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116 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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________ headaches related to contraction of head and neck muscles; dull pain. Thought to be related to stress and sustained contraction of back and neck
A.Cluster headaches B.Migraine Headaches C.Tension Headaches D.Sinus Headaches E.Secondary Headaches |
Answer: Tension Headaches- treatment for all headaches : aside from typical medical treatment, centered on the use of medications, psychological treatment interventions include stress-reduction programs, which entail teaching relaxation and meditation techniques, as well as cognitive restructuring, to change the response of the body to stress and pain
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________ headaches are pulsating and often unilateral; auras often precede the pain; light sensitivity and intense nausea and vomiting can ensue
A.Cluster headaches B.Migraine Headaches C.Tension Headaches D.Sinus Headaches E.Secondary Headaches |
Answer: Migraine Headaches
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What type of headaches may result from a variety of different conditions; These conditions range from life-threatening illnesses (brain tumors, strokes, meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhages) to less serious but common ones, such as withdrawal from caffeine and discontinuation of analgesics (pain-killing medication)?
A.Cluster headaches B.Migraine Headaches C.Tension Headaches D.Sinus Headaches E.Secondary Headaches |
Answer E
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What type of headaches involve intense, piercing pain radiating from behind eye to other portions of head; come in bundles of several days to weeks.
A.Cluster headaches B.Migraine Headaches C.Tension Headaches D.Sinus Headaches E.Secondary Headaches |
Answer: Cluster headaches ;They appear to be triggered by an individual's circadian rhythm, as onset of Headaches tends to occur one to two hours after a person goes to sleep and cluster periods tend to recur during specific seasons of the year
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What type of Female Sexual Dysfunctions Involves recurrent, persistent, involuntary spasms in outer third of vagina that interfere with intercourse?
a.Vaginismus b.Female Orgasmic Disorder c.Female Sexual Arousal Disorder |
Answer: Vaginismus; Female Sexual Arousal Disorder Involves inability to maintain lubrication/swelling response when sexually excited; Female Orgasmic Disorder involves lack of orgasm or delayed orgasm
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True or False. Delerium may co-occur with Dementia (nearly half of cases with Dementia experience some Delirium). Overall, Delirium involves reduction of consciousness whereas patients with Dementia remain alert.
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True
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True or False: A very important one is advancing age, as every decade after age 45 the likelihood of having a stroke doubles
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True
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What type of CVAs involve obstructed blood flow related to clots or dislodged tissues; these account for 85 percent of CVAs?
a.Ischemic b.Hemoragic |
Answer: Ischemic
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What is Not a mental disorder per se but is listed as V Code (on Axis II) in DSM-IV-TR
2. Defined as IQ score between 1 and 2 standard deviations below population mean, i.e., 71-84 on nearly all IQ tests |
Answer: Borderline Intellectual Functioning and is often not salient until formal schooling
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What disorder includes these type of treatments: Mood stabilizing medications (including lithium), CBT, social rhythm therapy, psychoeducation?
a.MDD b.Bipolar c.Anxiety Disorder |
B. Bipolar
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Average age of onset for Bipolar D/O is approximately?
a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 |
Answer: 20; Bipolar I Disorder is 1 percent or more of the population. Bipolar II disorder, 0.5 percent; Men and women equally likely to develop Bipolar I Disorder; women, more likely to develop Bipolar II Disorder
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True or False: .When considering diagnosis for APD Adolescent-onset youth have fewer risk factors and tend to desist once adolescence ends (though many long-term negative consequences can emanate from adolescent-onset behaviors) and Adult onset is rare
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true
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True or False. Alcohol withdrawal can induce vivid dreaming, related to an abundance of REM sleep.
