Aim (Aeronautical Information Manual)

Front 1

What are the altitude and range boundaries (Standard Service volume) for the three classes of VORs?

Back 1

AIM 1-1-1
T (terminal) 1,000 to 12,000 25 NM
L (Low Altitude) 1,000 to 18,000 AGL 40 NM
H (High Altitude) 1,000 to 14,500 AGL 40 NM
14,500 to 60,000 AGL 100 NM
18,000 to 45,000 AGL 130 NM

Front 2

What are the limits of localizer and glide slope coverage?

Back 2

AIM 1-1-9
Localizer: to 10 degrees either side of the course along a radius of 18 NM from the antenna; and from 10 to 35 degrees either side of the course along a radius of 10 NM.
Glide slope: The glide slope is normally usable to the distance of 10 NM.

Front 3

Lowest authorized ILS minimums, with all required ground and airborne systems components operative?

Back 3

AIM 1-1-9
ILS Category DH/DA RVR
Category I 200 Feet 2,400
(1,800 with TDZ & CL)
Category II 100 Feet 1,200
Category IIIa 100 Feet 700
Category IIIb 50 Feet 700 to 150
Category IIIc No Limitation

Front 4

How do you know if the DME part of a VOR is inoperative?

Back 4

AIM 1.1.7
The DME code is pulsed once about every 30 seconds and is modulated at a higher frequency.

Front 5

What cloud ceiling and visibility prompts ATC to issue control instructions to avoid interfering operations within ILS Critical Areas at controlled airports?

Back 5

AIM 1-1-9
When the weather conditions are less than 800 feet ceiling and/or visibility 2 miles.

Front 6

What is the GPS CDI sensitivity for Enroute, Terminal and Approach operations?

Back 6

AIM 1-1-19
Enroute: +/- 5 NM
Terminal: +/- 1 NM
Approach: +/- .3 NM

Front 7

What does an airport rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicate?

Back 7

AIM 2-1-8
In class B, C, D or E airspace, operations of the airport beacon during daylight often indicates that weather is below basic VFR weather minimums, (ground visibility less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet).

Front 8

Define and describe HIRL.

Back 8

AIM 2-1.4
High Intensity Runway Lights
HIRLs are one of the runway edge light systems, and are white, except on instrument runways yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings. Includes green and red threshold lights on the arrival/departure ends of the runway.

Front 9

Define and describe TDZL.

Back 9

AIM 2-1.5
Touchdown Zone Lighting
TDZL consists of two rows of transverse white light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline in the runway touchdown zone. The system starts 100 feet from the landing threshold and extends to 3,000 feet from the threshold or the midpoint of the runway, whichever is the lesser.

Front 10

Define and describe the following:
FCLS
RAIL
REIL

Back 10

AIM 2-1-3, 2-1-5, P/C glossary
RCLS: Runway centerline Lighting system on some precision approach runways
RAIL: Runway alignment Indicator Lights or sequenced flashing lights.
REIL: Runway end Identifier Lights: Two synchronized flashing lights at runway threshold.

Front 11

Describe the operation of Pilot controlled Lighting.

Back 11

AIM 2-1-7
any combination of airport lighting such as approach, runway, or taxiway lights that is radio controlled by the pilot; thus, PCL. The systems responds to a series of 7, 5, or 3 microphone clicks on the CTAF or Unicom Frequency within a 5 second period to illuminate the airport lights. The lights remain on for 15 minutes. 7 clicks = high intensity.

Front 12

describe the safe obstruction clearance provided by a VASI.

Back 12

AIM 2-1-2
the visual glide path of the VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within +/- 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline and to 4 NM from the runway threshold.

Front 13

Describe the difference in operations between a two-bar and three-bar VASI.

Back 13

AIM 2-1-2
Two-bar VASI installations provide one visual glide path normally set at 3 degrees. Three-bar VASI installations provide two visual glide paths. The middle and upper is normally 1/4 degree higher but still normally set at 3 degrees for high cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold crossing height.

