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345 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Scheduled work is performed on an aircraft as a result of its completing a prescribed number of flying hours. What type of maintenance is this? |
Standard upkeep
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The functional management responsibilities for the planning, control, and production of the aircraft maintenance department rest with which of the following officers?
• Quality assurance officer • Aircraft maintenance officer • Aircraft division officer • Assistant aircraft maintenance officer |
Aircraft maintenance officer
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What are the major types of aircraft maintenance?
• Rework and upkeep • Scheduled and unscheduled • Standard and special • Organizational, intermediate, and depot |
Rework and upkeep
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Work performed by an operating unit on a day-to-day basis in support of its own operations is known as what type of maintenance?
• Organizational-level maintenance • Depot-level maintenance • Intermediate-level maintenance • Special maintenance |
Organizational-level maintenance
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Preventive, restorative, or additive work performed on aircraft, equipment, and support equipment by an operating unit is what type of maintenance?
• SDLM • Depot • Upkeep • Rework |
Upkeep
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Servicing aircraft and preflight inspections are actions that are performed at what level of maintenance?
• Organizational • Depot • Intermediate • Special |
Organizational
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Restorative work performed on an item of support equipment is considered what type(s) of work?
• Intermediate maintenance • Rework and upkeep maintenance • Rework maintenance only • Upkeep maintenance only |
Rework and upkeep maintenance |
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Material and technical support for the NAMP are provided by the cognizant systems command and which of the following commands?
• CNET • NAVSUP • CNO • DCNO |
NAVSUP
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The ability of an aircraft to perform its mission was changed by alteration without regard to flying hours. What type of maintenance is this?
• Standard upkeep • Special rework • Standard rework • Special upkeep |
Special upkeep
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What type of relationship exists between a superior and a subordinate?
• Management • Special • Staff • Line |
Line
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Aircraft maintenance is divided into what total number of maintenance levels?
• Two • Four • Five • Three |
Three
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Maintenance performed on aircraft or equipment to improve its specific function is known as what type of maintenance?
• Special rework maintenance • Organizational maintenance • Standard rework maintenance • Intermediate maintenance |
Special rework maintenance
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What officer is directly responsible for the overall production effort and material support of the organizational-level maintenance department?
• The quality assurance officer • The administration officer • The aircraft maintenance officer • The maintenance material control officer |
The maintenance material control officer
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Work performed in a centrally located facility within a geographical area is known as what type of maintenance?
• Intermediate-level maintenance • Organizational-level maintenance • Depot-level maintenance • Special maintenance |
Intermediate-level maintenance
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Which of the following officers ensures that staff divisions at the organizational level conform to established policies?
• The maintenance material control Officer • The staff division officer • The aircraft maintenance officer • The assistant aircraft maintenance officer |
The assistant aircraft maintenance officer
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Assuring that high quality maintenance work is performed is a function of what division in an organizational-level maintenance department?
• Quality assurance • Operations • Administration • Material control |
Quality assurance
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Within an organizational-level maintenance activity, what part of the activity monitors, controls, and applies the MDS?
• Administration • Production control • Material control • System administrator/analysis |
System administrator/analysis
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Centralized local maintenance is performed by which of the following activities?
• AIMDs • Depot-level activities • Contractor plants • CMAs |
AIMDs
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What is the purpose of the Aircraft Maintenance Department within an organization?
• Repair reported discrepancies on squadron aircraft • Perform unscheduled maintenance on assigned aircraft • Maintain assigned aircraft in a Full-Mission-Capable state in support of the units mission • Perform scheduled maintenance on assigned aircraft |
Maintain assigned aircraft in a Full-Mission-Capable state in support of the units mission
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Which of the following maintenance concepts allows you to regulate events rather than be regulated by them?
• Correction • Detection • Suppression • Prevention |
Prevention
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According to directives from higher authority, what officer directs the aircraft maintenance department?
• The aircraft maintenance division Officer • The quality assurance officer • The aircraft maintenance officer • The assistant aircraft maintenance officer |
The aircraft maintenance officer
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An important objective of the NAMP is to achieve and maintain maximum material readiness. Which of the following statements reflects additional objectives of the NAMP?
• Conservation of manpower only • Safety and conservation of manpower • Safety and conservation of material • Conservation of time |
Safety and conservation of material
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A comprehensive depot-level inspection of selected aircraft structures and materials and correction of any critical defects is what type of maintenance?
• Standard rework • Special rework • Standard upkeep • Upkeep |
Standard rework
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The Naval Aviation Maintenance Program is sponsored and directed by what command?
• CNO • DCNO • CNET • NAVSUP |
CNO
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Work performed at an industrial-type facility is known as what type of maintenance?
• Depot-level maintenance • Organizational-level maintenance • Intermediate-level maintenance • Special maintenance |
Depot-level maintenance
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What type of code identifies a subassembly repair action that is completed separately from the major component repair action?
• support • Malfunction • JCN Suffix • Type Equipment |
JCN Suffix
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Maintenance managers need current status information to control the maintenance effort. What system is designed to provide maintenance managers with this information?
• VIDS • FMCS • PMCS • NMCS |
VIDS
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SE Custody and Maintenance History Record, OPNAV 4790/51, is used for which of the following purposes?
• To record custody and transfer information • To provide rework and overhaul data • To identify applicable and incorporated technical directives • All of the above |
All of the above
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Information entered on MDS forms must always meet which of the following requirements?
• Be accurate and complete • Be entered in pen • Be entered in pencil • Be typed |
Be accurate and complete
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An organizational code, the Julian date, a sequence number, and a suffix are part of what code or control number?
• Action Taken code • Job control number • Sequence control number • Work Unit Code |
Job control number
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What type of code describes the trouble or cause of trouble in a system or component?
• Malfunction code • Work Unit Code • Transaction code • Action Taken code |
Malfunction code
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A Technical Directive Status code consists of how many characters?
• Three • Four • One • Two |
One
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Normally, the intermediate maintenance organization has a total of how many production divisions?
• Five • Four • Three • Six |
Six
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On-equipment maintenance actions are documented on
• NALCOMIS or a VIDS/MAF • VIDS board • DCF VIDS/MAF • WORK REQUEST or NALCOMIS |
NALCOMIS or a VIDS/MAF
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What code is often referred to as the manufacturer’s code?
• JCN • WCC • CAGE • WUC |
CAGE
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Maintenance was performed on an item identified by a Work Unit Code. What type of code describes this action?
• JCN • Malfunction • Action Taken • Manufacturer’s |
Action Taken
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A component goes into an AWP status at the intermediate level of maintenance. What action is completed first with regard to the component?
• It is returned to the AWP unit • It is stored in the work center • It is properly packaged and preserved • It is stripped of any usable parts |
It is properly packaged and preserved
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After a discrepancy has been corrected, what should be done with copies 1 and 5 of the VIDS/MAF?
• Copy 1 should be sent to quality assurance, and copy 5 is placed in the work center files • Copy 1 should be placed in the work center tiles, and copy 5 is sent to maintenance control • Copy 1 should be sent to maintenance control, and copy 5 is sent to quality assurance • Copy 1 should be sent to maintenance control, and copy 5 is placed in the work center files |
Copy 1 should be sent to maintenance control, and copy 5 is placed in the work center files
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What type of code identifies the system, specific engine, or component/part on which work is being performed?
• Type Equipment code • Transaction code • Work Unit Code • Malfunction Description code |
Work Unit Code
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If a check flight is required after the completion of a corrective action, notification must be given to what individual?
• The maintenance material control officer • The quality assurance division officer • The aircraft maintenance officer • The material control supervisor |
The maintenance material control officer
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What branch or division is known as the nerve center of an organizational-level maintenance department?
• Quality assurance • Maintenance control • Aircraft • Material control |
Maintenance control
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The portion of an inspection that involves the search for defects is known as what phase?
• Repair • Look • Fix • Search |
Look
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After the personnel in maintenance control complete the required blocks of a newly initiated VIDS/MAF, copies 1 and 5 are forwarded to
• quality assurance • the work center • material control • production control |
the work center
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In an intermediate-level maintenance activity, what is the central point of the maintenance effort?
• Quality assurance • Production control • Maintenance control • Maintenance material control |
Production control
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An aircraft has 479 flight hours on it since new. You have just removed and replaced a damaged canopy. What entry should you place in the Time/Cycles block on the VIDS/MAF?