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True
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True or False: Alcohol leads initially to increased somnolence, leading to increased slow-wave (deep) sleep and increased REM sleep in the first half of a night's sleep but decreased REM sleep during the second half of a night's sleep)
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False- leading to increased slow-wave (deep) sleep and decreased REM sleep in the first half of a night's sleep but increased REM sleep during the second half of a night's sleep) Overall, sleep is restless, with increased night wakefulness, fatigue during the day, and vivid and sometimes anxiety-producing dreams
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True or False -Korsakoff is not a Alcohol-Induced Persisting Amnestic Disorder but a Alcohol-Induced Persisting Dementia.
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False it is a Alcohol-Induced Persisting Amnestic Disorder and is associated with some atrophy in the thalamus.
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________usually produces a sedative effect; however, after three to four hours, it produces an increase in wakefulness, restless sleep, and time spent in the REM stage is often reduced and accompanied by vivid anxiety-laden dreams. What sleep disorder is this?
a. Primary Insomnia b. Alcohol-Induced Sleep Disorder c. Narcolepsy |
Answer: Alcohol-Induced Sleep Disorder
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The sleep disorder known as _______ is Not due to direct effects of a substance and not typically associated with vivid, frightening dreams.
a. Primary Insomnia b. Alcohol-Induced Sleep Disorder c. Narcolepsy |
Answer: Primary Insomnia
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The sleep disorder known as ______ Disorder- Can be differentiated from ______ Disorder because a person with ______ rapidly becomes oriented and alert, whereas someone with _________will be unresponsive and will not recall the episode at all.
a. Sleep Terror; Nightmare Disorder; Nightmare Disorder; Sleep Terror b. Nightmare Disorder; Sleep Terror; Nightmare Disorder; Sleep Terror; c. Nightmare Disorder; Alcohol-Induced Sleep Disorder; Nightmare Disorder; Alcohol-Induced Sleep Disorder |
Answer: Nightmare Disorder; Sleep Terror; Nightmare Disorder; Sleep Terror;
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The paraphilia known as Pedophilia type is defines as Fantasies, urges or behaviors involving activity with prepubescent children . The qualifier states that The person is over the age of ____ or is at least ____ years older than the child or children?
a.16; 5 years b.18; 3 years c.15; 5 years |
Answer: A. 16; 5
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What paraphilia type derives sexual pleasure from fantasies, urges or behaviors that involve causing physical or psychological pain to another person?
a.Sexual Masochism b.Sexual Sadism c.Transvestic Fetishis d.Frotteurism |
Answer: Sexual Sadism
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True or False: Paraphilias- Recurrent sexually arousing fantasies, urges or behaviors, for a period over six months, that cause distress or impairment. In the case of Exhibitionism, Frotteurism, Voyeurism, or Sadism with a non-consenting partner, distress or impairment is not necessary for a diagnosis. An act of Pedophilia with partner who is or is not consenting is sufficient for a diagnosis.
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True
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What sexual pain disorders is marked distress caused by an involuntary contraction of the perineal muscles surrounding the outer third of the vagina when intercourse is attempted?
a. Vaginismus- b. Dyspareunia c. Paraphilias |
Answer: Vaginismus; Dyspareunia is Genital pain during intercourse not accounted for by a substance or medical condition.
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What is the disorder called the presence of nonbizarre delusions for at least one month?
a.Delusion Disorder b.Shared Psychotic Disorder c.Substance-Induced Psychotic Disorder |
Answer: Delusion Disorder
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What cluster includes -Anxious and fearful personalities?
A. Cluster B B. Cluster A C. Cluster C |
Answer: Cluster C; Avoidant Personality Disorder; Dependent Personality Disorder; Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorders
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Of all Personality Disorders, _________ Disorder is the most likely to have genetic etiological influences. Compared to the general population, first-degree relatives of people with this Personality Disorder are five to ten times more likely to receive this diagnosis.
a.Antisocial Personality Disorder b.Borderline Personality Disorder c.Histrionic Personality Disorder d.Narcissistic Personality Disorder |
Answer: ASPD
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Narcissistic, Borderline, and Histrionic Personality Disorders share the common symptom of ________
a. anhedonia b. affective instability. c. marked impulsivity |
Answer: affective instability.