Front 14

Describe the runway centerline lights on a precision approach runway.

Back 14

AIM 2-1-5
Runway centerline lights are located along the runway centerline and are spaced at 50 foot intervals. When viewed from the landing threshold, the runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000 feet of the runway. The white lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2,000 feet, and for the last 1,000 feet of the runway, are red.

Front 15

What do runway hold position markings on the taxiway indicate?

Back 15

AIM 2-3-5
Runway holding position markings on taxiways identify the locations on a taxiway where an aircraft is to stop when it does not have clearance to proceed onto the runway.

Front 16

Describe how a runway holding position marking is painted on the airport surface.

Back 16

AIM 2-3-5
Runway holding position markings consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, spaced six inches apart and extending across the width of the taxiway or runway. The solid lines are always on the side where the aircraft is to hold.

Front 17

Describe an enhanced taxiway centerline marking.

Back 17

AIM 2-3-4
the enhanced taxiway centerline marking consists of a parallel line of yellow dashes on either side of the normal taxiway centerline. The taxiway centerlines are enhanced for a maximum of 150 feet prior to a runway holding position marking.

Front 18

What are the basic VFR weather minimums in Class B airspace?

Back 18

AIM 3-1-4, FAR 91.155
3 Statue miles visibility and clear of clouds.

Front 19

What are the basic VFR weather minimums in Class G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL. but more than 1,200 feet above the surface, in both daytime and nighttime conditions?

Back 19

AIM 3-1-4, FAR 91.155
Daytime: 1 statute mile flight visibility, with distance from clouds of 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
Nighttime: 3 stature miles flight visibility, with distance from clouds of 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

Front 20

Define and describe class B airspace.

Back 20

AIM 3-2-3
Generally the airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nations busiest airports. The configuration is tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers and is designed to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace. ATC clearance is required.

Front 21

Describe the operation rules for pilots and equipment required for VFR operations in Class B airspace.

Back 21

AIM 3-2-3, FAR 91.117, 91.131
Aircraft must be equipped with a two way radio, a VOR or TACAN receiver (for IFR operations), a transponder with Mode C.
Pilots must have a private pilot certificate, except students or recreational pilots meet requirements of FAR 61.95.
Maximum speed is 250 KIAS when below 10,000 feet MSL and 200 KIAS when below the lateral confines of the class B boundaries.

Front 22

Define and describe Class C airspace.

Back 22

AIM 3-2-4
Airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. class c airspace usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends up to 4,000 feet above the airport, and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport.

Front 23

Describe the operating rules for pilots and equipment required for VFR operations in Class C airspace.

Back 23

AIM 3-2-4, FAR 91.117, 91.130
Aircraft must be equipped with a two way radio and a transponder with mode C.
Pilots have no specific certification requirements.
Maximum speed is 200 KIAS when below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 NM of the primary airport within the Class C boundaries.

Front 24

Define and describe Class D airspace.

Back 24

AIM 3-2-5
The airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports with a operational control tower. When instrument procedures are published, the airspace will normally be designed to contain the procedures. Arrival extensions for instrument approach procedures may be Class D (extensions of 2 miles or less) or class E (extensions greater than 2 miles) airspace.

Front 25

Describe the operating rules for pilots and equipment required for VFR operations in Class D airspace.

Back 25

AIM 3-2=5, FAR 91.117, 91.129
aircraft must be equipped with a two way radio.
Piots have no specific certification requirements.
Maximum speed is 200 KIAS when below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 NM of the primary airport within the Class D boundaries.

Front 26

What is a restricted Area? What actions are required if flying IFR through an active restricted area?

Back 26

AIM 3-4-3
Restricted areas contain airspace identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. The ATC facility will issue a clearance, which will ensure the aircraft avoids the restricted airspace unless it is on an approved altitude reservation mission or has obtained its own permission to operate in the airspace and so informs the controlling facility.