• E4790 • A0479 • A4790 • E0479 |
A0479
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If you work in electronics, instruments, or armament, you are normally assigned to what division of an organizational-level maintenance department?
• Line • Operations • Avionics/armament • Aircraft |
Avionics/armament
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What system provides organizational and intermediate maintenance activities with a computer-based management information system?
• NAVSUP • NALCOMIS • NADEP • MDS |
NALCOMIS
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The VIDS boards in each work center are verified with the maintenance control VIDS board a minimum of how often?
• Once each shift change • Once each day • Twice each day • Once each week |
Once each day
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At the intermediate level of maintenance, what copies of the VIDS/MAF are forwarded to the work center upon component induction for repair?
• Copies 1, 2, and 3 • Copies 1, 3, and 4 • Copies 2, 3, and 4 • Copies 1, 4, and 5 |
Copies 1, 4, and 5
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At the organizational level, what officer sets the format and arrangement of the monthly maintenance plan?
• The safety officer • The maintenance material control officer • The aircraft maintenance officer • The quality assurance officer |
The aircraft maintenance officer
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Technical manuals are updated by what means?
• Changes and revisions • RACs • Notices • Difference data sheets |
Changes and revisions
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Each work package of a work package type of manual contains all information required to perform a specific task on an aircraft system.
• True • False |
False
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To increase technical knowledge levels and enhance and improve existing formal training through diagnostic testing procedures is the primary goal of which of the following programs?
• FRAMP • PQS • NAESU • MTIP |
MTIP
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Which of the following occurrences in a manual does NOT require an associated change symbol?
• New material on an added page • Relocation of material that changes procedures of an inspection • Blank spaces resulting from the deletion of text material • Incorporation of a part on an illustration |
Blank spaces resulting from the deletion of text material
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Which of the following numbers indicates a illustration has been added to a maintenance manual because of an issued change?
• 2.1-1 • 2-1.1 • 2-Bl • 2-1B |
2-1.1
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Which of the following information is included in the MMP?
• Current list of QARS • High-time components • Schedule of technical training • Each of the above |
Each of the above
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What is the primary purpose of technical publications?
• To train nonmaintenance personnel • To replace technical training requirements • To support logistics • To help you perform your assigned maintenance |
To help you perform your assigned maintenance
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What portion of NAVAIR publication number NAVAIR 01-75PAC-1 specifies the type aircraft and the manufacturer of the aircraft to which the publication applies?
• 75PAC only • PAC-1 • 01-75PAC • 01-75 only |
01-75 only
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For a description of the NAVAIR technical manual program, you should refer to what publication?
• NAVAIR 00-25-100 • NAVAIR 00-500B • NAVSUP 2002 • NAVAIR 00-500A |
NAVAIR 00-25-100
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A WP number consists of what total number of digits?
• 12 • 8 • 5 • 10 |
5
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A change symbol in a WP manual is required for changes to which of the following elements?
• Diagrams only • Diagrams, line drawings, and Illustrations • Line drawings only • IPB illustrations |
Diagrams, line drawings, and Illustrations
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At the organizational level, the MMP is distributed by what day of the month prior to the month to which it applies?
• 25th • 5th • 1st • 15th |
25th
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What document provides scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload?
• MDs report • Monthly Maintenance Plan • SE Custody and Maintenance History Record • VIDS/MAF |
Monthly Maintenance Plan
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Where does the WP identification number appear on a page in a WP manual?
• Top center • Top left comer • Bottom center • Top right comer |
Top right comer
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Of the following equipment, which one requires an OPNAV 4790/51 card?
• VAST stations • GB1As • Engine test cells and stands • PME equipment |
VAST stations
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What are the two major types of technical manuals?
• Conventional and work package (WP) • Organizational and intermediate • Operational and maintenance • Commercial and conventional |
Operational and maintenance
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On initiation of each new OPNAV 4790/51, reporting custodians retain the latest processed copy from the permanent custodian. A current copy is also maintained with any accumulated data transcribed to it.
• True • False |
True
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In a WP manual, what information is contained in the numerical index of effective WPs?
• All changed pages only • All deleted WPs only • All changed, revised, added, or deleted WPs • All revised WPs only |
All changed, revised, added, or deleted WPs
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Technical Publication Deficiency Reports (TPDRs) usually result from fleet inputs that include changes for which of the following reasons?
• To correct user-detected errors • To improve verbiage • To incorporate a “better way” • Each of the above |
Each of the above
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A NAVAlR manual number consists of what parts?
• A numerical prefix and two additional parts • A numerical prefix and four additional Parts • A letter prefix and one additional part • A letter prefix and three additional parts |
A numerical prefix and four additional Parts
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What technical publication update method involves the complete reissue of a replacement manual with all change information incorporated?
• Revision • Notice • RAC • Change |
Revision
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The format of a publication should be designed to improve which of the following key aspects?
• Reproduction of pages • Readability • Usability • Replacement of page changes |
Readability
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What is identified by part I of the publication number?
• The general subject classification • The category of manual • The group of manual • The type of manual |
The category of manual
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Which of the following format styles can be found in technical manuals?
• Conventional and work package (WP) • Simple and complex • Commercial and conventional • Organizational and intermediate |
Conventional and work package (WP)
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Large, high-density avionics aircraft with computer-controlled, integrated weapons systems use what type of manual to help the aircrew troubleshoot and repair equipment to maintain mission capability while still airborne?
• NATOPS manuals • In-flight maintenance manual • Structural repair manual • Support equipment manual |
In-flight maintenance manual
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The third group of characters in the technical manual identifier consists of a single number or letter. It is known as the TM
• acronym • identifier • issue • serial number |
issue
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What portion of NAVAIR publication number NAVAIR 0l-85AD-1 signifies the publication is a NATOPS manual?
• AD-l • -1 • -85AD • 01 |
-85AD
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For which of the following reasons are sections of MIMs now issued as separate publications under individual identifying numbers?
• Easier procurement, storage, filing, and use • Easier to use only • Less expensive to produce • Easier replacement |
Easier procurement, storage, filing, and use
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Large, high-density avionics aircraft with computer-controlled, integrated weapons systems use what type of manual to aid the aircrew in maintaining large analysis and single flow data?
• NATOPS manuals • Support equipment manual • Crew station manuals • Structural repair manual |
Crew station manuals
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The first group of characters in the technical manual identifier consists of three letters or numbers. This group is known as the TM
• issue • identifier • serial number • acronym |
acronym
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What information is identified by the second group of characters in the PI?
• The responsible command • The Standard Subject Classification Code • The subject serial number • The type of manual |
The Standard Subject Classification Code
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In which callout of figure 2-18 is information found on specific tools other than standard items to perform maintenance?
• Callout C • Callout B • Callout A • Callout D |
Callout C
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For more in-depth information concerning the NAPI, you should refer to which of the following publications?
• NAVAIR 01-1A-540 • NAVAIR 00-80T-96 • NAVAIR 00-25-100 • NAVAIR 0l -85ADC-1 |
NAVAIR 00-25-100
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When you see a publication numbered NAVAIR XX-XXX-4, you know that this manual is of what type?
• Illustrated Parts Breakdown • Maintenance Instruction Manual • Work Unit Code Manual • Structural Repair Manual |
Illustrated Parts Breakdown
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TMINS numbers for manuals are patterned after what numbering system?
• Unit Identification System • National Stock Number System • Subject Serial Number • Standard Subject Classification Code |
National Stock Number System
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What information is identified by the frost letter in the PI?
• The type of manual • The responsible command • The Standard Subject Classification code • The subject serial number |
The type of manual
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What aircraft maintenance division normally maintains a complete NAPI?
• Quality assurance • Armament • Administration • Maintenance material control |
Quality assurance
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What information is identified by the first seven characters of the PI?
• The technical manual • The subject serial number • The Standard Subject Classification code • The hardware or subject identifier |
The hardware or subject identifier
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The publication identifier (PI) is the root of the TMINS number. It contains a total of how many characters?
• 10 • 13 • 11 • 12 |
13
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What manual gives a comprehensive explanation of the TMINS?
• NAVAIR 00-500B • NAVAIR 00-500AV • M0000-00/TMINS • N0000-00-IDX-000/TMS |
N0000-00-IDX-000/TMS
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What information is identified by the third group of characters in the PI?
• The subject serial number • The responsible command • The type of manual • The Standard Subject Classification code |
The subject serial number
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The Naval Aeronautic Publications Index (NAPI) consists of how many sections?