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What cluster includes - Dramatic emotional or erratic personality types?
a. Cluster B b. Cluster A c. Cluster C |
Answer: Cluster B- includes Antisocial Personality Disorder; Borderline Personality Disorder; Histrionic Personality Disorder; Narcissistic Personality Disorder
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True or False. There is NOT strong evidence of a genetic component in Schizoid, Schizotypal, and Paranoid Personality Disorders
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False- there is strong evidence of a genetic component
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What cluster includes Odd or eccentric behavior?
a. Cluster B b. Cluster A c. Cluster C |
ANSWER: Cluster A- INCLUDES Paranoid, schizotypal, and Schizoid PD
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_________Disorders are characterized by enduring pattern of inner experience and behavior beginning by early adulthood that deviates markedly from the expectations of that person's culture.
a.Somatoform Disorders b.Personality Disorders c.Cognitive Disorders |
b.Personality Disorders
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In what disorder does Body weight is less than 85 percent of what is expected; and amhenorrhea for post menarcheal females (loss of 3 consecutive menstrual cycles).
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Answer: Anorexia
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_________Disorders are known as disruptions in the integrated functions of consciousness, memory, identity, or perception that are not caused by another disorder, medical condition or use of a substance
a.Dissociative Disorders b.Somatoform Disorders c.Cognitive Disorders |
Answer: Dissociative Disorders
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True or False in BDD surgery does not alleviate problem and often causes the disorder to worsen
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True
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________Disorder- Symptoms that suggest a neurological condition that cannot be explained through a general medical condition.
a.Conversion D/O b.Somatization D/O c.Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder |
Answer: Conversion D/O
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___________Disorder- Significant complaints with four pain symptoms, two gastrointestinal symptoms, one sexual symptom, and one pseudoneurological symptom that cannot be explained by a medical condition.
a.Conversion D/O b.Somatization D/O c.Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder |
Answer: Somatization D/O
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True or False : OCD is More common in girls (peak onset age between 6 and 15 years) than boys; Equally common in male and female adults. Peak onset between the ages of 20 and 29.
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False: It is equally common in adults but for adolescents it is more common in boys than girls.
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True or False: Optimal treatment of PTSD involves prolonged exposure.
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Answer: True
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_________differs from _________in that individuals with __________typically prefer being accompanied by a trusted companion when entering the feared situation, whereas individuals with _______ are likely to experience heightened anxiety when accompanied by a companion due to the perception of potential scrutiny.
a.Agoraphobia; Social Phobia; Social Phobia; Agoraphobia b.Social Phobia; Agoraphobia; Agoraphobia; Social Phobia |
Answer: Social Phobia; Agoraphobia; Agoraphobia; Social Phobia
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What does Anxiety and depression share the core symptom of?
a. anhedonia b. sleeplessness c. negative affect |
Answer: negative affect
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True or False: Panic Attacks rarely occur in young children because they are incapable of making internal (catastrophic) interpretations of bodily sensations (e.g., thinking "I’m going to die" when experiencing a racing heart or shortness of breath).
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True
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What mood disorder is characterized by a two-year period (one for children and adolescents) in which an individual shifts between hypomanic and depressive symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a Major Depressive or Manic Episode?
a.Dysthymic disorder b.Cyclothymic disorder c.Mood D/O NOS |
Answer: Cyclothymic disorder
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A Major Depressive Episode must have ____ of the following symptoms: depressed mood; disinterest in pleasure; weight change; insomnia or hypersomnia; psychomotor agitation; fatigue; feelings of worthlessness; cognitive slowing; or thoughts of death for a period of ____ weeks.
a.6; 4 weeks b.5; 2 weeks c.4; 2 weeks |
Answer 5 symptoms for a minimum of 2 weeks
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True or False By mid-adolescence, females are twice as likely as males to be diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder. Women who have multiple roles are at a lower risk for developing depression.
