygen above 15,000 MSL?
A. Only the pilot is provided supplemental oxygen
B. None
C. Each occupant of aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen
D. Pilot and co-pilot are provided supplemental oxygen

Back 40

C. Each occupant of aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen (LP 11, p. 48)

Front 41

476. A pilot flying under IFR conditions experiences a radio failure. If a route has not been assigned and/or ATC has not advised a route to be expected, what action should the pilot take?
A. Proceed by the route filed in the flight plan.
B. Land at nearest available airport.
C. Climb to VFR-on-top and continue flight.
D. Proceed to alternate airport.

Back 41

A. Proceed by the route filed in the flight plan. (LP 11, p. 42)

Front 42

477. An appropriate magnetic course for an aircraft flying VFR at 6,500 feet MSL and more than 3,000 feet AGL would be ________ degrees.
A. 190
B. 100
C. 360
D. 010

Back 42

A. 190 (LP 11, p. 24)

Front 43

478. To be eligible for an ATC tower operator's certificate, you must hold a _________ medical certificate.
A. First Class
B. Second Class
C. Third Class
D. No medical is required.

Back 43

B. Second Class (LP 10, p. 38)

Front 44

479. An aircraft has the right-of-way over all other aircraft when it is in ________.
A. VFR conditions
B. distress
C. IFR conditions
D. controlled airspace

Back 44

B. distress (LP 10, p. 15)

Front 45

480. Which type of special use airspace may contain a high volume of pilot training activities or unusual types of aerial activities, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft?

A. Alert areas
B. Prohibited areas
C. Restricted areas
D. Warning areas

Back 45

A. Alert areas (LP 9, p. 20)

Front 46

481. What is generally the vertical limit of Class D airspace?
A. 2,500 feet MSL
B. Up to, but not including, 18,000 MSL
C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation
D. 3,500 AGL

Back 46

C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation (LP 9, p. 10)

Front 47

482. Which of the following transponder codes is invalid?
A. 2345
B. 3456
C. 4567
D. 5678

Back 47

D. 5678 (LP 21, p. 33)

Front 48

483. Which of the following is an optional component of an ILS?
A. Inner marker beacon
B. Visual information
C. Glide slope
D. Localizer

Back 48

A. Inner marker beacon (LP 20, p. 9)

Front 49

484. Standard Instrument Departure charts are published every ________.
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 112 days
D. 56 days

Back 49

D. 56 days (LP 19, p. 5)

Front 50

485. Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) have been established at certain airports to ________.
A. simplify clearance delivery, expedite traffic flow, and reduce pilot/controller workload.
B. eliminate the need for clearance delivery procedures.
C. ensure all aircraft depart on exactly the same route.
D. relieve airport congestion and increase pilot/controller workload.

Back 50

485. A. simplify clearance delivery, expedite traffic flow, and reduce pilot/controller workload. (LP 19, p. 3)

Front 51

486. Solid triangles indicate ________.
A. VOR changeover points
B. DME fixes
C. compulsory reporting points
D. substitute route structure

Back 51

C. compulsory reporting points (LP 18, p. 22)

Front 52

487. Class D airspace on a sectional aeronautical chart is depicted by a ________ line.
A. dashed blue
B. solid blue
C. solid magenta
D. dashed magenta

Back 52

A. dashed blue (LP 17, p. 16)

Front 53

488. The maximum usable range of an “H” class VOR is _______.
A. 25 NM
B. 130 NM
C. 40NM
D. 100 NM

Back 53

B. 130 NM (LP 16 p. 8)

Front 54

489. True course corrected for the effects of wind is ________.
A. magnetic heading
B. magnetic track
C. true heading
D. true track

Back 54

C. true heading (LP 15, p. 36)

Front 55

490. A nautical mile equals ________ statute miles (SM).
A. .87
B. 1.15
C. 1.5
D. 1.87

Back 55

B. 1.15 (LP 15, p. 14)

Front 56

491. Which of the following is a gyroscopic instrument?
A. Heading indicator
B. Altimeter
C. Airspeed indicator
D. Vertical speed indicator

