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47 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
A HR under ___________on the APGAR scale receives 1 point
100; over 100 is 2 points
The pediatric larynx is at C_____ compared to C_____ in the adult
C3-4 in kids, C5-6 in adults
Children have reduced FRC because of increased _____ and decreased ________.
Increased chest wall compliance, decreased lung volumes
URI within _____ increases anesthetic risk
4 weeks
Children have _____ the O2 consumption of adults, ______ cc/kg/min
twice the consumption, 6-8 cc/kg/min
Alveolar development is complete by _______ years
8 years
________ can be a normal pediatric heart sound
S3
Children may have a _____ S1, S2
fused
What 6 classes of patients are at highest risk/ most susceptible to heat loss intraoperatively?
1.Children & Elderly
2.Pre-operative temperature <36 degrees C
3. Combined general and regional anesthesia
4. major or intermediate surgery
5. prolonged surgery
6. ASA 3-5 patients
The majority of heat lost is due to ________ and occurs in the ___________
Redistribution from core to periphery, occurs in the first hour
After the first hour, the majority of heat is lost by _____, and can be prevented by __________
Radiation, prevent this loss by increasing ambient (room) temp- accounts for 40% of heat loss
What is the minimum temperature for surgery on an infant?
78 F
The second greatest cause of heat loss intraoperatively other than redistribution and radiation is _____ and can be prevented by _______
Convection; treat by covering patient (Bair hugger)
The five sources of heat loss (other than redistribution) are:
Radiation, convection, conduction, evaporation, respiratory loss
True of false: Warming fluids is a relatively inefficient way to conserve heat
True
The ambient room temp for an adult should be > ____
21
Name 7 side effects of hypothermia
1. cardiac arrhythmias
2. ischemia
3. left shift of the O2 dissociation curve
4. reversible coagulopathy (platelet dysfunction)
5. post-op protein catabolism
6. altered mental status
7. impaired renal function
You cannot reverse a patient with a temp < ____ because _____
35.5; drug metabolism will be altered and patient will become weak in PACU
What are the changes to the CV system during pregnancy?
Cardiac output increases +50%; HR increases +25%
Systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure fall
At how many weeks should you be able to palpate the fundus?
12-14 weeks
When can the baby's heart beat be heard with a doppler?
10-12 weeks; 18 weeks with fetoscope
Where is the apical impulse in the pregnant patient?
4th ICS, MCL (compared to 5th ICS in non-pregnant)
Pregnant women frequently have _____ heart sounds
S3 is common, S4 occurs in 16% of pregnant women
What is the average Hgb and Hct in pregnant patients?
11.6 & 35.5%- plasma volume increases more than red blood cell volume and results in hemodilution
Blood volume increases ___ during pregnancy
45%
Pregnant patients have _____ schincter tone because of what hormone? Gastic pH is _____ because of what hormone?
UES tone decreased d/t progesterone, gastin caueses decreased pH of stomach contents
Pregnant patients have ________ volume and decreased gastric ______
Increased gastric volume and decreased pH; ALWAYS treat as a full stomach (give Bicitra)
How do you calculate an EDD?
take the first date of the LMP, add one week, subtract three months and add one year
Maternal report of fetal movement begins at:
18-24 weeks
Pre-ecclampsia is defined as:
elevated blood pressure >140/>90
beginning after 20 weeks’ gestation with protein in the urine
capillary
engorgement of the
nasal & oral mucosa
& larynx begins
in the first trimester
From 20-32 weeks, the fundal height________
From 20 weeks to 32 weeks, the fundal height in
centimeters should approximate the number of weeks of gestation
How do you calculate BMI?
BMI = Weight (kg)/Height (m2)
Obesity is defined as a BMI > ________
30
Elderly patients have _______ compliance and may require _______ PIP
decreased compliance, increased peak pressures
After age 40, what does an S3 imply? An S4?
S3 is almost never normal after age 40- strongly indicates heart failure; S4 can be heard in healthy people in this age group but implies decreased ventricular compliance
S1 ______ the carotid pulse, S2 ______ the carotid pulse
S1 precedes the carotid pulse, S2 follows the carotid pulse
What do each of the grades of murmurs mean?
Grade I just audible with a good stethoscope in a quiet room

Grade 2 quiet but readily audible with a stethoscope

Grade 3 easily heard with a stethoscope

Grade 4 a loud, obvious murmur with a palpable thrill

Grade 5 very loud, heard only over the pericardium but elsewhere in the body

Grade 6 heard with stethoscope off chest
Aortic murmurs are best heard:
Right sternal border, 2nd ICS
_______ people are accident prone, and ______ people are likely to have STDs
;)
What groups of people are likely to have an abnormal pre-op EKG (and that we should consider getting a baseline EKG on for comparison)?
Age > 65 years
History of CHF
History of angina
History of MI
History of severe valvular disease
High cholesterol
What two EKG findings have been shown to correllate with increased risk of perioperative MI?
R. and L. BBB
Who is at increased risk for peri-operative adverse cardiac events?
CAD
CHF
Cerebrovascular disease
DM
Renal disease (Cr > 2.0 g/dL)
High risk surgical procedures
Vascular is highest
Emergency surgery
Age (risk increases relatively linearly by decade after 40)
HTN
Obesity
Surgery longer than _____ hours is associated with adverse cardiac events
3 (or 3.8)
What types of surgeries put patients at the highest risk for adverse perioperative cardiac events?
Vascular surgery (AAA, peripheral vascular)
What types of surgeries put patients at medium risk for adverse perioperative cardiac events?
Intrathoracic, peritoneal surgeries, CEA, head and neck, ortho, prostate
Who should undergo testing before non-cardiac surgery?
Severe valvular heart disease, unstable coronary syndromes, decompensated CHF, significant arrythmias