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True
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True or False: The symptom of anhedonia is unique to depressive disorders
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True.
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What diagnosis would you give to a patient if she reported that she has had a depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, over a period of two years?
a.Dysthymic Disorder b.Major Depressive Disorder c.Mood D/O NOS |
Answer Dysthymic Disorder
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What type of cognitive disorder is brief in duration; rarely lasts longer than a month. If symptoms persist beyond a month, a diagnosis of a more stable disorder (e.g., Dementia) should be considered; Rapid onset and involves lack of alertness
a.Dementia b.Alzheimer’s Dementia c.Delirium |
Answer: Delirium
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True or False- Adolescents diagnosed with Separation Anxiety Disorder are reluctant to admit anxiety and will often complain of physical symptoms
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True.
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What type of tic disorder is this when it is said to have single or multiple tics for a period of no longer than 12 consecutive months?
a.Transient Tic Disorder b.Chronic Motor or Vocal Tic Disorder- c.Tourette's- Motor and vocal tics |
Answer: Transient Tic Disorder; Chronic Motor or Vocal Tic Disorder- Either motor or vocal tics, but not both; Tourette's- Motor and vocal tics
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What disorder is is when Repeated regurgitation and rechewing of food occurs?
a.Rumination Disorder b.Feeding Disorder of Early Childhood c.Pica |
Answer: a rumination disorder; Pica- Eating one or more non-nutritive substances; Feeding Disorder of Early Childhood- Persistent failure to eat adequately and gain weight; not accounted for by a medical condition or another d/o
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True or False Differential Diagnosis b/w Conduct Disorder and Oppositional Defiant Disorder- Whereas both disorders can include a pattern of defiance toward authority figures, Conduct Disorder includes violating the basic rights of others.
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True
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True or False an IQ of 75 or lower is considered consistent with mental retardation; and have concuirrent deficits in at least 2 areas; and onset prior to age 18.
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False- IQ must be 70 or lower- all other parts of the statement are true.
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The differential diagnosis for mental retardation may be borderline IQ if the person has an IQ between
a. 75-85 b. 75-80 c. 70-85 |
Answer: C 70-85
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True or False- Very Few approximately 5% of all cases of mental retardation are hereditary.
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True
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Lack of interest in the environment and impaired motor development are the first signs in what disorder?
a.Autism b.Childhood disintegrative disorder c.Mental Retardation |
Answer: MR
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True or False. Boys have a particularly harder time learning to accept a stepfather, though girls may bond with the stepfather easily.
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False. Girls have a particularly harder time learning to accept a stepfather, though boys may bond with the stepfather easily.
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Although multiple aptitude tests are a good measure for a person’s ability in a number of different areas like job related, vocational counseling, psychomotor and mechanical they have one weakness as they often lack?
a.Reliability b.Validity c.Differential Validity |
Answer: Differential Validity- (various parts of the tests do not have different validities’ for different categories)>
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True or False. TV increases aggressive behavior and a tolerance for aggression and reinforces gender stereotypes. No shows help scholastically either.
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False. It is true that TV increases aggressive behavior and a tolerance for aggression and reinforces gender stereotypes; however some TV shows like sesame street have been shown to accelerate vocabulary development and cognitive skills.
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True or False. Children who watch a great deal of television read less, do worse in school, and spend less time in family interactions.
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True
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True or False. The DSM’s organization is categorical classification system and includes a polythetic criteria (a large subset of sx’s for each disorder; not all apply to the same person but may have same disorder).
