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60 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Gross anatomy deals with tissues that are ______ in size.
0.1mm; visible to the naked eye
ventral?
toward the abdomen
rostral
toward the mouth
dorsal
toward the back
caudal
toward the butt
ventral
toward the abd
Plane?
Plane?
sagittal/median
plane?
plane?
coronal/frontal
plane?
plane?
transverse/horizontal
Vertebral column consists of ____ vertebrae and intervertebral
33-34

are 7 cervical, 12 thoracic,
5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 4-5
coccygeal vertebrae in human
disks make up _______ of length of vertebral column
20-25%
number of cervical nerves?
8
Location of Cervical nerve 1? C8?
C1 n. = between base of skull and C1
C8 n. = between C7 and T1
Location of Thoracic nerve 1?
Below T1
In CSF glucose is down, WBC count is increased, fluid is turbid/hazy/unclear, increased protein =?
bacterial meningitis

bacteria uses glucose, creates waste (protein and color), and immune system responds (wbcs)
Osteophytes cause? symptom?
bony processes from arthitis of uncovertebral joints (superior process on cervical body) that may compress the vertebral artery and spinal nerve = chronic neck pain
"Spinal cord appears pink because it Is covered by the_____ and the actual color is_____"
pia mater

creamy/white-yellow
Contents of the
vertebral canal?
spinal cord and its blood
vessels plus the meninges
and cerebro-spinal fluid.
myelography?
injection of contrast medium followed by x-ray to detect pathology of spinal cord.
contrast medium used to study
the internal covering layer
(mucous membrane) of the
digestive tract with radiography?
Barium sulfate
CT can be enhanced by?
Iodine contrast
______ is absolutely safe and better
differentiates between the white and gray
matter than the CT

gray matter contains
more ______
MRI

gray matter contains
more water
PET is used to assess
functional blood flow to the brain
and heart.
shaft of long bone = ?

ends of long bone = ?
shaft of long bone = diaphysis

ends of long bone = epiphysis
_____ bones are roughly cube-shaped

_____ bones are thin and flattened, usually curved
Short bones: roughly cube-shaped

Flat bones: thin and flattened, usually curved
Compact bone?

Spongy (cancellous) bone?
Compact bone: dense outer layer of bone
Spongy (cancellous) bone: internal network of bone
Membranes of the long bones?
periosteum, Sharpey’s fibers, and endosteum
Intramembranous ossification? Two notable bones that form this way?
Bones are directly ossified without any pre-existing cartilage

Skull bones and the clavicle are formed directly from mesenchyme
Endochondral ossification?
Bones develop from a pre-existing cartilage

Most bones develop initially from hyaline cartilage
_________ at the top of stacks
divide quickly and pushes the epiphysis
away from the diaphysis; this lengthens the long bone
Chondroblasts
produced by the pituitary gland, stimulates epiphyseal plates
Growth hormone
ensures that the skeleton retains proper proportions
Thyroid hormone
Promote bone growth, later induce closure of epiphyseal plates
Sex hormones
bones are inadequately mineralized = ?
osteomalacia
rickets? cause?
occurs in children, analogous to osteomalacia, weakened and bowed legs, malformation of the head and ribs

caused by dietary Vit D and calcium
phosphate deficiency
Paget's disease?
characterized by excessive rate of bone deposition but reduced mineralization leading to bone thickening.

bones are thicker but actually weaker
Achondroplasia?
congenital (genetic disease), defective cartilage growth and defective enchondral ossification leading to Dwarfism.
Muscles make up about ______% of the body's mass; skeletal muscle accounts for ____%
Muscles make up about 50% of the body's mass; skeletal muscle accounts for 40%
do bones function to store triglycerides?
yes
_______ build up bone by secreting minerals/matrix materials?
osteoblasts
______ break down bown and release calcium/minerals
osteoclasts
cleidocranial dysostosis/dysplasia (CCD)?

Gene involved?
rare autosomal disorder with defective ossification, delayed bone/tooth growth, and craniofacial abnormalities

RUNX2 (aka CBFA1)
A bands contain
both thick and thin filaments
I bands contain
contain only thin filaments
H bands ?
center of the A band with no thin filament overlap.
M lines
center of sarcomere
During contraction what zones move?
H zone and I band narrow

Z lines move closer together
thick filaments contain what protein?
myosin
thin filaments contain?
actin, tropomyosin, and troponin
__________ blocks the myosin binding site on actin
Tropomyosin
calcium binds to _____ and moves tropomyosin so myosin and actin can bind
troponin C
What are they "hybrid muscles?"
Muscles innervated by more than one nerve:
Trapezius
Biceps femoris (long and short head)
Adductor magnus
iliopsoas
pectineus m.
Adductor magnus innervation?
linea aspera = obturator n

adductor tubercle = tibial n
iliopsoas
iliacus = femoral n

psoas = lumbar plexus
pectineus
femoral n. and obturator n.
MRI's show _________ as white and x-rays and CT scans show _________ as white.
MRI's show soft tissue as white and x-rays and CT scans show bones as white.
does the thumb rotate?
no it does circumduction
Why do bones appear white on negative film
bones absorb the x-rays
Epiphyseal plate osiffies and becomes ?
epiphyseal line
Intramembranous ossification
No cartilage -> mesenchyme is invaded by osteoblasts -> become osteocytes