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260 Cards in this Set

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What are the functions of blood?
1. Transportation of O2, CO2, nutrients, and wastes
2. Regulation of body pH, temperature, and water content of cells
3. Protection by antibodies, white blood cells, and clot formation
What is the viscosity of blood?
4.5-5.5 thickness
What is the pH of blood?
7.35-7.45
What is the temperature of blood?
38 degrees of celsius
What percentage of body weight does blood compose?
8%
What is the amount of blood in an adult male? female?
5-6 liters; 4-5 liters
What are the components of blood?
plasma and formed elements
Where does hematopoiesis occur in the embryo/fetus?
liver, spleen, lymphnodes, bone marrow, thymus gland, and yolk sac
Where does hematopoiesis occur in adults?
myeloid tissue (red bone marrow in the sternum, ribs, vertebrae, and pelvis)- all elements, lymphoid tissue gives rise to agranulocytes
What cells do pluripotent stem cells form and what do they become when they mature?
proerythrocyte- erythrocyte
myeloblast- granulocyte
lymphoblast- lymphocyte
monoblast- monocyte
megakaryoblast- platelet
What percentage of formed elements do erythrocytes compose?
99%
What shape is a erythrocyte and why is it useful?
biconcave disc; provides more surface area
What are the results of the lack of a nucleus by a erythrocyte?
limited metabolism, inability to reproduce, do not possess mitochondria, and cannot produce enzymes
What is hemoglobin composed of?
2 alpha strands and 2 beta strands of globins each with a heme
What are the functions of hemoglobin?
1. can combine reversibly with oxygen
2. can combine reversibly with carbon dioxide
3. capable of buffering hydrogen ions
What is the formula for combining oxygen and hemoglobin?
Hgb + O2 --><--HgbO2
What does the combining of hemoglobin and oxygen form?
oxyhemoglobin HgbO2
What is the formula for combining carbon dioxide and hemoglobin?
Hgb + CO2 --><-- HgbCO2
What does the combining of hemoglobin and carbon dioxide form?
carbaminohemoglobin HgbCO2
What does carbaminohemoglobin produce?
Blue-red color of blood
How many O2 molecules can hemoglobin carry at a time?
4
What is the benefit of a erythrocyte possessing no mitochondria?
they do not carry on aerobic respiration so they do not use the oxygen they are carrying
What does sickle cell anemia cause?
Loss of flexibility of the erythrocyte, causing them to get lodged in capillaries
What is the life span of a erythrocyte?
120 days
What is globin broken down into?
amino acids
What is heme broken down into?
Fe + bileverdin
What is bileverdin broken down into?
bilerubin
What is bilerubin used for?
Broken down into bile in the liver or sent to intestines and colon as fiber
What happens to the bilerubin in the large intestine?
bacteria of large intestine begins to eat and converts into urobilegin
What eliminates urobilegin from the body?
the kidneys
Where does erythropoiesis occur?
red bone marrow
What cell begins erythropoiesis?
pluripotent stem cells
What do pluripotent stem cells form in erythropoiesis?
reticulocytes
What two events converts a reticulocyte to a erythrocyte?
1. dumping of the nucleus
2. filling of the nucleus space with hemoglobin
What do the receptors in the kidney monitor?
O2 levels
What type of feedback mechanism is used by the kidney to monitor erythrocyte production
negative feedback mechanism
What materials are needed for erythropoiesis?
supply of iron, vitamin B12, and an intrinsic factor
Why is iron needed for erythropoiesis?
To produce heme
Why is vitamin B12 essential in erythropoiesis?
component in synthesis of hemoglobin
What is the function of the intrinsic factor in erythropoiesis?
necessary for absorption of B12 from the small intestine
What are the diseases possible to transmit during blood doping
HIV and HBV
Where do leukocytes do the major portion of their work?
outside of blood in tissue spaces
What type of nucleus does a granulocyte have?
lobed
What type of nucleus does an agranulocyte have?
large and spherical
What are the 5 steps of phagocytosis?