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True
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According to Ridley, he believes that cultural or functional paranoia can exist either high or in low form. He says that there are 4 modes of disclosure. What form of disclosure has a high level of functional paranoia and a low level of cultural paranoia, & will not disclose to any therapist but for pathological reasons.
a.Healthy cultural paranoic b.Confluent paranoiac c.Functional paranoic d.Intercultural non paranoiac discloser |
Answer: Functional paranoic – tx for these types of people should focus more on competence of the therapist rather than cultural affilation
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According to Ridley, he believes that cultural or functional paranoia can exist either high or low form. He says that there are 4 modes of disclosure. What form of disclosure has a high level of cultural paranoia and low level of functional paranoia and will self disclose to an African American therapist, but will not trust a Anglo therapist enough to self disclose.
a.Healthy cultural paranoic b.Confluent paranoiac c.Functional paranoic d.Intercultural non paranoiac discloser |
Answer: Healthy cultural paranoic- tx needs to focus on understanding their hatred towards whites, so they can make a more informed choice regarding disclosure. The ability to decide to disclose is “disclosure flexibility”
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According to Ridley, he believes that cultural or functional paranoia can exist either high or low form. He says that there are 4 modes of disclosure. What form of disclosure has high and low levels of functional and cultural paranoia; they do not disclose to any therapist for both cultural and pathological reasons.
a. Healthy cultural paranoic b.Confluent paranoiac c.Functional paranoic d.Intercultural non paranoiac discloser |
Answer: Confulent paranoic – they work with a therapist of their own culutral background
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True or False. Children of working mothers tend to have more self-esttem, and more egalitarian view of the sexes; and the daughters of working mothers are typically more independent and have greater career ambition.
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True.
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True or False. Maternal employment does seem to have adverse impact on school performace in boys when it is combined with low supervision.
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True
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True or False. When organizational culture (the shared values and beliefs of the organization) is strong the group tends to be more cohesive and performance is higher.
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Answer: True
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There are 3 strategies for overcoming the inevitable resistance to change according to Chin and Berne. What theory assumes that once people are given objective reasons for change, they will do whatever is in their best interest.
a.Rational empirical strategy b.Normative reeducation strategy c.The power Coercive strategy |
Answer: Rational empirical strategy
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There are 3 strategies for overcoming the inevitable resistance to change according to Chin and Berne. What theory assumes that peer pressure and a shift in socio-cultural norms will be enough to motivate change?
a.Rational empirical strategy b.Normative reeducation strategy c.The power Coercive strategy |
Answer: Normative-reeducation strategy
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A change agent that is already a member of the organization and has vested interest is called. Internal or External
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Answer: Internal
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What must occur for a contingency contract to be effective?
a. Parties must agree, it must be monitored and must be explicit b. There must be a written contract, it must be explicit, capable of being monitored, and sanctions established c. There must be a written contract, it must be explicit, capable of being monitored, and sanctions established and a record keeping so all parties are able to keep tabs on progress. |
Answer: C
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True or False: As long as the quality of a child’s daycare is high, it does not seem to have any adverse effects.
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True
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Which statement most accurately describes the relationship between sex and Narcissistic Personality Disorder? A) Most individuals diagnosed with Narcissistic Personality Disorder are men.
B) Most individuals diagnosed with Narcissistic Personality Disorder are women. C) Prior to middle age, men are more likely to be diagnosed with Narcissistic Personality Disorder; after middle age, women are more likely to be diagnosed with Narcissistic Personality Disorder. D) Prior to middle age, women are more likely to be diagnosed with Narcissistic Personality Disorder; after middle age, men are more likely to be diagnosed with Narcissistic Personality Disorder |
A) Most individuals diagnosed with Narcissistic Personality Disorder are men.
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Children with Panic Disorder are most likely to present with symptoms such as:
A) shortness of breath, tachycardia, and school refusal. B) tachycardia, sweating, and depersonalization. C) school refusal, depersonalization, and choking sensations. D) shortness of breath, choking sensations, and paresthesias. |
A) shortness of breath, tachycardia, and school refusal.
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__________ is the most commonly occurring type of dementia.