Front 27

Describe when Mode C transponder is required.

Back 27

AIM 4-1-19, FAR 91.215
Mode C is required when:
1. At or above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding below 2,500 feet AGL.
2. Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport and below 10,000 feet MSL.
3. within and above all Class C airspace up to 10,000 feet MSL.
4. within 10 miles of certain designated airports.

Front 28

Describe the pilot procedures to enter Class D airspace and land at the airport without an operable transmitter or receiver.

Back 28

AIM 4-2-13
Remain outside or above the Class D surface area until the direction and flow of traffic has been determined; then, join the airport traffic pattern and maintain visual contact with the tower to receive light signals. During daylight, acknowledge light signals by rocking your wings. At night, blink the landing light or navigation lights.

Front 29

What dose it mean to hear on ATIS the statement, "Braking action advisories are in effect"?

Back 29

AIM 4-3-8
the statement is broadcast on ATIS when tower controllers have received runway braking action reports which include the terms poor or nil, or whenever weather conditions are conducive to deteriorating or rapidly changing runway braking conditions.

Front 30

What is the minimum weather required to receive a LAHSO (Land and Hold short Operations) clearance?

Back 30

AIM 4-3-11
1,000 foot ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility

Front 31

When given a clearance to taxi to a runway, what runways or taxiways may be crossed?

Back 31

AIM 4-3-18
The absence of holding instructions authorizes the aircraft to "cross" all runways that the taxi route intersects except the assigned takeoff runway. It does not include authorization to "taxi onto" or "cross" the assigned takeoff runway at any point. ATC will not use the word "cleared" in conjunction with authorization for aircraft to taxi.

Front 32

Define and describe the operation of SMGCS and its components.

Back 32

AIM 2-19, 2-3-4, 4-3-19, AC 120-57
Surface Movement Guidance and Control System.
The FAA has developed a system of special lighting, marking, and procedures activated when the visibility is less than 1,200 RVR. special Low Visibility Taxi Route charts are issued with specific airport information pages.
The components are taxiway centerline and edge lights, stop bars, runway guard lights, taxiway clearance markings/bars, geographic position marks, along with standard taxi guidance signs and markings.

Front 33

At airports with SMGCS operations, at what visibility will the SMGCS procedures become effective?

Back 33

AIM 4-3-19
Less than 1,200 feet RVR
SMGCS will be addressed at two levels; operations less than 1,200 feet RVR to 600 RVR and operations less than 600 feet RVR.

Front 34

What is required of a pilot when operating VFR-ON-TOP on an IFR flight plan?

Back 34

AM 4-4-7
The pilot must:
1. Fly appropriate VFR altitudes
2. comply with VFR visibility and distance from clouds
3. comply with IFR rules regarding course, communications, etc.

Front 35

What climb or descent rate should an IFR pilot use when changing altitudes?

Back 35

AIM 4-4-9
descend or climb at an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft to 1,000 feet above or below the assigned altitude, and then attempt to descend or climb at a rate of between 500 and 1,500 fpm until the assigned altitude is reached.
If at anytime the pilot is unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet a minute, advise ATC.

Front 36

What guidelines will ATC follow when requesting speed adjustments?

Back 36

AIM 4-4-11
Aircraft between FL280 and 10,000 MSL, a speed not less than 250 Knots or equivalent Mach.
turbine aircraft below 10,000 MSL, a speed not less than 210 knots, except when within 20 miles of landing airport, not less than 170 knots.
reciprocating engine/turboprop aircraft within 20 miles of landing airport, not less than 150 knots.
Departing aircraft: turbine aircraft, not less than 230 knots; reciprocating engine aircraft, not less than 150 knots.

Front 37

What are the different types of NOTAMs?