• Four • Eight • Six • Two |
Six
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Which section of the MIM covers component repair procedures for intermediate-level maintenance?
• Section III • Section IV • Section II • Section I |
Section IV
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What NAVAIR manual contains basic structural repair data common to all aircraft?
• NAVAIR 01-85ADC-1 • NAVAIR 00-25-100 • NAVAIR 01-1A-1 • NAVAIR 01-1A-540 |
NAVAIR 01-1A-1
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A listing of weapons systems component parts keyed to illustrations is provided in what type of manual?
• Aircraft Maintenance Manual • Maintenance Instruction Manual • Illustrated Parts Breakdown manual • Structural Repair Manual |
Illustrated Parts Breakdown manual
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The purpose of the TMINS is to meet the requirements of all systems commands to obtain what standardized information concerning technical manuals and changes?
• Identification only • Referencing only • Requisitioning only • Identification, referencing, and Requisitioning |
Identification, referencing, and Requisitioning
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TIMINS identifies classified publications by what means?
• Total PI composition • The PI prefix • The PI suffix • The PI subject serial number |
The PI suffix
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What series of manuals covers standard aviation maintenance practices that apply to all aircraft?
• -8 • 01-1A • 01-1B • -1 |
01-1A
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All aeronautical publications, changes, technical directives, and forms issued by NAVAIRSYSCOM are cataloged in the Naval Aeronautic Publications Index (NAPI).
• True • False |
True
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A technical directive that is issued to clarify, add to, delete from, make a minor requirement change, or cancel an existing technical directive is known as what type of technical directive?
• Amendment • Change • Revision • Bulletin |
Change
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Which of the following part numbers follows sequence number 08643759 in an alphanumeric listing?
• 943762 • P46843 • ZB4738 • 064795 |
064795
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When an activity with a central library has other libraries within the command, dispersed technical publications libraries (DTPLs), what organizational element of the activity manages these libraries?
• The CTPL • Admin • Material control • QA |
The CTPL
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At least how often does QA audit the CTPL?
• Annually • Biannually • Quarterly • Monthly |
Quarterly
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Which of the following symbols designates the second revision to a TD?
• Rev. 2 • Rev. 1 • Rev. B • Rev. A |
Rev. B
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A technical directive change directs the accomplishment and recording of a material change, a repositioning, a modification, or an alteration in the characteristics of the equipment to which it applies.
• True • False |
True
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What safety publication contains information and guidelines on acceptable work place safety and health standards ashore?
• NAVAIR A1-NAOSH-SAF- 000/P5100-1 • NAVAIR 00-25-100 • OPNAVINST 5100.23 • OPNAVINST 3750.6 |
NAVAIR A1-NAOSH-SAF- 000/P5100-1
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Which of the following numbers is a supply Project code?
• AN6227-7 • AK7 • 63425 • 6RX-4920-00-237-97934X |
AK7
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What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the source or SM&R codes used in the IPB?
• Numerical index • Group assembly parts list • Alphabetical index • Introduction |
Introduction
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What PMS publication provides information in an abbreviated walkaround order to aid personnel when they inspect aircraft surfaces?
• Turnaround checklist • Phase maintenance requirements cards • Daily MRC • Periodic maintenance information Cards |
Turnaround checklist
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Your squadron is categorized as a FAD II activity and you require a mission essential part. What is the highest priority that can be assigned to your request?
• 7 • 13 • 2 • 1 |
2
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A technical directive is issued to correct a safety condition that could result in fatal or serious injury to personnel. What type of technical directive is this?
• Routine • Urgent • Record purpose • Immediate action |
Immediate action
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What type of code identifies the agent or agency that has design control over an item?
• CAGE • MCRL • H4/H8 • ML-N |
CAGE
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Which of the following numbers is listed first in an alphanumeric parts listing?
• AN6437 • 0836948 • 899T1384 • 216849 |
AN6437
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Which of the following is a purpose of an illustrated parts breakdown?
• To determine interchangeables, next higher assemblies, and repairables • To determine units used for assembly and aircraft bureau number application • To determine source codes, CAGES, and source of supply • To allow supply and maintenance personnel to identify and order replacement parts for aircraft or equipment |
To allow supply and maintenance personnel to identify and order replacement parts for aircraft or equipment
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Besides the introduction, each IPB includes which of the following information?
• Table of contents or alphabetic index • Group assembly parts list • Numerical index • Each of the above |
Each of the above
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The Planned Maintenance System publications consist of what type or types of cards or charts?
• MRCs only • PMICs only • SCCs only • MRCs, PMICs, and SSCs |
MRCs, PMICs, and SSCs
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Information from which of the following sources is used by supply department personnel as justification for stocking material?
• Management decisions • Forecasted flights • Usage statistics • Monthly maintenance plans |
Usage statistics
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What listing in the IPB lists aircraft assemblies and identifies the pages or figure numbers where the assemblies are shown in the IPB?
• Alphabetical index • Numerical index • Group assembly parts list • Introduction |
Alphabetical index
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Information about discrepancies or change recommendations of a routine nature on the technical content of a NATOPS should be submitted on what form?
• OPNAV Form 5300/32 • OPNAV Form 3500/22 • OPNAV Form 4790/12 • OPNAV Form 4790/66 |
OPNAV Form 3500/22
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What section in an IPB contains general information and instructions for using the publication?
• Group assembly parts list • Numerical index • Introduction • Alphabetical index |
Introduction
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When a FAD III is assigned to your activity, what is the highest priority you should use to order routine replenishment s t o c k ?
• 5 • 10 • 2 • 13 |
13
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The overall management of the technical library is a function of what activity or individual?
• Quality assurance division • Central library supervisor • Commanding officer • Material control division |
Quality assurance division
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Routine deficiencies in technical publications are reported via OPNAV Form 4790/66 to what command or commands?
• NATSF and CFA • NATSF only • CNO • CFA only |
NATSF and CFA
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What form does the dispersed librarian sign to indicate the receipt of a publication change from the central library?
• OPNAV Form 4790/66 • DD Form 1348 • NWPL (OPNAV Form 5070/11) • CECR (OPNAV Form 5070/12) |
CECR (OPNAV Form 5070/12)
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Find index No. 7. The fitting assembly (part number A51G10561-1) can be used on an aircraft with which of the following bureau numbers?
• 153499 • 159874 • 152719 • 148885 |
148885
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Which of the following is a description of the units per assembly (callout 5 of figure 3-4)?
• The column number in which the nomenclature of the item begins • The relationship of one part to another • A specific quantity has not been established • The aircraft bureau number on which the item can be used |
The relationship of one part to another
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In what figure can the next higher assembly for the flow regulator be found?
• 046-00 • 029-00 • 037-00 • 019-00 |
029-00
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What is the Commercial and Government Entity (CAGE) code for part number 2577818-011E
• 552847 • 671361-101 • 3-1089 • 28 x 7.7 |
3-1089
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The MCRL is used to provide a crossreference between what items of information?
• NIIN and item number • Noun name and CAGE • Reference number and NSN • CAGE and NIIN |
Reference number and NSN
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What position of the SM&R code identifies the maintenance level assigned to completely repair an item?
• Fifth • Second • Fourth • First |
Fourth
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What is the Usable-On code for Index No.
• D • C • A • B |
A
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What is the description of part number MS21042L3?
• Light • Screw • Bracket • Nut |
Screw
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You need to order a replacement component for an aircraft, and you do not know the part number of the item. Which of the following basic information should you be able to provide the AK so that he or she can research the IPB?
• Type of aircraft on which the part was installed • The component on which the part was installed • The bureau number of the aircraft from which the part was removed • All of the above |
All of the above
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When removal of a component from an aircraft is not feasible or advisable until a replacement is on hand, supply personnel can exempt the turn-in of the component (retrograde) if its part number is listed in what document?
• CRIPL • MCRL • MESSM • LIRSH |
CRIPL
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Find index No. 5. A total of how many screws (part number MS27039-1-22) are used on the bracket assembly
• 12 • 4 • 2 • 5 |
2
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What information does the third position of an SM&R code provide?
• The lowest maintenance level authorized to remove, replace, and use an item • The maintenance level authorized to completely repair an item • The Service Option code that applies • The highest maintenance level authorized to remove, replace, and use an item |
The lowest maintenance level authorized to remove, replace, and use an item
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What is the SM&R code for the NLG shock strut?
• PAOOD • MDOZZ • XCOOO • PAOZZ |
MDOZZ
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What type of material is listed in the CRIPL?