A) Parkinson's disease B) Huntington's disease C) Human Immunodeficiency Virus D) Alzheimer's disease |
D) Alzheimer's disease
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The percentage of cases of dementia that are ultimately attributable to Alzheimer's Disease is:
A) 10 percent B) 30 percent C) 50 percent D) 70 percent |
C) 50 percent
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To meet diagnostic criteria for Schizoaffective Disorder, an individual must have mood disorder symptoms and symptoms of schizophrenia that:
A) overlap in time. B) alternate with one another. C) are predominantly linked to schizophrenia. D) are predominantly linked to a mood disorder. |
A) overlap in time.
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Which treatment is least likely to be efficacious for a client diagnosed with Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia?
A) Flooding B) SSRIs C) Insight therapy D) Systemic Desensitization |
C) Insight therapy
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People with Narcolepsy may experience hypnagogic hallucinations, defined as:
intense dreamlike states experienced just before falling asleep. B) intense dreamlike states experienced just after awakening. C) intense dreamlike states experienced during cataplectic episodes. D) intense dreamlike states experienced during episodes of sleep paralysis. |
A) intense dreamlike states experienced just before falling asleep.
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In Female Sexual Arousal Disorder, compared to Orgasmic Disorder, the primary problem relates to all of the following, except:
A) lubrication. B) swelling. C) climax. D) vasocongestion. |
C) climax.
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Kegel exercises would be most helpful to:
A) a woman with Sexual Aversion Disorder. B) a man with Male Erectile Dysfunction. C) a woman with Female Orgasmic Disorder. D) a man with Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder. |
C) a woman with Female Orgasmic Disorder.
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Diabetes, kidney disease, and multiple sclerosis are conditions associated with:
A) Dyspareunia. B) Premature Ejaculation. C) Male Erectile Disorder. D) Male Orgasmic Disorder. |
C) Male Erectile Disorder.
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AIDS dementia complex is best described as a:
A) cortical dementia. B) subcortical dementia. C) frontotemporal dementia. D) pseudodementia. |
B) subcortical dementia- it is the major psychoneuroligcal symptom of AIDS
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Compared to an individual with Alzheimer's Disease, someone with Dementia Due to HIV Disease is less likely to present with symptoms of:
A) aphasia. B) depression. C) hypertonia. D) motor slowness. |
A) aphasia.
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Which of the following individuals has the lowest risk of developing delirium?
A) A 10-year-old girl with a high fever B) A 77-year-old man who resides in a nursing home C) A 66-year-old woman who recently underwent surgery for pneumonia D) A 23-year-old man who was in a motorcycle accident |
D) A 23-year-old man who was in a motorcycle accident
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Which of the following interventions will most immediately decrease the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
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Administration of a sedative… Treatment of Alcohol Withdrawal, if severe, involves reintroduction of a sedative-hypnotic agent (like alcohol). Indeed, one way to temporarily abate the symptoms of Alcohol Withdrawal is to have more to drink, leading to a classic vicious cycle characteristic of substance dependence. In a medical setting, serious withdrawal would be treated with substitution of a longer-acting, safer sedative-hypnotic agent, followed by either medical or psychological intervention (or a combination) to try to stop drinking behavior in the future
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The ACC has been shown to be involved with processing information, emotion regulation, and autonomic control. In addition, ACC abnormalities have been repeatedly associated with psychological disorders, such as depression, anxiety, and ADHD.The ACC has been subdivided into two structurally and functionally distinct regions: dorsal ACC (dACC, and rostral ACC (rACC, The dACC is located superior to the genu of the corpus callosum, and the rACC is located inferior to the genu. What does the DACC and the RACC functions?
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DACC associated with cognitive function-The dACC is often referred to as the "cognitive subdivision," as it plays a crucial role in executive functions, including processing cognitive information, and detecting conflict. The dACC is also sensitive to task difficulty, novelty, and plays a role in autonomic control,)
RACC associated with emotional function). rACC has more connections with limbic brain regions that play an important role in processing emotional information. Such regions are amygdala, hippocampus, hypothalamus, nucleus accumbens, ventral striatum, insula, thalamus, and orbitofrontal cortex. |
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Elaboration Likelihood Model of Persuasion: Theory of how attitudes are formed and changed; involves two routes of persuasion. the Central route processes and the Peripheral route processes. What implies it is periphal and then central?