Back 56

A. Heading indicator (LP 21, p. 13)

Front 57

492. Instrument Approach Procedures (IAPs) are designed to ________.
A. be used only by aircraft in IFR conditions
B. transition an aircraft to a point where the aircraft may be vectored to the final approach course
C. expedite air traffic in terminal areas
D. provide an IFR descent from an en route environment to a point where a safe landing can be made

Back 57

D. provide an IFR descent from an en route environment to a point where a safe landing can be made (LP 20, p. 3)

Front 58

493. Of the types of instrument approaches listed, which one is a precision approach?
A. VOR
B. NDB
C. ILS
D. TACAN

Back 58

C. ILS (LP 20, p. 8)

Front 59

494. The primary purpose of an IFR Area Chart is to furnish ________.
A. VFR reporting points
B. visual landmarks for use in congested areas
C. terminal data for VFR flights in congested areas
D. terminal data for IFR flights in congested areas

Back 59

D. terminal data for IFR flights in congested areas (LP 18, p. 45)

Front 60

495. The En Route Low Altitude charts are for use below ________.
A. 18,000 feet MSL
B. 18,000 feet AGL
C. 12,500 feet MSL
D. 14,000 feet MSL

Back 60

A. 18,000 feet MSL (LP 18, p. 3)

Front 61

496. Basic terrain contour lines on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart are generally spaced at ________ foot intervals.
A. 100
B. 500
C. 1,000
D. 2,000

Back 61

B. 500 (LP 17, p. 8)

Front 62

497. The primary use for Sectional Aeronautical Charts is ________ navigation by ________ speed aircraft.
A. IFR; slow and medium
B. VFR; high
C. IFR; high
D. VFR; slow and medium

Back 62

D. VFR; slow and medium (LP 17, p. 3)

Front 63

498. An aircraft travels 300 nautical miles over the ground in three hours while experiencing a tailwind of 25 knots. The aircraft’s ground speed is ________ knots.
A. 150
B. 125
C. 100
D. 90

Back 63

C. 100 (LP 15, p. 25)

Front 64

499. The navigational method based solely on computing air speed, course, wind, ground speed, and elapsed time is ________.
A. dead reckoning
B. VFR navigation
C. pilotage
D. radio navigation

Back 64

A. dead reckoning (LP 15, p. 45)

Front 65

500. Circles parallel to the equator are called ________.
A. great circles
B. parallels of longitude
C. meridians
D. parallels of latitude

Back 65

D. parallels of latitude (LP 15, p. 5)

Front 66

501. A lack of oxygen in the body tissue results in ________.
A. Hyperventilation
B. Vertigo
C. Hyperextension
D. Hypoxia

Back 66

D. Hypoxia (LP 21, p. 44)

Front 67

502. In which section of the Instrument Approach Chart are the DME arcs depicted?
A. Profile View
B. Airport Diagram
C. Planview
D. Circling section

Back 67

C. Planview (LP 20, p. 21)

Front 68

503. The STAR is not designed to ________.
A. expedite ATC arrival procedures.
B. funnel arrival traffic into one-way corridors and reduce coordination between ATC facilities.
C. provide guidance to a fix in the terminal area.
D. ensure appropriate separation minima between aircraft.

Back 68

D. ensure appropriate separation minima between aircraft. (LP 19, p. 3, 29)

Front 69

504. Chart(s) that are specifically designed to provide aeronautical information used during instrument flight
A. En Route Low Charts
B. En Route High Charts
C. IFR Area Charts
D. All of the above

Back 69

D. All of the above (LP 18)

Front 70

505. An asterisk (∗) before an altitude along a low altitude airway indicates a(n) ________.
A. MOCA
B. MCA
C. MEA
D. MRA

Back 70

A. MOCA (LP 18, p. 19)

Front 71

506. Where are Class B airspace operating rules found?
A. On the Terminal Area Chart
B. On the inside flap of a Sectional Aeronautical Chart
C. In the World Aeronautical Chart Legend
D. Only in the Airport/Facility Directory