• Material considered hazardous • Material subject to deterioration after a specified time • Material exempt from the one-for-one turn-in rule • Material essential for flight operations |
Material exempt from the one-for-one turn-in rule
|
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The reference number on a master crossreference list refers to what number or numbers?
• Either a manufacture’s part number, a drawing number, or a design control number • Drawing number and design control number only • Drawing numbers only • Manufacturer’s part number only |
Either a manufacture’s part number, a drawing number, or a design control number
|
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What section of the IPB contains a description of a component listed in the IPB?
• Group assembly parts list • Alphabetical index • Numerical index • Introduction |
Group assembly parts list
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An ICRL-A is revised at what specified interval?
• Monthly • Biannually • Annually • Quarterly |
Quarterly
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What two instructions govern policies, procedures, and definitions applicable to SM&R codes?
• OPNAVINST 4790.2 and NAVSUPINST 4440.16 • NAVSUPINST 4700.16 and NAVAIRINST 4410.4 • NAVSUPINST 4423.14 and NAVAIRINST 4423.3 • OPNAVINST 4440.25 and NAVSUPINST 7300.6 |
NAVSUPINST 4423.14 and NAVAIRINST 4423.3
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What is the purpose of an index number in an IPB?
• To identify items procured from a commercial source • To establish the relationship between parts in the illustration and the corresponding parts list • To describe a major component • To provide a reference number |
To establish the relationship between parts in the illustration and the corresponding parts list
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What section of the IPB lists supplementary handbooks to which you may refer?
• Introduction • Group assembly parts list • Alphabetical index • Numerical index |
Introduction
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Find index No. 9. Where must the maintenanceman refer to for wheel assembly, NLG (part number 3-1328) required per aircraft?
• The Usable-on Code index • Figure 046-00 in the IPB • The table of contents • The numerical index |
The Usable-on Code index
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What is the purpose of the ICRL-A?
• To provide a list of repairables and the local IMA's capability to repair them • To provide squadrons with a list of NSNs that are exempt from the onefor- one turn-in rule • To cross-reference numbers to NSNs • To cross-reference CAGES to reference numbers |
To provide a list of repairables and the local IMA's capability to repair them
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An SM&R code is a five- or six-position alphanumeric code.
• True • False |
True
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What part of a part’s SM&R code indicates how the part is to be acquired?
• Recoverability code only • Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability codes • Maintenance code only • Source code only |
Source code only
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What ASO publication contains a complete list of Navy-managed material that is classified as MTR?
• ML-N • IMRL • MRIL • CRIPL |
MRIL
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To what reference should you refer to obtain an NSN or reference number for an item when you only know the description?
• ML-N • ASG • CRIPL • MRIL3 |
ASG
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Within the ICRL listing, what code is equivalent to Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM)-3?
• X6 • X1 • X2 • X3 |
X3
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An aircraft is in NMCS/PMCS status. What priority is assigned to LRCA in support of this aircraft?
• Priority 4 • Priority 1 • Priority 2 • Priority 3 |
Priority 1
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The ASD/SSC is composed of what section or sections?
• SRS only • ASD • SRS and CCS • CCS only |
SRS and CCS
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What information is provided by the first two digits in the FSC code number?
• The detailed breakdown of a category of material • The major or broad category of the stock • The FSC group • Manager that controls the category of material |
The FSC group
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What command exercises overall program management for the AMMRL program?
• NAMO • NAVAIRSYSCOM • NAVAIRENGCEN • ASO |
NAVAIRSYSCOM
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Metal corrosion is defined as the deterioration of metal as it combines with which of the following elements?
• Nitrogen • Argon • Oxygen • Helium |
Oxygen
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At the organizational maintenance level, the point of contact for all material requirements generated by a squadron is located in what organization?
• ASD/SSC • Material control center • Production control • AIMD |
Material control center
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The NSN is comprised of what total number of digits?
• 13 • 16 • 17 • 15 |
13
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Within an activity, what officer must approve the item of PEB stockage when it costs more than $150?
• The aviation maintenance officer • The division officer • The commanding officer • The supply officer |
The commanding officer
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Supply will remove an item from the PEB if there has been no demand for the item within what total period of time?
• 12 months • 6 months • 3 months • 1 month |
12 months
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The IMRL contains how many major sections?
• 2 • 3 • 5 • 1 |
5
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What Material Condition code tells you that an item of supply is fast moving and in high demand?
• O • F • S • I |
F
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Corrosion is detrimental to the integrity of an aircraft. It alters the structure of the materials that make up the aircraft in what manner?
• Reduction in strength only • Change in mechanical characteristics only • Decreases aerodynamic efficiency • Reduction in strength and change in mechanical characteristics |
Reduction in strength and change in mechanical characteristics
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Within an activity, personnel in what rating normally maintain the IMRL?
• AK • AZ • AS • AD |
AS
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A LRCA is assigned a workload priority. The priority assigned is one of what total number of priorities that can be assigned to the LRCA?
• Two • Four • Three • Five |
Four
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The SRS limits the quantity of any item in the pre-expended bin to a 30-day supply.
• True • False |
True
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What is the greatest threat to the structural integrity of an aircraft?
• Metal composition • Aircraft weight • Metal corrosion • Aircraft design |
Metal corrosion
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What is the purpose of the component control section within the supply department?
• To account for all repairables • To operate as a storage unit • To manage the LRCA at the ASD/SSC • To operate the rotable pool |
To manage the LRCA at the ASD/SSC
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To determine whether an intermediate maintenance activity has capability to test/check or repair an item, what I-level supply area screens all components turned into ASD/SSC?
• AMSU • SRS • C C S • SUADPS |
AMSU
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The materials used in the construction of an aircraft are chosen according to their
• availability • weight-to-strength ratio • cost • corrosion-resistant properties |
weight-to-strength ratio
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What ICRL Capability code is used for check and test only?
• A1 • Z1 • X2 • C1 |
A1
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Which of the following acronyms identifies equipment that is required on the ground to make a system, subsystem, or end item of equipment operational?
• ATE • GFE • SE • IMRL |
SE
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What is the title of the overall program that provides the data required for effective management of support equipment at all levels of maintenance?
• IMRL • ICRL • AVCAL • AMMRL |
AMMRL
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What is the 13–digit number called that identifies an item of material in the supply system?
• SMIC • NIIN • NSN • F S C |
NSN
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Mandatory aircraft cleaning is always required after an aircraft is exposed to which of the following substances?
• Exhaust deposits on the aft fuselage • Fire-extinguishing materials splashed on the landing gear • Rocket blast deposits on the forward Fuselage • Alkaline cleaning solution splashed on the wings |
Fire-extinguishing materials splashed on the landing gear
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On naval aircraft, what materials are used most often to separate susceptible alloys from the corrosive environment?
• Shrouds • Preservatives • Sealants • Paints |
Paints
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|
In an intermediate maintenance activity, an avionics/electrical maintenance branch that operates a “clean room” should use what type of MIL-C-81302 Freon cleaner?
• IV • II • III • I |
I
|
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|
What solvent is generally used as an all purpose cleaner in naval aviation maintenance?
• Aliphatic naptha • Dry-cleaning solvent • Methyl ethyl ketone • Aromatic naphtha |
Dry-cleaning solvent
|
|
|
Which of the following conditions is the single greatest contributor to avionics corrosion?
• Moisture • Incomplete circuits • Heat • Stray voltage |
Moisture
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Because of variations in their composition, which of the following aircraft surfaces is the most susceptible to corrosive attack?
• Nonclad • Thin structural • Alclad • Thick structural |
Thick structural
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Which of the following conditions are factors in the electrochemical reaction that causes metals to corrode?
• Heat and moisture only • Moisture and humidity only • Heat and humidity only • Heat, humidity, and moisture |
Heat, humidity, and moisture
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Which of the following solvents is an alternate compound for cleaning acrylics?
• Methyl ethyl ketone • Ammonium hydroxide • Aliphatic naphtha • Aromatic naphtha |
Aliphatic naphtha
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When carrier-based aircraft are transferred to shore activities, what happens to the scope of most corrosion preventive programs?
• It is cancelled • It remains the same • It decreases • It increases |
It decreases
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|
Which of the following publications provides information on the general use of cements, sealants, and coatings used on aircraft?