Back 37

AIM 5-1-3
(L) Local: local distribution only (runway closures, etc.)
(D) distant: national distribution of items that could affect your decision to fly (NAVAID outage, etc.)
(FDC) flight Data Center: regulatory in nature (approach chart revisions, TFRs, etc.)

Front 38

What is a clearance void time? What is a release time?

Back 38

AIM 5-2-5
Issued to pilots departing from non-towered airports. Indicates the pilot must be airborne by a specified time or clearance is void. Pilot must notify ATC if not airborne by 30 minutes past the void time.
A "release time" is a departure restriction specifying the earliest time an aircraft may depart. ATC will use "release times" in conjunction with traffic management procedures and/or to separate a departing aircraft from other traffic.

Front 39

What is and Expected Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)?

Back 39

AIM 5-2-5
the EDCT is the runway release time assigned to an aircraft included in traffic management programs. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier than 5 minutes before, and no later than 5 minutes after the EDCT.

Front 40

What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departures?

Back 40

AIM 5-2-6
Unless specified otherwise, required obstacle clearance is based on the pilot crossing the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet, climbing to 400 feet above the departure end of runway elevation before making the initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 feet per nautical mile.

Front 41

List the times that reports should be made to ATC without a specific request.

Back 41

AIM 5-3-3
1. Vacating assigned altitude for new altitude
2. With an altitude change while VFR ON TOP
3. Unable to maintain 500 fpm climb or descent
4. Missed approach
5 Change TAS of 5%/10 knots or ETA +/- 3 minutes
6. Upon reaching or leaving holding fix
7. complete or partial NAV/COMM loss
8 safety of flight including unforecast or hazardous weather

Front 42

What is the width of a Victor Airway?

Back 42

AIM 5-3-5, TERPs # 1711
8 nautical miles, or 4 nautical miles each side of centerline.
If the distance from the facility to the changeover point is more than 51 MN, the outer boundary of the primary area extends beyond the 4 NM width along the 4.5 degree line.

Front 43

After receiving an amended clearance with a clearance limit, how soon prior to the limit fix should a pilot start to slow down and expect to receive a clearance beyond the clearance limit?

Back 43

AIM 5-3-7
When no delay is expected, the controller should issue a clearance beyond the fix as soon as possible and, whenever possible, at least 5 minutes before the aircraft reaches the clearance imit. When 3 minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been received, start a speed reduction so the aircraft will cross the fix, initially, at or below the maximum holding speed.

Front 44

What are the maximum holding airspeeds and timing for the inbound leg?

Back 44

AIM 5-3-7
Maximum timing for the inbound leg is 1 minute at 14,000 feet and below, 1 1/2 minutes above 14,000 feet MSL. Maximum holding airspeeds are:
Altitude Airspeed
MHA-6,000 200 KIAS
6,001 - 14,000 230 KIAS
Above 14,000 265 KIAS

Front 45

Describe the AIM exceptions to the maximum holding airspeeds.

Back 45

AIM 5-3-7
1. From 6,001 - 14,000 feet may be restricted to a maximum of 210 KIAS*
2. All altitudes may be restricted to a maximum of 175 KIAS (Category A and B aircraft)*
3. Published climb in hold: 310 KIAS
*Note: will be depicted with an icon.

Front 46

What is the maximum bank angle to be used during entry and while holding?

Back 46

AIM 5-3-7
Use whichever requires the least bank angle of the following:
- 3 degrees per second (standard rate turn)
- 30 degrees bank angle, or
- 25 degrees bank if a flight director is used
Compensate for wind drift correction on the inbound and outbound legs. When outbound, triple the inbound drift to avoid major turning adjustments.

Front 47

What are the three recommended entry procedures for holding?

Back 47

- Parallel
-Teardrop (offset maximum of 30 degrees)
- Direct
while other entry procedures may enable the aircraft to enter the holding pattern and remain within protected airspace, the parallel, teardrop, and direct entries are recommended by the FAA.