Back 71

A. On the Terminal Area Chart (LP 17, p. 34)

Front 72

507. The component of the ILS which provides the descent angle is the ________.
A. marker beacon
B. localizer
C. glide slope
D. back course marker

Back 72

C. glide slope (LP 16, p. 17)

Front 73

508. What condition will cause an aircraft’s indicated airspeed to decrease?
A. A decrease in altitude or temperature
B. A decrease in altitude or an increase in temperature
C. An increase in altitude or a decrease in temperature
D. An increase in altitude or temperature

Back 73

D. An increase in altitude or temperature (LP 15, p. 38)

Front 74

509. Time zones are established for every ________.
A. 15’ of longitude
B. 15°of latitude
C. 15°of longitude
D. 15’ of latitude

Back 74

C. 15°of longitude (LP 15, p. 19)

Front 75

510. A pilot would most likely be issued a STAR from a/an ________ controller.
A. tower
B. approach
C. ground
D. en route

Back 75

D. en route (LP 19, p. 32)

Front 76

511. On an En Route High Altitude Chart, all NAVAIDs shown are ________ class, unless otherwise identified.
A. Low
B. High
C. Terminal
D. Regional

Back 76

B. High (LP 18, p. 40)

Front 77

512. Airports are listed in the A/FD in which order?
A. largest to smallest
B. state, airport, city
C. city, airport, state
D. state, city, airport

Back 77

D. state, city, airport (LP 17, p. 42)

Front 78

513. A VHF Omni-Directional Range (VOR) has how many usable magnetic radials?
A. 90
B. 180
C. 360
D. 350

Back 78

C. 360 (LP 16, p. 6)

Front 79

514. Which formula is correct when D = distance, S = speed, and T = time?
A. S=DxT
B. D=S÷T
C. D=SxT
D. T=S x D

Back 79

C. D=SxT (LP 15, p. 26)

Front 80

515. One minute of latitude is equal to ___________ any place on the Earth’s surface.
A. 60 nautical miles (NM)
B. 60 statute miles (SM)
C. 1 nautical mile (NM)
D. 1 statute mile (SM)

Back 80

C. 1 nautical mile (NM) (LP 15, p. 9)

Front 81

516. Which instrument would be affected if the pitot tube became clogged?
A. Altimeter
B. Vertical speed indicator
C. Heading indicator
D. Airspeed indicator

Back 81

D. Airspeed indicator (LP 21, p. 3)

Front 82

517. Runway Visual Range (RVR) is ________.
A. the horizontal distance a pilot will see down the runway from the approach end
B. given in nautical miles
C. located in the Airport Diagram section of the IAP
D. used only for military aircraft

Back 82

A. the horizontal distance a pilot will see down the runway from the approach end (LP 20, p. 31)

Front 83

518. World Aeronautical Charts are used primarily for which type of navigation?
A. RNAV
B. Pilotage
C. IFR
D. Satellite

Back 83

B. Pilotage (LP 17, p. 38)

Front 84

519. Generally, ATS routes defined from 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL describe ________.
A. victor routes
B. jet routes
C. Q routes
D. MTRs

Back 84

A. victor routes (LP 16, p. 33)

Front 85

520. An aircraft travels at 450 knots for 2 hours, 30 minutes. How many nautical miles has the aircraft traveled?
A. 1,050 miles
B. 1,075 miles
C. 1,100 miles
D. 1,125 miles

Back 85

D. 1,125 miles (LP 15, pp. 25 thru 27)

Front 86

521. Lines connecting points of equal difference between true and magnetic north are called ________ lines.
A. agonic
B. isochronous
C. isogonic
D. isobaric

Back 86

C. isogonic (LP 15, p. 41)

Front 87

522. The phrase “MAYDAY” describes a/an ________ situation.
A. potential
B. composed
C. distress
D. urgency

Back 87

C. distress (LP 22, p. 4)