1. chemotaxis
2. diapedesis
3. adhering to targeted damaged cell
4. engulfment of the cell
5. dumping of digestive-like chemicals into the vacuole and "eating" it
What type of nucleus does a leukocyte have?
polymorphonucleus
Which is the first leukocyte to respond to an infection?
neutrophils
what does a band measure?
neutrophil production and rate
What does a neutrophil destroy?
bacteria and viruses
What is the largest of the leukocytes?
monocytes
What do monocytes destroy?
mostly viral infections but also bacteria
What do fixed macrophages make up?
reticuloendothelial system
What does the reticuloendothelial system destroy?
Bad and damaged cells, especially erythrocytes
What system are wandering macrophages especially important in?
immune
Which cell is the least numerous of the leukocytes?
Basophil
which leukocyte has a light cytoplasm with large, dark purple granules?
basophils
Which cell contains heparin?
basophil
Which cell contains histamine?
basophil
What are the functions of histamine?
call leukocytes for phagocytosis and initiate inflammation
What cell contains the protein responsible for allergies?
basophil
What type of nucleus does an eosinophil have?
double-lobed
Which cell has reddish granules?
eosinophils
Where are the eosinophils mostly located?
mucosa of digestive tract and respiratory tract
What are the eosinophils' role in phagocytosis?
Destroy antigen-antibody complexes using the lock and key method
Which cells are the second most numerous leukocytes?
lymphocytes
Where are lymphocytes mostly located?
in lymphoid tissue, mostly lymphnodes and the spleen
Which cells give rise to the functional cells of the immune system?
lymphocytes
Specifically, what cells do lymphocytes give rise to?
B cells and T cells
What is the life span of a leukocyte?
about 2 weeks
What controls leukopoiesis?
colony stimulating factors
What is the most important source of colony stimulating factors?
macrophages and T cells
What cells are thrombocytes formed from?
megakaryocytes
What do thrombocytes function in?
clot formation
What chemical do thrombocytes contain?
serotonin
What is the life span of a thrombocyte?
10-12 days
Which hormone controls the production of thrombocytes?
thrombopoietin
Which organ can thrombocytes be stored in?
spleen
Which animal was the Rh factor discovered in?
the rhesus monkey
What stimulates the body to produce an antibody?
exposure to the antigen for that antibody
What injection is used for Rh- moms with Rh+ babies?
RhoGAM
What is the disadvantage of RhoGAM?
It must be injected for ALL pregnancies- success, miscarriage, stillborns, and abortions
When are the doses of RhoGAM administered?
at the end of the 7th month and on the day of birth
How much of plasma do the proteins make up?
8%
What are the plasma proteins responsible for?
viscosity of blood
What do plasma proteins determine in blood?
osmotic pressure of blood
What are some of the functions of plasma proteins?
clot formation, protection, amino acid storage for synthesis
What plasma protein makes up 55% of all plasma proteins?
albumin
What does albumin maintain?
osmotic pressure of blood
Where is albumin made?
the liver
What do gamma globulins protect against?
viruses and bacteria
Where is fibrinogen made?
the liver
What has to happen to fibrinogen in order for it to be able to make a clot?
converted to fibrin
What chemicals prolong the effects of vascular spasm?
prostoglandins and serotonin
How long does vascular spasm last?
20-30 minutes
What are the three steps in establishing a closed vasuclar system when a blood vessel is broken?
vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
In platelet plug formation, what causes platelets to stick?
jagged surface of the endothelium and enzymes activated in platelets
what is a clot made of?
fibrin and formed elements
What are the 3 steps of coagulation?
1. formation of prothrominase
2. conversion of prothrombin to thrombin by prothrombinase
3. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin
What are the two main coagulation factors?