A- Peripheral -the Message is not reflected on thoroughly; often rely on environmental cues, emotional appeal, or characteristics of the messenger (e.g., attractiveness or perceived credibility) and central is Requires people to attend and thoughtfully consider a message. or B. Peripheral Requires people to attend and thoughtfully consider a message. And Central is when the Message is not reflected on thoroughly; often rely on environmental cues, emotional appeal, or characteristics of the messenger (e.g., attractiveness or perceived credibility) |
A- Peripheral -the Message is not reflected on thoroughly; often rely on environmental cues, emotional appeal, or characteristics of the messenger (e.g., attractiveness or perceived credibility) and central is Requires people to attend and thoughtfully consider a message.
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Resistance to change attitude can be increased through:
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o Inoculation: Exposure to a weak argument against the person's position prior to a persuasive message will increase the person's resistance to the persuasive message.
o Providing recipient with arguments and counterarguments before hearing message. |
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The task is far easier to remember as long as it is looming over the individual's head. What type of effect is this?
prospective or Zegarnik |
Zegarnik -Zeigarnik hypothesized that uncompleted tasks create "psychic tension" within us, which acts as a motivator to complete the tasks. Modern interpretations attribute the Zeigarnik Effect to the benefits of covert rehearsal on working memory and long-term memory.
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In Pavlovian terms, the unconditioned stimulus (US) causes the unconditioned response (UR). True or False
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True
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Internal consistence is commonly measured as _________(based on inter-item correlations) - between 0 (low) and 1 (high). The greater the number of similar items, the greater the internal consistency. That�s why you sometimes get very long scales asking a question a myriad of different ways � if you add more items you get a higher cronbach�s. Generally, alpha of .80 is considered as a reasonable benchmark
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Cronbach's Alpha -Intelligence tests
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True or False- Anxiety and depression share the core symptom of negative affect. The symptom of somatic arousal is unique to anxiety disorders.
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True
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Systematic desensitization: First widely used behavioral treatment. Utilizes relaxation as an incompatible response to the exposure to progressively more fearful stimuli in a process known as reciprocal inhibition. True or False
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True
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. Because not all information can be attended to, our mind chooses which stimuli is most important - is known as
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Attentional Bias-Examples
People with severe anxiety will attend to threatening stimuli most; Cocktail Pary Effect-Attending to one stimuli while ignoring others, unless very important stimuli, like the person's name, is spoken |
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True or False the Stroop Effect is a form of attentional Bias the phenomenon in which people take longer to name the color of a stimulus when the color is used to print an incongruent word (e.g., the word "green" written in red ink) than when presented with a solid patch of color.
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False it is not Bias it is attentional interference
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True or False the First Comprehensive Theory of Attentional Bias was the Stroop Effect
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False strrop is a interference the first theory was . Broadbent's Filter Theory of Attention, the filter selects the incoming messages that will be further process based on the physical properties of the message. Attenuation Stimuli not attended to are processed too weakly to be brought to conscious awareness
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True or False-Misattribution Theory: Arousal can be misattributed as anger and thereby lead to increased aggression.
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True
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True or False-Ellen Berscheid- Two-factor theory of love Mutual attraction and reciprocal reinforcement are the two elements in love
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True
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Misattribution Theory: Arousal can be misattributed as anger and thereby lead to decreased aggression. True or False
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False it can lead to increased aggression
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What theory regarding Altusism Argues that helping is mandated by the social group's norms or behavioral expectations?
a. Social norm theory b. Reciprocity norm c. Social Exchange theory d. Evolutionary psychology e. Social-Responsibility norm |
a. Social norm theory
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What theory regarding Altusism Posits that helping, like other social behaviors, is motivated by a desire to minimize costs and maximize rewards?