• NAVAIR 16-l-540 • NAVAIR 01-1A-507 • NAVAIR 01-1A-509 • NAVAIR 15-01-500 |
NAVAIR 01-1A-507
|
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Unpainted surface of struts and actuating cylinder rods should be cleaned or wiped down at what prescribed interval?
• Daily • Twice weekly • Weekly • Twice monthly |
Daily
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|
When handling, using, and storing aircraft cleaning materials, what is/are the most serious hazard(s) you will meet?
• Flammability and toxicity • Toxicity only • Heat expansion • Flammability only |
Flammability and toxicity
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|
Solvents must be kept in specially marked containers if they contain more than what percent by volume of chlorinated materials?
• 24% • 8% • 10% • 12% |
24%
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When volatile and flammable materials are not being used, they should be stored in which of the following areas?
• In a metal cruise box inside the corrosion control work spaces • Inside a designated hangar space • Inside a separate locker in the material control spaces • Inside a separate building or flammable liquids storeroom |
Inside a separate building or flammable liquids storeroom
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|
|
Which of the following publications provides information on the preservation of aircraft engines?
• NAVAIR 16-l-540 • NAVAIR 15-01-500 • NAVAIR 01-1A-518 • NAVAIR 01-1A-507 |
NAVAIR 16-l-540
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|
|
To neutralize the effects of urine and waste products in the lavatories of aircraft, you should use which of the following cleaning agents?
• Dry-cleaning solvent • Aircraft surface cleaning compound • Sodium phosphate • Ammonium hydroxide or sodium bicarbonate |
Ammonium hydroxide or sodium bicarbonate
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|
|
Safety solvent is intended for use when a high flash point is required. You should NOT use safety solvent to clean which of the following areas of an aircraft?
• Avionic/electrical systems • Oxygen systems • Disassembled/assembled engine components • Wheel bearing and brake components |
Oxygen systems
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|
|
Which of the following publications provides information on the preservation of naval aircraft?
• NAVAIR 15-02-500 • NAVAIR 15-01-500 • NAVAIR 01-1A-509 • NAVAIR 01-1A-507 |
NAVAIR 15-01-500
|
|
|
Which of the following publications provides information on avionics cleaning and corrosion prevention and control?
• NAVAIR 01-1A-507 • NAVAIR 15-02-500 • NAVAIR 15-01-500 • NAVAIR 16-l-540 |
NAVAIR 16-l-540
|
|
|
To identify all the corrosion-prone areas of your squadron’s aircraft, you should refer to which of the following publications?
• Applicable periodic maintenance information cards (PMICS) • Applicable NATOPS manual • Aircraft Cleaning and Corrosion Control Manual • Maintenance requirements cards (MRCs) |
Applicable periodic maintenance information cards (PMICS)
|
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|
In an emergency when an aircraft is without a regular waterproof canvas cover, suitable covering and shrouding may be accomplished by the use of which of the following materials?
• Polyethylene sheet only • Polyethylene-coated cloth only • Metal foil barrier material only • Polyethylene sheet, polyethylenecoated cloth, and metal foil barrier material |
Polyethylene sheet, polyethylenecoated cloth, and metal foil barrier material
|
|
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Under which of the following conditions is an aircraft most susceptible to a corrosive attack?
• When it is being flown • When it is not being flown or when it is in shipment • When it is in shipment only • When it is not being flown only |
When it is not being flown or when it is in shipment
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Level I preservation should be applied to an aircraft when it is out-of-service for more than what minimum number of days?
• 30 • 7 • 28 • 14 |
14
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|
To produce a high-luster, long-lasting polish on an unpainted aluminum clad surface, you should use what mechanical cleaner?
• Powdered pumice • Aluminum metal polish • Fine aluminum wool • Abrasive-impregnated cotton wadding |
Aluminum metal polish
|
|
|
What type of corrosion is usually found around electrical bonding and grounding straps?
• Filiform • Microbiological • Galvanic • Stress |
Galvanic
|
|
|
You should use corrosion preventive compound MIL-C-81309, type III, on which of the following equipment?
• Hydraulic system equipment • Engine fuel control systems • Avionic and electrical equipment • Ejection seat mechanisms |
Avionic and electrical equipment
|
|
|
Which of the following cleaning compounds should be used to clean an aircraft that is painted with the tactical paint system?
• MIL-C-43616 • MIL-C-85570 • MIL-C-25769 • MIL-C-81309 |
MIL-C-85570
|
|
|
How many levels of preservation methods are used on naval aircraft?
• Three • One • Two • Four |
Three
|
|
|
Which of the following devices should you use to perform a fast and economical cleaning of an aircraft?
• Cotton mops • Ajax speed wipes • Conformable applicators • Bristle brushes |
Conformable applicators
|
|
|
Surfaces that are lightly soiled with oil may be spot-cleaned by wiping them with which of the following substances?
• Dry-cleaning solvent • Aromatic naphtha • Methyl ethyl ketone • Grade IV paralketone |
Dry-cleaning solvent
|
|
|
Which of the following publications contains the requirements for Level I preservation?
• MIM • Special PMIC • Special MRC • IPB |
Special MRC
|
|
|
What preservative compound should be used to provide protection for shock struts?
• Preservative hydraulic oil, MIL-H- 46170 • Lubricating oil, general-purpose preservative, VV-L-800 • Corrosion-preventive compound, solvent cutback, grade 1 • Corrosion-preventive petroleum, class 3 |
Corrosion-preventive petroleum, class 3
|
|
|
Which of the following is a laminated metal-foil material used for the protection of acrylics during cleaning?
• Polyethylene plastic film • Kraft paper • Polyethylene coating cloth • Water vaporproof barrier material |
Water vaporproof barrier material
|
|
|
Level III preservation is used to preserve aircraft for what situation?
• Long-term storage • Periodic maintenance • Short-term storage • Ocean shipment |
Long-term storage
|
|
|
Piano-wire hinges require lubricating and corrosion protection. What water displacing, low-temperature, lubricating oil should you use?
• Lubricating oil, general-purpose, preservative, VV-L-800 • Engine preservative oil, MIL-L-23699 • General lubricating oil, MIL-L-7870 • Preservative hydraulic oil, MIL-H- 46170 |
Lubricating oil, general-purpose, preservative, VV-L-800
|
|
|
The size and composition of an emergency reclamation team is determined by which of the following criteria?
• Urgency of the situation • Size of the squadron • Location of the squadron • Availability of qualified personnel |
Urgency of the situation
|
|
|
When avionic and structural corrosion is compared, which of the following effects is the main difference between avionic and structural corrosion?
• Corrosion is not as difficult to detect in avionic systems • Small amounts of corrosion can make avionic systems inoperable • Avionic components are more corrosion resistant • Avionics systems do not have as many areas in which moisture can be trapped |
Small amounts of corrosion can make avionic systems inoperable
|
|
|
A troubleshooter must possess which of the following skills and/or knowledges?
• Skill as a technical advisor to the plane captain only • Knowledgeable in line operations only • Knowledgeable in flight line safety only • Skill as a technical advisor to the plane captain and be knowledgeable in line operations and flight line safety |
Skill as a technical advisor to the plane captain and be knowledgeable in line operations and flight line safety
|
|
|
Which of the following is/are (an) advantage(s) of pressure fueling?
• Fueling and defueling can be done from a single point only • Aircraft can be given a faster turnaround time only • Fueling can be done from a single point only • Fueling and defueling can be done From a single point, which gives the aircraft faster turnaround time |
Aircraft can be given a faster turnaround time only
|
|
|
An aircraft is being refueled by truck. What is the minimum distance from the truck that a radar set may be operated?
• 100 ft • 75 ft • 25 ft • 50 ft |
75 ft
|
|
|
Normally, what percentage of the total personnel assigned to the line division are assigned to the plane captain branch?
• Between 15 and 35 percent • Between 35 and 55 percent • Between 75 and 95 percent • Between 55 and 75 percent |
Between 75 and 95 percent
|
|
|
Corrosion damage limits refer to the amount of metal that may be removed from a corroded part without impairing the strength and function of the part.
• True • False |
True
|
|
|
When inspecting engine frontal areas and cooling air vents, what type of discrepancy(ies) are you likely to find?
• Galvanic corrosion • Intergranular, filiform, and fatigue corrosion • Stress corrosion cracking • Dirt, dust, gravel, and rain erosion |
Dirt, dust, gravel, and rain erosion
|
|
|
The type of fuel contained in the tank of a fuel truck is displayed across the side of the tank. What color and what size lettering is used on the tank?