Ca+ and vitamin K
What cells are involved in retraction?
fibroblasts
What do fibroblasts do in retraction?
lay down fibers which establish the framework for tissue repair
Which plasma protein is involved in fibrinolysis?
plasminogen
What does plasminogen do in fibrinolysis?
forms plasmin to destroy fiber
What activates plasminogen in fibrinolysis?
break in the blood vessel wall
What are the two major problems with hemophilia?
internal bleeding and deposits in joints
What does the treatment of hemophilia involve?
providing the missing coagulation factors
What is the problem with endothelium that can cause thrombosis?
plaque formation
What causes plaque formation?
aging
What does plaque formation produce in blood vessels?
rough surfaces
What is the function of antithrombin?
inhibit thrombin
What is the function of fibrin?
absorb thrombin
What is the function of heparin?
anti-coagulant that prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
Which cells are capable of interfering with the production of prothrombin?
basophils and mast cells
What is aspirin capable of in blood?
anti-coagulant capable of inactivating an enzyme in platelets that causes adhesive
Where is the heart located?
the mediastinum
What is the fibrous pericardium composed of?
fibrous connective tissue
What is the function of the fibrous pericardium?
attaches the heart to surrrounding structures
What are the two layers of the serous pericardium?
parietal and visceral layers
What is the cavity in between the visceral and parietal layers filled with?
serous fluid
What is the serous fluid in the cavity between the visceral and parietal layers for?
lubrication during pumping
What is the principle component of endocardium?
endothelium attached to a connective tissue layer
What is the principle component of myocardium?
cardiac muscle fibers
What is necessary for myocardium to carry out its function
oxygen vascularization
What is the pattern of the muscle fibers in myocardium?
circular/ spiral
What blood vessels are contained in the coronary sulcus?
left coronary artery and coronary sinus
What is contained in the anterior and posterior interventricular sulcuses?
branches of coronary arteries and adipose pads for shock absorption
What 3 vessels bring blood to the right atrium?
superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus
What does the superior vena cava drain?
body parts above the heart
What does the inferior vena cava drain?
body parts below the heart
What does the coronary sinus drain?
blood that has just travelled through the wall of the heart
What type of blood do the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and the coronary sinus carry to the heart?
CO2 rich blood
What two arteries does the pulmonary trunk branch into?
right and left pulmonary arteries
Where do the pulmonary arteries travel?
the lungs
What veins drain the lungs?
pulmonary veins
What vessels drain into the left atrium?
pulmonary veins
What separates the thoracic and abdominal aorta?
diaphragm
What does the aorta split into in the pelvic cavity?
common iliac arteries
What does the right side of the heart pump to?
the lungs
What does the left side of the heart pump to?
the bodya
What is the function of a valve?
prevent the backflow of blood into the heart
What type of valve is the right AV valve?
tricuspid valve
What type of tissue makes up the right AV valve?
connective tissue derived from the endocardium
What type of valve is the left AV valve?
bicuspid valve
What composes the semilunar valves?
3 pocket-shaped cusps
What are the two types of junctions present in cardiac muscle?
desmosomes and gap junctions
What do gap junctions permit?
allow waves of polarization to transfer between cells, allow masses of cardiac muscle fibers to function as a unit
What does cardiac muscle prefer to make ATP?
glucose
What may cardiac muscle utilize to make ATP?
fatty acids
What is the conduction system of the heart composed of?
nodal tissue
What does the conduction system allow?
allows the heart to beat in an orderly fashion
What are the five components of the conduction system of the heart?
sinatrial node, atrioventricular node, atrioventricular bundle, bundle branches, and purkinje fibers
What is the pacemaker of the heart?
SA node
What does the SA node establish?
heart rate
Where is the SA node located?
atrial wall inferior to the opening of the superior vena cava
Where is the AV node located?
the infereior portion of the interatrial septum
What are the purpose of the nerves in the heart?
speed up or slow down SA node activity
What does a P wave measure on an electrocardiogram?
atrial depolarization
What does a QRS complex measure on an electrocardiogram?
ventricular depolarization
What does a T wave measure on an electrocardiogram?
ventricular repolarization
What do you need to pay attention to when examining an electrocardiogram?
intervals between waves, size of the waves, presence of additional waves, missing waves
What is the treatment for a third degree heart block?
artificial pacemaker
What does an artificial take the place of?