Front 48

In order to descend to comply with the "expected" altitudes and speeds of a STAR or FMSP (flight management system procedure), what specific clearance must be issued?

Back 48

AIM 5-4-1
Pilots navigating on a TAR/FMSP shall maintain last assigned altitude until receiving authorization to descend so as to comply with all published or issued restrictions. This authorization will contain the phraseology "Descend via ....."

Front 49

Describe the obstruction clearance and parameters for a published MSA (Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude) on an instrument approach procedure chart.

Back 49

AIM 5-4-5
MSAs are expressed in feet above MSL and normally have a 25 NM radius; however, this radius may be expanded to 30 NM if necessary to encompass the airport landing surfaces. MSAs provide 1,000 feet clearance over all obstructions but do not necessarily assure acceptable navigation signal coverage.

Front 50

Describe the obstruction clearance and parameters for a MVA (Minimum Vectoring Altitude).

Back 50

AIM 5-4-5
Established for use by ATC when radar ATC is exercised at locations where there are numerous different minimum IFR altitudes. Each sector boundary is at least 3 miles from the obstruction determining the MVA. It provides 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle in nonmountainous areas and 2,000 feet in mountainous areas. It also provides at least 300 feet above the floor of controlled airspace.

Front 51

Describe a VDP (Visual Descent Point) on a nonprecision approach procedure.

Back 51

AIM 5-4-5
The VDP is a defined point on the final approach course of a nonprecision approach from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may e commenced. It will normally be identified by DME on a VOR and LOC approach and by along track distance to the next waypoint for RNAV procedures. It will be identified by the symbol V on the profile view of the approach.

Front 52

During a nonprecision approach when established at the MDA, may a pilot descend from the MDA prior to reaching the published VDP, if the approach lights or runway environment is in sight?

Back 52

AIM 5-4-5, FAR 121.651 (c)
The pilot should not descend below the MDA prior to reaching the VDP and acquiring the necessary visual references. However, in the FARs there is implied approval to descend prior to the VDP if the descent from the MDA "to the runway cannot be made using normal procedures or rates of descent if descent is delayed until reaching that point."

Front 53

Define and describe a TAA (Terminal Arrival Area).

Back 53

AIM 5-4-5
The TAA, when published on a RNAV approach procedure, replaces the MSA. It consists of three areas defined by the extension of the IAF legs and the intermediate segment course. Minimum altitudes within each TAA provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance, more as necessary in mountainous areas. Pilots entering the TAA, and cleared by ATC, are expected to proceed directly to the IAF associated with the TAA at the altitudes depicted.

Front 54

What is a VDA (Vertical Descent Angle) on a nonprecision approach?

Back 54

AIM 5-4-5
The VDA describes a computed path from the FAF and altitude to the runway threshold at the published TCH. The optimum descent angle is 3.00 degrees; whenever possible that approach is designed to accommodate that angle.
the FAA intends to eventually publish VDAs on all nonprecision approaches.
the published angle is for information only and is strictly advisory in nature.

Front 55

When is a procedure turn not required?

Back 55

AIM 5-4-7, 5-4-9
The procedure turn is not required:
1. When the symbol NoPT is shown
2. When radar vectoring to final
3. When conducting a timed approach
4. when the procedure turn is not authorized, or absence of a procedure turn barb
the hold in lieu of procedure turn is not required:
1. when radar vectoring to final
2. When the symbol NoPT is shown

Front 56

When must the procedure turn be flown as depicted?

Back 56

AIM 5-4-9
when the procedure turn is specified as a procedural track or teardrop procedure turn.
when a holding pattern replaces a procedure turn, the holding pattern must be followed, except when radar vectoring to final or the NoPT is shown.

Front 57

While being vectored to the final approach course of an instrument approach procedure, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?