• 8-inch-high blue lettering superimposed on 6-inch-high red reflective tape • 4-inch-high green lettering superimposed on 6-inch-high gray reflective tape • 6-inch-high red lettering superimposed on 8-inch-high white reflective tape • 5-inch-high orange lettering superimposed on 7-inch-high gray reflective tape |
6-inch-high red lettering superimposed on 8-inch-high white reflective tape
|
|
|
Smoking is not permitted within how many feet of an aircraft during fueling operations?
• 100 ft • 25 ft • 75 ft • 50 ft |
100 ft
|
|
|
Only approved explosion proof lights can be brought within what specified distance of the refueling operations?
• 30 ft • 20 ft • 50 ft • 10 ft |
50 ft
|
|
|
Which of the following statement is NOT true regarding the dry honing machine?
• May be used on any aircraft skin or surface • Metal removal can be held to closer limits • It is the only approved blasting method of removing corrosion on assembled aircraft • May be used in either shipboard or shore-based operations |
May be used on any aircraft skin or surface
|
|
|
What is the purpose of chemically treating a surface after the removal of corrosion products?
• To protect the metal in place of paint • To increase the surfaces resistance to corrosion • To improve the paint bond to the surface • Both 2 and 3 above |
Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
|
After operation, personnel should not work on the exhaust section of a jet engine for what minimum period?
• 45 min • 30 min • 60 min • 15 min |
60 min
|
|
|
What device or devices is/are used to drain residual fuel?
• A fueling hose • A defueling hose • The engine CSD drain • Fuel cell water drain valves |
Fuel cell water drain valves
|
|
|
In some cases, engine oil is identified by a four-digit number. What does this number tell you about the oil?
• Its part number only • Its part number and its viscosity • Its use and viscosity • Its viscosity only |
Its use and viscosity
|
|
|
Of the following parts of high-pressure air valve MS 28889-1) which one presents a FOD hazard and is normally removed?
• The O-ring • The valve stem • The pin • The dust cover |
The dust cover
|
|
|
What is the viscosity rating of aircraft engine oil No. 2085?
• 2 • 85 • 208 • 20 |
85
|
|
|
What personnel have the responsibility for refilling liquid oxygen converters?
• AMEs • AMHs • Aircrewmen • Plane captains |
Plane captains
|
|
|
What device should be used to catch the overflow oil when the preoiler (PON-6) is used?
• A drain bottle assembly • A waste oil rag • A specially designed drain pan • A bucket |
A drain bottle assembly
|
|
|
A can of hydraulic fluid has been opened and partially used. When should this open can be disposed of?
• Within 48 hours only • Immediately • Within 72 hours • Within 24 hours only |
Immediately
|
|
|
What type of oil is used in most turbojet engines?
• MIL-L-24699 • MIL-L-26699 • MIL-L-25699 • MIL-L-23699 |
MIL-L-23699
|
|
|
When the aircraft shown is at military power, in what zone would you be exposed to a maximum of 112 dB of engine noise?
• Contour A • Contour C • Contour D • Contour B |
Contour C
|
|
|
You need to determine the remaining amount of oil in the preoiler (PON-6). What device should you use?
• A direct-reading gauge • A dipstick • A sight glass • A float gauge |
A sight glass
|
|
|
An aircraft is land based and has a gross weight of 19,000 pounds. What is the proper tire pressure for this aircraft?
• 290 psi • 300 psi • 280 psi • 310 psi |
310 psi
|
|
|
What is the exact capacity of the reservoir on the HSU-1?
• 4 gal • 3 gal • 2 gal • 1 gal |
3 gal
|
|
|
You should use hydraulic fluid MIL-H-46170 in which of the following instances?
• The hydraulic systems of naval and Air Force aircraft • In the hydraulic systems of Air Force aircraft only • The hydraulic systems of naval aircraft only • When preserving hydraulic systems and components in naval aircraft |
When preserving hydraulic systems and components in naval aircraft
|
|
|
After the appropriate signatures have been obtained, an SE license is good for what maximum period?
• 2 yr • 1 yr • 3 yr • 4 yr |
3 yr
|
|
|
Personnel removed from maintenance responsibilities for over what minimum period must receive a new egress system c h e c k o u t ?
• 30 days • 60 days • 120 days • 90 days |
90 days
|
|
|
The Tool Control Program is based upon which of the following concepts?
• Tool usage • Instant inventory • Preventive maintenance • Tool replacement |
Instant inventory
|
|
|
What form should you use when requesting oil analysis on an oil sample?
• DD Form 2024 • DD Form 2026 • VIDS/MAF • DD Form 2027 |
DD Form 2026
|
|
|
After the initial egress system checkout, maintenance personnel must receive an additional checkout a minimum of how often?
• Every 12 months • Every 6 months • Every 3 months • Every 9 months |
Every 6 months
|
|
|
Which of the following publications should you consult to find the details of special programs?
• OPNAVINST 5000.3 • NAVAIR 01-1A-509 • NAVAIR 15-l-540 • OPNAVINST 4790.2B |
OPNAVINST 4790.2B
|
|
|
If you have to handle liquid oxygen, you should wear what type of gloves?
• Loose-fitting rubber • Loose-fitting leather • Tight-fitting leather • Tight-fitting rubber |
Loose-fitting leather
|
|
|
Which of the following is an outcome of the Tool Control Program?
• More man-hours required to complete each maintenance task • Greater initial outfitting and tool replacement costs • More tool pilferage • Increased availability of proper tools for specific maintenance tasks |
Increased availability of proper tools for specific maintenance tasks
|
|
|
What person has the authority to approve aircraft jacking?
• The maintenance chief • The maintenance officer • The aircraft handling officer • The shop supervisor |
The aircraft handling officer
|
|
|
What causes the largest percentage of premature engine removals?
• Faulty maintenance • Pilot error • Faulty manufacturing • Foreign object damage |
Foreign object damage
|
|
|
What type of inspection is performed when an aircraft returns from SDLM?
• Special • Conditional • Periodic • Acceptance |
Acceptance
|
|
|
What information is identified by the first
seven characters of the PI? 1. The technical manual 2. The Standard Subject Classification code 3. The subject serial number 4. The hardware or subject identifier |
The hardware or subject identifier
|
|
|
What information is identified by the frost
letter in the PI? 1. The subject serial number 2. The responsible command 3. The type of manual 4. The Standard Subject Classification code |
The responsible command
|
|
|
What information is identified by the
second group of characters in the PI? 1. The subject serial number 2. The responsible command 3. The type of manual 4. The Standard Subject Classification code |
The Standard Subject Classification
code |
|
|
What information is identified by the third
group of characters in the PI? 1. The subject serial number 2. The responsible command 3. The type of manual 4. The Standard Subject Classification code |
The subject serial number
|
|
|
TIMINS identifies classified publications
by what means? 1. Total PI composition 2. The PI prefix 3. The PI subject serial number 4 . The PI suffix |
The PI suffix
|
|
|
What manual gives a comprehensive
explanation of the TMINS? 1. NAVAIR 00-500AV 2. NAVAIR 00-500B 3. M0000-00/TMINS 4. N0000-00-IDX-000/TMS |
N0000-00-IDX-000/TMS
|
|
|
Which section of the MIM covers
component repair procedures for intermediate-level maintenance? 1. Section I 2. Section II 3. Section III 4. Section IV |
Section IV
|
|
|
The Naval Aeronautic Publications Index
(NAPI) consists of how many sections? 1. Six 2. Two 3. Eight 4. Four |
Six
|
|
|
What form does the dispersed librarian sign
to indicate the receipt of a publication change from the central library? 1. DD Form 1348 2. NWPL (OPNAV Form 5070/11) 3. CECR (OPNAV Form 5070/12) 4. OPNAV Form 4790/66 |
CECR (OPNAV Form 5070/12)
|
|
|
Other than tracking test equipment, updating files/publications, and ensuring tools are safe, how can functions of the work center be further enhanced?
• Allow the division officer to care for the administrative details • Judicious delegation of authority to other responsible petty officers (correct answer) • Request more frequent Q/A audits • The supervisor must oversee every detail in the work center |
Judicious delegation of authority to other responsible petty officers
|
|
|
Which manual is used as a guideline for the establishment of an effective training program?
• SECNAVINST 4790.2 • OPNAV NOTICE 4790 • SECNAV NOTICE 4790 • OPNAVINST 4790.2 |
OPNAVINST 4790.2
|
|
|
QA division personnel will occasionally accompany plane captains during inspections. This accompaniment will occur at what minimum interval?
