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47 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
A HR under ___________on the APGAR scale receives 1 point
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100; over 100 is 2 points
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The pediatric larynx is at C_____ compared to C_____ in the adult
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C3-4 in kids, C5-6 in adults
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Children have reduced FRC because of increased _____ and decreased ________.
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Increased chest wall compliance, decreased lung volumes
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URI within _____ increases anesthetic risk
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4 weeks
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Children have _____ the O2 consumption of adults, ______ cc/kg/min
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twice the consumption, 6-8 cc/kg/min
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Alveolar development is complete by _______ years
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8 years
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________ can be a normal pediatric heart sound
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S3
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Children may have a _____ S1, S2
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fused
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What 6 classes of patients are at highest risk/ most susceptible to heat loss intraoperatively?
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1.Children & Elderly
2.Pre-operative temperature <36 degrees C 3. Combined general and regional anesthesia 4. major or intermediate surgery 5. prolonged surgery 6. ASA 3-5 patients |
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The majority of heat lost is due to ________ and occurs in the ___________
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Redistribution from core to periphery, occurs in the first hour
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After the first hour, the majority of heat is lost by _____, and can be prevented by __________
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Radiation, prevent this loss by increasing ambient (room) temp- accounts for 40% of heat loss
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What is the minimum temperature for surgery on an infant?
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78 F
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The second greatest cause of heat loss intraoperatively other than redistribution and radiation is _____ and can be prevented by _______
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Convection; treat by covering patient (Bair hugger)
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The five sources of heat loss (other than redistribution) are:
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Radiation, convection, conduction, evaporation, respiratory loss
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True of false: Warming fluids is a relatively inefficient way to conserve heat
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True
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The ambient room temp for an adult should be > ____
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21
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Name 7 side effects of hypothermia
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1. cardiac arrhythmias
2. ischemia 3. left shift of the O2 dissociation curve 4. reversible coagulopathy (platelet dysfunction) 5. post-op protein catabolism 6. altered mental status 7. impaired renal function |
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You cannot reverse a patient with a temp < ____ because _____
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35.5; drug metabolism will be altered and patient will become weak in PACU
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What are the changes to the CV system during pregnancy?
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Cardiac output increases +50%; HR increases +25%
Systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure fall |
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At how many weeks should you be able to palpate the fundus?
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12-14 weeks
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When can the baby's heart beat be heard with a doppler?
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10-12 weeks; 18 weeks with fetoscope
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Where is the apical impulse in the pregnant patient?
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4th ICS, MCL (compared to 5th ICS in non-pregnant)
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Pregnant women frequently have _____ heart sounds
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S3 is common, S4 occurs in 16% of pregnant women
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What is the average Hgb and Hct in pregnant patients?
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11.6 & 35.5%- plasma volume increases more than red blood cell volume and results in hemodilution
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Blood volume increases ___ during pregnancy
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45%
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Pregnant patients have _____ schincter tone because of what hormone? Gastic pH is _____ because of what hormone?
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UES tone decreased d/t progesterone, gastin caueses decreased pH of stomach contents
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Pregnant patients have ________ volume and decreased gastric ______
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Increased gastric volume and decreased pH; ALWAYS treat as a full stomach (give Bicitra)
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How do you calculate an EDD?
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take the first date of the LMP, add one week, subtract three months and add one year
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Maternal report of fetal movement begins at:
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18-24 weeks
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Pre-ecclampsia is defined as:
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elevated blood pressure >140/>90
beginning after 20 weeks’ gestation with protein in the urine |
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capillary
engorgement of the nasal & oral mucosa & larynx begins |
in the first trimester
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From 20-32 weeks, the fundal height________
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From 20 weeks to 32 weeks, the fundal height in
centimeters should approximate the number of weeks of gestation |
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How do you calculate BMI?
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BMI = Weight (kg)/Height (m2)
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Obesity is defined as a BMI > ________
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30
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Elderly patients have _______ compliance and may require _______ PIP
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decreased compliance, increased peak pressures
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After age 40, what does an S3 imply? An S4?
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S3 is almost never normal after age 40- strongly indicates heart failure; S4 can be heard in healthy people in this age group but implies decreased ventricular compliance
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S1 ______ the carotid pulse, S2 ______ the carotid pulse
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S1 precedes the carotid pulse, S2 follows the carotid pulse
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What do each of the grades of murmurs mean?
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Grade I just audible with a good stethoscope in a quiet room
Grade 2 quiet but readily audible with a stethoscope Grade 3 easily heard with a stethoscope Grade 4 a loud, obvious murmur with a palpable thrill Grade 5 very loud, heard only over the pericardium but elsewhere in the body Grade 6 heard with stethoscope off chest |
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Aortic murmurs are best heard:
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Right sternal border, 2nd ICS
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_______ people are accident prone, and ______ people are likely to have STDs
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;)
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What groups of people are likely to have an abnormal pre-op EKG (and that we should consider getting a baseline EKG on for comparison)?
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Age > 65 years
History of CHF History of angina History of MI History of severe valvular disease High cholesterol |
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What two EKG findings have been shown to correllate with increased risk of perioperative MI?
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R. and L. BBB
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Who is at increased risk for peri-operative adverse cardiac events?
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CAD
CHF Cerebrovascular disease DM Renal disease (Cr > 2.0 g/dL) High risk surgical procedures Vascular is highest Emergency surgery Age (risk increases relatively linearly by decade after 40) HTN Obesity |
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Surgery longer than _____ hours is associated with adverse cardiac events
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3 (or 3.8)
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What types of surgeries put patients at the highest risk for adverse perioperative cardiac events?
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Vascular surgery (AAA, peripheral vascular)
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What types of surgeries put patients at medium risk for adverse perioperative cardiac events?
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Intrathoracic, peritoneal surgeries, CEA, head and neck, ortho, prostate
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Who should undergo testing before non-cardiac surgery?
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Severe valvular heart disease, unstable coronary syndromes, decompensated CHF, significant arrythmias
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