AV node
What two factors contribute to cardiac output?
1. number of beats per minute
2. volume of blood moved per contraction
What 2 factors contribute to stroke volume?
1. force of contraction
2. amount of venous blood returned to the heart
Which node is firing in the heart if the AV valves are open and the SL valves are closed?
SA node
Which node is firing in the heart if the AV valves are closed and the SL valves are open?
AV node
What does the complete diastole period in the heart allow for?
allows blood to travel through the myocardium
Which valve causes the louder, longer sound of the heart?
AV valve
Which valve causes the shorter, sharper sound of the heart?
SL valve
Which vein does not have a smooth muscle layer in its wall?
coronary sinus
What two arteries does the left coronary artery branch into?
anterior interventricular artery and the circumflex artery
What blood vessels does the anterior interventricular artery branch into?
the vessels supplying the anterior wall of both ventricles
What vessels does the circumflex artery branch into?
the vessels supplying the left atrial wall and the left ventricular wall
What vessels does the right coronary artery branch into?
posterior interventricular artery and the marginal artery
What vessels does the posterior interventricular artery branch into?
the vessels supplying the posterior wall of both ventricles
What vessels does the marginal artery break into?
the vessels supplying the right atrial wall and the right ventricular wall
About how many times does the SA node fire per minute?
70
Where is the cardiac center located?
medulla oblongata
What system is the cardiac center part of?
the autonomic nervous system
What are the two components of the cardiac center?
cardioaccelatory system and cardioinhibitory system
What nervous system is the cardioacceletory system part of?
sympathetic
What nerve fibers are used in the cardioaccelatory system?
spinal nerves T1-T5
Where do spinal nerves T1-T5 end?
SA node, AV node, and some regions of the myocardium
What chemical does the cardioaccelatory system release?
norepinephrine
What does norepinephrine stimulate?
increased heart rate and force of contraction
What is the cardioaccelatory system activated by?
physical and emotional stressors
What nervous system is the cardioinhibitory system using?
parasympathetic
What nerve fibers does the cardioinhibitory center utilize?
vagus nerve
Where does the vagus nerve end?
SA node and AV node
What chemical does the cardioinhibitory system release?
acetylcholine
What does acetylcholine do?
decreases heart rate
What is the function of the carotid sinus reflex?
maintain blood pressure in the brain
Where are the presso/barroreceptors located that measure venous blood pressure?
vena cava
Where are the presso/barroreceptors located that measure the brain's blood pressure?
carotid arteries
What secretes epinephrine?
adrenal medulla
Where are the presso/barroreceptors located that measure systemic blood pressure?
the aorta
What is the function of the aortic reflex?
measure systemic blood pressure
What is the function of the right heart reflex?
control venous blood pressure
What is thyroxin produced by?
thyroid
What is the result of hypercalcemia?
arrhythmias
What is the result of hypocalcemia?
tetany
What is the result of hypokalemia?
arrhythmias and poor heart beat
What is the result of hyperkalemia?
interfers with depolarization
What is the result of hypernatremia
inhibits the transport of Ca+ into the cardiac muscle cells, inhibiting muscle contraction
What are the extraneous factors that affect heart rate?
age, gender, body temperature, exercise
What is the tunica interna composed of?
endothelium sitting on a basement membrane attaching to a connective tissue layer
What is the tunica media composed of?
circularly arranged smooth muscle cells with elastic connective tissue
What serves the smooth muscle fibers in the tunica media?
vasomotor fibers
What is the tunica adventitia composed of?
loosely woven collagen fibers
What are the functions of the tunica adventitia?