a. Social norm theory b. Reciprocity norm c. Social Exchange theory d. Evolutionary psychology e. Social-Responsibility norm |
c. Social Exchange theory
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What theory theorizes that Altruism arises out of devotion to kin (Altruism toward one's close relatives to enhance survival of mutually selected genes) and reciprocity (an organism helps another because it expects help in return)
a. Social norm theory b. Reciprocity norm c. Social Exchange theory d. Evolutionary psychology e. Social-Responsibility norm |
d. Evolutionary psychology
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What theory theorizes that Altruism arises out the idea that we help needy people so long as they are deserving?
a. Social norm theory b. Reciprocity norm c. Social Exchange theory d. Evolutionary psychology e. Social-Responsibility norm |
e. Social-Responsibility norm
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Sibling altruism postulate: Having older siblings has not been found to correlate with altruism; Extended family altruism proposition: Despite suggestions that it should, large extended family has not been found to specifically foster altruism.
• Wealth: Despite ideas that wealth would allow for altruism to develop more easily. studies have not supported correlations between wealth and altruism. Are all of these facts true? |
Yes
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1. Discovered the “bystander effect”
The finding that a person is less likely to provide help when there are other bystanders Who discovered this? |
Darley and Latane's Research on Genovese Murder
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What are the four main factors that Promote Attraction
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1. Proximity
2. Physical Attractiveness -Matching 3. Similarity -similar values 4. Reciprocity Phenomenon:One’s liking for another usually predicts the other person’s liking in return; liking is often mutual |
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What Prejudice is comprised of
3 factors what reduces it |
1.Cognitions directed at a person or people group when given the possibility
2.Behaviors directed at a person or people group when given the possibility 3.Emotions directed at a person or people group when given the possibility -superordinate goals |
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Two types of prejudice
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Types of Prejudice
1. Overt 2. Subtle |
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Ways to reduce Prejudice
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1.Introducing a common enemy
2.Introducing "superordinate" goals 3.Increase contact with members of other races 4.Increase equal-status contact with other races |
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True or False. A person is more likely to help another individual if they have previously been helped by them in the past.
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True-Reciprocity Principle
Extensions of Reciprocity Principle 1. Gift-giving 2. Favors 3. “Reciprocal Liking”: An individual is more likely to “like” another person if they believe that the person “likes” them |
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People of a given level of physical attractiveness will seek out partners of a roughly similar level of attraction. is called Matching Theory or Similarity Hypothesis
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Matching Theory
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People tend to like and love others with similar opinions, attitudes, values, and looks. is called Matching Theory or Similarity Hypothesis
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Similarity Hypothesis
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This theory postulates that when an individual contemplates entering a new relationship, they weigh the benefits of a relationship (e.g., emotional support, financial stability) against the costs of a relationship (e.g., emotional liability, conflicting interests).
a. Matching Hypothesis b. Similarity Hypothesis c. Social Exchange Hypothesis |
c. Social Exchange Hypothesis
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True or False Complementarity Hypothesis falls under the theory of social exchange?
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TrueComplementarity Hypothesis:
The theory that opposites attract Individuals in a relationship offer what the other is missing |
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What theory implies that the following charactereistics apply to men who desire dominance
1. They exhibit hostility toward women 2. Are Sexually promiscuous |
these are Characteristics of Men who Behave in Sexually Aggressive Ways according to the Confluence Model of Sexual Aggression
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Men who sexually coerce women had a history of combining impersonal sex with hostile masculinity is what model
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Confluence Model of Sexual Aggression - did research on Effects of Exposure to Violent Pornography
1. Promotes greater acceptance of sexual violence toward women 2. Factor associated with physically aggressive behavior toward women 3. Men create more violent sexual fantasies than those who watch mutual consent pornography |
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Pro-social or altrusistic behaviors learned by children
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1. Altruism
2.. Assertiveness 3.. Conscientiousness 4. Responsibility |