• Annually • Once a month • Once a quarter • Semiannually |
Once a quarter
|
|
|
What factors determine the number of personnel assigned to a QA division?
• Size of the unit and number of work shifts • Size of the command and type of aircraft • Size of the work spaces and number of work shifts • Size of the work spaces and number of aircraft |
Size of the unit and number of work shifts
|
|
|
Completed check flight checklists are retained for what minimum period of time?
• 3 months or one phase cycle, whichever is greater • 9 months or one phase cycle, whichever is greater • 6 months or one phase cycle, whichever is greater • 12 months or one phase cycle, whichever is greater |
6 months or one phase cycle, whichever is greater
|
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The minimum qualifications for personnel selected for CDI are established by what activity or person?
• Division officer involved • Maintenance officer • QA division • Work center involved |
QA division
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What determines the success or failure in achieving high standards of quality?
• Up-to-date test equipment • Local instructions • Frame of mind of all personnel • Abundance of CDIs/QARs |
Frame of mind of all personnel
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Under which of the following circumstances can an officer in charge of a detachment designate QA personnel?
• When the CO of the squadron grants this authority in writing to the officer in charge • When the deployment is in excess of 90 days • When all procedures and requirements for designating QA personnel are accomplished by the detachment • Both 2 and 3 above |
Both 2 and 3 above
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A periodic or special evaluation of details, plans, and policies is known as a/an
• EI request • special inspection • QAR inspection • audit |
audit
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OMDs with only one work center in the maintenance department may have qualified inspectors with what designation?
• NDI • CDI • CDQAR • QAR |
CDQAR
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Which of the following is NOT considered a typical duty or responsibility of a supervisor?
• Promote teamwork • Inspect every task upon completion • Ensure personnel and equipment safety • Maintain liaison with other work centers |
Inspect every task upon completion
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The operational efficiency of a work center is dependent to a large extent upon what factor?
• The arrangement of the work spaces and equipment • The experience level of the division Officer • The number of people assigned • The backlog in workload |
The arrangement of the work spaces and equipment
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What type of inspection divides the total scheduled maintenance concept into small packages?
• Phase • Special • Preflight • Turnaround |
Phase
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Which of the following types of maintenance is required by hours, calendar periods, or starts?
• Phase maintenance • Unscheduled maintenance • Intermediate level maintenance • Scheduled maintenance |
Scheduled maintenance
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Under certain specific conditions, CDQARs may be assigned in work centers where they are used in the same capacity as QARs who are assigned to the QA division.
• True • False |
True
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In addition to EIs and ADRs, what reports are required under the NAMDRP?
• HMR, EMR, QDR, and TPDRs • HRM, ER, QAR, and TDRs • HMR, QDR, and TPDRs only • HRM, EMR, QAR, and TDPRs |
HMR, QDR, and TPDRs only
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An explosive incident is reported in accordance with what instruction?
• OPNAVINST 8100.3 • OPNAVINST 5100.7 • OPNAVINST 8600.2 • OPNAVINST 5215.1 |
OPNAVINST 8600.2
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What officer is authorized to designate CDQARs in an activity?
• The aircraft division officer • The AMO • The CO • The QA officer |
The AMO
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An HMR priority message must be submitted within a maximum of how many hours after the discovery of the discrepancy?
• 48 • 12 • 36 • 24 |
24
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The term TFOA should be used on an HMR report that involves which of the following incidents?
• An item of material does not conform to specification requirements • A request is made for technical information from NADEP • A fuselage panel that falls off an aircraft while it is in flight • A safety of flight defect is discovered on a reworked aircraft |
A fuselage panel that falls off an aircraft while it is in flight
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After an in-flight discrepancy has been signed off, what other inspection, if any, is required when the aircraft has returned to home base?
• A CDI must inspect the aircraft • The QA supervisor must inspect the aircraft • A QAR must inspect the repairs if the discrepancy involves safety of flight • None |
A QAR must inspect the repairs if the discrepancy involves safety of flight
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Which of the following instructions contains procedures used by supply activities to report deficiencies that result from incorrect preservation, packing, marking, or handling?
• NAVAIRINST 3510.12 • OPNAVINST 4790.2 • NAVSUPINST 4440.179 • NAVSUPINST 3750.2 |
NAVSUPINST 4440.179
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Unless combined with an HMR, within what maximum period of time after you discover a deficiency must the EI request be submitted?
• 10 working days • 30 calendar days • 24 hours • 5 working days |
5 working days
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Safety meetings are required to be held at what minimum intervals?
• Semiannually • Quarterly • Weekly • Monthly |
Monthly
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Which of the following is NOT a management responsibility of the QA division?
• Maintenance department safety • QA audits • Tool Control Program • Technical publications |
Technical publications
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Investigations and reports of naval aircraft mishaps that are not reported under OPNAVINST 4790.2 are reported under what instruction?
• OPNAVINST 3750.6 • OPNAVINST 5100.19 • OPNAVINST P-5100 • OPNAVINST 3120.32 |
OPNAVINST 3750.6
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Audits are maintained on file for what minimum period of time?
• 1 year • 18 months • Until the next audit is completed • 6 months |
1 year
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Upon completion of an audit, a report of the findings is submitted to the cognizant division and what official?
• The MMCO • The administration officer • The AMO • The QA officer |
The AMO
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What type of report is used when a deficiency is discovered in materials that, if not corrected, could result in death or injury?
• ADR • HMR • TPDR • EI |
HMR
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Work center audits are conducted at what minimum intervals?
• Semiannually • Annually • Quarterly • Monthly |
Annually
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What is the time requirement before a QA stamp may be reassigned?
• 6 months • 3 months • 12 months • 9 months |
3 months
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Which of the following statements defines management?
• The efficient attainment of objectives • To control the daily workload • To ensure the entire capability of the department is utilized • The coordination of the departmental workload |
The efficient attainment of objectives
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The Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record is signed by what person or persons?
• The pilot only • The plane captain only • The aircraft maintenance officer (or designated representative) only • The aircraft maintenance officer (or designated representative), the pilot, and plane captain |
The aircraft maintenance officer (or designated representative) only
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By what means is the Aviation Material Readiness Report normally submitted?
• Naval letter • Unclassified routine message • Unclassified immediate message • Classified immediate message |
Unclassified routine message
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The requirement for submission of the initial ADR Form (SF 368) is within how long after the acceptance flight?
• 10 working days • 5 working days • 15 days • 30 days |
5 working days
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When a misuse of equipment is witnessed and reported, which of the following personnel may submit the Support Equipment (SE) Misuse/Abuse forms?
• QA personnel • SE division officer • Safety officer • The witness to the misuse |
The witness to the misuse
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Detailed procedures for maintaining aircraft historical files can be found in what volume of OPNAVINST 4790.2?
• Volume V • Volume II • Volume III • Volume I |
Volume III
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Activities using NALCOMIS must store current MAFs on the host computer. How many preceding months of completed MAFS must be stored?
• 6 • 1 • 3 • 2 |
2
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Actions taken to retain material in a serviceable condition or to restore it to serviceability” defines which of the following terms?
• Maintenance • Management • Production • Inspection |
Maintenance
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Which of the following is NOT a program monitored by QA?
• Tire/Wheel Maintenance Safety • Ordnance Loading/Handling Safety • FOD • Tool Control |
Ordnance Loading/Handling Safety
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QA should use which of the following aids to monitor the different programs under its cognizance?
• MIs or NAMPSOPs • Accident reports • The experience of the work center supervisor • Safety posters |
MIs or NAMPSOPs
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Where can maintenance and aircrew personnel find an accurate, comprehensive record of all outstanding maintenance requirements on a specific aircraft?
• The Maintenance Data Report • The Aircraft Discrepancy Book • The Aviation Material Readiness Report • The aircraft logbook |
The Aircraft Discrepancy Book
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In the TD compliance historical file, at a minimum, how long must VIDS/MAFs be retained.
• 6 months from completed date • 3 months from date of issue • 3 months from completed date • 6 months from date of issue |
6 months from completed date
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What report enables supporting commanders to assess current material conditions and mission capabilities of squadron aircraft?
• QDR • MDR • AMRR • TPDR |
AMRR
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For squadrons operating with VIDS/MAFs, which historical file should include engine–related VIDS/MAFs?