provide layer of cushion and support, anchor the blood vessel in place
In elastic arteries, what is the tunica media mostly composed of?
elastic connective tissue
What is the function of muscular arteries?
conduct blood to specific body organs
Which arteries have the principle role in vasoconstriction and vasodilation?
arterioles
What makes up the wall of a capillary?
endothelium
What is the capillary designed for?
diffusion, osmosis, and filtration
Capillaries are located next to every type of tissue except what?
epithelium
What determines the number of capillaries in a tissue?
the level of metabolism of that tissue
What is the purpose of fenestrations?
allow larger molecules to pass through the capillary
What cells commonly line sinusoids?
macrophages
Which layer of the blood vessel wall are venules missing?
tunica media
Why are the walls of veins porous?
allows formed elements and phagocytic cells to travel into infected tissues
What are the four factors that guarantee blood keeps moving in veins
large lumen, presence of valves, skeletal muscle pumps, respiratory system pumps
what is the result of atherosclerosis?
artery's loss of ability to expand and recoil
At rest, how much blood is in veins?
60%
What is the result of venoconstriction?
more blood travels to skeletal muscle
What are the two components of bulk flow?
filtration and reabsorption
What is the principle solute of blood osmotic pressure?
albumin and plasma proteins
What is the principle solute of interstitial osmotic pressure?
Na+
What are the two pressures that drive filtration?
blood hydrostatic and interstitial osmotic
What are the two pressures that drive reabsorption?
blood osmotic and interstitial hydrostatic
Which pressure is the greatest at the arteriole end of a blood vessel?
blood hydrostatic
Which pressure is the greatest at the venous end of a blood vessel?
blood osmotic
Why does the slowest velocity of blood occur in capillaries?
so exchange of materials can occur
What causes resistance?
friction between blood and vessel walls
What generates blood pressure?
contraction of the ventricles
What are 3 structural factors that directly affect blood pressure?
viscosity of blood, vessel length, diameter of vessel
What are factors that affect blood pressure?
cardiac output, blood volume, peripheral resistance
What is the vasomotor center responsible for?
controlling peripheral resistance
What factors affect the vasomotor center?
pressoreceptors, chemoreceptors, cerebral cortex
What does the cerebral cortex do to affect the vasomotor center?
in intense anger, it sends impules to vasomotor center
What are the results of epinephrine?
increases cardiac output and blood pressure, causes vasoconstriction in arterioles in the cutaneous region and those serving abdominal organs, causes vasodilation in arterioles serving the cardiac muscle fibers and skeletal muscle fibers
Where is antidiuretic hormone produced?
hypothalamus
What stores and secretes antidiuretic hormone?
posterior pituitary
What converts angiontensin into angiotensinI?
renin
Where is angiotensinI converted into angiotensinII?
the lungs
What causes the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone?
angiotensinII
What does aldosterone stimulate
the reabsorption of Na+ into blood
What triggers atrial natriuretic peptide to be released?
high blood pressure
What does ANP cause?
vasodilation and kidneys to excrete Na+ and H2O
What is the function of histamine?
causes vasodilation and increased permeability of blood vessels, stimulates inflammation at damage site without effect on blood pressure
what is autoregulation in conjunction with?
oxygen levels in the region
Where is autoregulation most important?
skeletal and cardiac muscle and in the brain
What is the cause of shock?
inadequate blood flow
What are the homeostatic mechanisms to combat shock?
epinephrine, sympathetic nervous system, adh secretion, renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway
What is the function of the liver in circulation?
regulate amounts of nutrients in blood
What is the function of the hematic portal system?
carry blood between two capillary networks without passing through the heart
What are the three principle blood vessels serving the liver?
hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, and hepatic vein
What blood vessels are in the umbilical cord?
umbilical vein and 2 umbilical arteries
What is the foramen ovale used for?
to bypass the right ventricle
What is the ductus arteriosus used for?
carry blood escaped from the right ventricle back to the aorta