• Miscellaneous file • Aircraft general file • Aircraft inspection file • Aircraft engine file |
Aircraft general file
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What form is used to designate an aircraft “safe for flight”?
• OPNAV 4790/26A • OPNAV 4790/60 • OPNAV 4790/141 • OPNAV 47900/113 |
OPNAV 4790/141
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What reporting method was designed to reveal an equipments mission capability.
• S C I R • MDRs • VIDS • NALCOMIS |
S C I R
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Technical Publication Deficiency Reporting (TPDR) should NOT be used when you report deficiencies in which of the following documents?
• Illustrated Parts Breakdowns • OPNAV instructions • Maintenance Requirements Cards • Work Unit Code Manuals |
OPNAV instructions
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As a minimum, how long must completed MAFS be retained in the Aircraft Discrepancy Book?
• 10 months • 12 months • 10 flights • 12 flights |
10 flights
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Which of the following procedures is used by QA for a successful monitoring program?
• Training quality QA representatives • Conducting audits • Maintaining up-to-date MIs • Maintaining an up-to-date library |
Maintaining up-to-date MIs
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What is the purpose of a Quality Deficiency Report (QDR)?
• To report on the quality of work performed at the inter- mediate maintenance level • To improve the quality of parts that are removed for high time • To report deficiencies in quality during the rework or manufacturing process to improve the quality of work • To improve the quality assurance inspector’s performance |
To report deficiencies in quality during the rework or manufacturing process to improve the quality of work
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What activity manages the ADR program?
• OPNAV • NATSF • COMNAVAIRSYSCOM • NAVAVNDEPOTOPSCEN |
NAVAVNDEPOTOPSCEN
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The Repair/Rework Record is identified by what OPNAV number?
• OPNAV 4790/23A • OPNAV 4790/18A • OPNAV 4790/24A • OPNAV 4790/21A |
OPNAV 4790/23A
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What items should NOT to be listed on the Inventory Record, OPNAV 4790/27A?
• Components requiring an AESR • Components requiring an EHR • Components requiring an MSR • Components requiring an SRC |
Components requiring an AESR
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Which of the following actions requires an entry in the Miscellaneous/History section of an aircraft logbook?
• The aircraft is damaged in an in-flight mishap • The aircraft is exposed to a large quantity of salt water • Dye is added directly to the aircraft fuel tanks to determine the location of a leak • Each of the above |
Each of the above
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On a Scheduled Removal Component Card (SRC), in which section is the serial number of the component documented?
• III • I • IV • II |
III
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What type of technical directives are issued in greater numbers and require careful screening to ensure accuracy?
• PPBs and PPCs • AFBs and AFCs • AVBs and AVCs • SEBs and SECs |
PPBs and PPCs
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What is done with an EHR when the component is removed and turned into supply as a retrograde?
• The EHR is put into a suspense file • The EHR is forwarded to the manufacturer • The EHR is destroyed • The EHR accompanies the component |
The EHR accompanies the component
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The first position of the EOC code is derived from what source?
• OPNAVINST 4790.2 • Local maintenance instruction • The Work Unit Code manual • MESM, OPNAVINST 5442.4 |
MESM, OPNAVINST 5442.4
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Explosive devices installed in personnel parachutes are recorded on what form or record?
• Inventory Record • Parachute Record • Installed Explosive Device Record |
Parachute Record
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Which of the following persons or offices has responsibility for ensuring validity of the Naval Flight Record Subsystem (NAVFLIRS)?
• Analyst • Maintenance control • Operations department • Each of the above (correct |
Each of the above
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Where is the hardback copy of the Parachute Record kept?
• In the aircraft where the parachute is Installed • In the logbook of the aircraft in which the parachute is installed • Maintenance Control • A permanent file designated by the AMO |
In the logbook of the aircraft in which the parachute is installed
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SCIR reports are generated from what codes on the VIDS/MAFs or in NALCOMIS?
• Type Equipment codes • Work Unit Codes • Equipment Operational Capability codes • Malfunction codes |
Equipment Operational Capability codes
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What record is used to record TD compliance on a quick engine change kit (QECK)?
• ASR • MSR • SRC • EHR |
EHR
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On a Scheduled Removal Component Card (SRC), in what section would you document the bureau number on which a component is installed?
• III • II • IV • I |
III
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Once the NAVFLIRS is signed certified for completeness by the aircraft commander, where does it go next?
• ECAMS operator for entry of ECAMS data • Maintenance control for screening and entry of pertinent aircraft information into logbooks • Operations for entry of flight information in aviators logbooks (correct answer) • Analyst for forwarding to the data services facility (DSF) |
Operations for entry of flight information in aviators logbooks
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Aircraft logbooks are normally kept in what location?
• In the operations office • In the maintenance control office • In the line shack • In the aircraft |
In the maintenance control office
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On the Aeronautical Equipment Service Record, oil analysis results are documented on what form or record?
• OPNAV 4790/136A • OPNAV 4790/25A • OPNAV 4790/24A • OPNAV 4790/27A |
OPNAV 4790/25A
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What activity generates the Structural Life Limits Form, OPNAV 4790/142, for the aircraft logbook?
• The functional wing • NADEP • NAVAIR • The squadron |
The squadron
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What record is used to record maintenance data for modules replaced by an intermediate maintenance activity?
• SRC • MSR • ASR • EHR |
SRC
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When an aircraft is delivered to the Navy, the Aircraft Logbook, OPNAV 4790/19, is initiated by what activity or office?
• Manufacturer • OPNAV • NADEP • Original accepting activity |
Original accepting activity
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Which of the following equipment does NOT require an AESR?
• Auxiliary power unit • Aircraft engine turbine assembly • Aircraft engine • Aircraft propeller |
Aircraft propeller
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What officer designates the maintenance of all original aviation life support systems (ALSS) records?
• MMCO • CO • AMO • XO |
AMO
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The Inspection Record is identified by what OPNAV number?
• OPNAV 4790/26B • OPNAV 4790/24A • OPNAV 4790/22A • OPNAV 4790/28A |
OPNAV 4790/22A
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In figure 7-7, what block is used to document remarks about a technical directive?
• 8 • 2 • 5 • 7 |
8
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Production control is directly responsible to what officer for the overall production effort?
• The aircraft maintenance officer • The assistant aircraft maintenance officer • The maintenance material control officer • The supply officer |
The maintenance material control officer
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What priority is assigned to the repair of critical local repair cycle assets (LRCAs)?
• Priority 3 • Priority 4 • Priority 2 • Priority 1 |
Priority 2
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What priority is assigned to the repair of non-critical local repair cycle assets?
• Priority 4 • Priority 1 • Priority 3 • Priority 2 |
Priority 3
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What priority is assigned to the repair or manufacture of material for non-fixed allowance stock?
• Priority 4 • Priority 1 • Priority 3 • Priority 2 |
Priority 3
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Priorities may be adjusted either higher or lower by IMA maintenance and supply officers to meet local support requirements.
• True • False |
True
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What priority is assigned to the repair of material for non-mission capable aircraft?
• Priority 1 • Priority 4 • Priority 3 • Priority 2 |
Priority 1
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Project codes are mandatory entries on all requisitions.
• True • False |
True
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When you order parts for a component inducted into an I-level work center, what work center assigns the Project/Priority code to your request?
• Production control • Aviation support division (ASD) • Aeronautical material screening unit (AMSU) • Component control section (CCS) |
Aviation support division (ASD)
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Priorities 2, 5, and 12 requisitions can be submitted by activities with what force activity designator (FAD)?
• FAD III • FAD IV • FAD II • FAD I |
FAD III
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What priority is assigned to the repair or manufacture of material that is nonaeronautical?
• Priority 3 • Priority 1 • Priority 2 • Priority 4 |
Priority 4
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What priority is assigned to the repair of salvaged material?
• Priority 4 • Priority 1 • Priority 2 • Priority 3 |
Priority 4
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At a minimum, how often should a joint awaiting parts validation be performed with the AWP unit in supply?
• Monthly • Weekly • Quarterly • Daily |
Weekly
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What priority is assigned to the repair of assets belonging to an activity within 30 days of deployment?
• Priority 3 • Priority 1 • Priority 2 • Priority 4 |
Priority 1
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Which of the following is NOT considered a responsibility of Production Control personnel?
• Maintain liaison with the supply department • Maintain VIDS display boards • Ensure maximum use of material Resources • Periodically accompany CDIs to observe their proficiency |
Periodically accompany CDIs to observe their proficiency
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