Back 57

AIM 5-4-7
when operating on an unpublished route or while being radar vectored, the pilot shall maintain the last assigned altitude unless a different altitude is assigned by ATC, or until the aircraft is established on a segment of a published route or IAP.

Front 58

When the instrument approach procedure involves a procedure turn, what is the maximum speed to be flown?

Back 58

AIM 5-4-9
A maximum speed of not greater than 200 knots (IAS) should be observed from first overheading the course reversal IAF through the procedure turn maneuver to ensure containment within the obstruction clearance area.

Front 59

When given clearance for an approach and landing on an adjacent runway (side-step), when is the pilot expected to commence the side-step maneuver?

Back 59

AIM 5-4-19
Pilots are expected to commence the side-step maneuver as soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
Pilots will receive clearance for the side-step maneuver with the initial approach clearance.

Front 60

What are the circling approach radii from the ends of the runways for obstacle clearance during a circling approach?

Back 60

AIM 5-4-20
Approach Category Radius (NM)
A 1.3
B 1.5
C 1.7
D 2.3
E 4.5

Front 61

What instrument approach procedure criteria will not allow straight-in minima to be published?

Back 61

AIM 5-4-20
When either the normal rate of descent or the runway alignment factor of 30 degrees (15 degrees for GPS IAPs) is exceeded, a straight-in minimum is not published and a circling minimum applies.
The fact that a straight-in minimum is not published does not preclude pilots from landing straight-in if they have the active runway in sight and have sufficient time to make a normal approach and landing.

Front 62

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action should the pilot take?

Back 62

AIM 5-4-21
Make an initial climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach for the original instrument approach procedure flown.
Adherence to the missed approach procedure will assure that an aircraft will remain within the circling and missed approach obstruction clearance areas.

Front 63

What are the criteria for a visual approach?

Back 63

AIM 5-4-22
- Must be on an IFR flight plan and in visual conditions
- Must have airport or preceding aircraft in sight
- Ceiling must be at or above 1,000 ft. fisibility at or above 3 miles
- Is not an IAP, therefore has no missed approach segment

Front 64

What are the pilot responsibilities when accepting clearance for a visual approach?

Back 64

AIM 5-4-22
to have airport or the preceding aircraft in sight.
If the pilot has the airport in sight but cannot see the aircraft to be followed, ATC may clear the aircraft for a visual approach and maintains responsibility for separation and wake turbulence.
When visually following a preceding aircraft, with acceptance of the visual approach clearance, the pilot maintains responsibility for maintaining a safe approach interval and wake turbulence separation.

Front 65

When may ATC controllers authorize a contact approach?

Back 65

AIM 5-4-24
Controllers may authorize a contact approach when:
1. Requested by the pilot
2. Ground visibility is reported at least 1 SM
3. The contact approach will be made to an airport having an instrument approach procedure
4. approved separation is applied between aircraft so cleared and between these aircraft and other IFR or SVFR aircraft.

Front 66

WHat is the meaning of a signal given by an aircraft that has intercepted another aircraft during the daytime when the intercepting aircraft rocks its wings from a position slightly above and ahead of, and to the left of, the intercepted aircraft and after acknowledgement, a slow level turn to the left?

Back 66

AIM 5-6-4
The signal means "Follow me"

Front 67

What constitutes a Designated Mountainous Area?

Back 67

AIM Figure 5-6-2, FAR 95
The AIM figure illustrates that the majority of the conterminous United States west of the Rockies plus a section of the Appalachian mountain area is recognized as designated mountainous area.

Front 68

What are the special transponder codes for an emergency, hijacking, and radio failure?

Back 68

AIM 6-2-2, 6-3-4, 6-4-2
Distress or urgency: 7700
Hijacking (air piracy): 7500
Radio Failure: 7600

Front 69

What is the difference between a MAYDAY and a PAN-PAN transmission?

Back 69

AIM 6-3-1
Distress communications have absolute priority over all other communications, and the word MAYDAY commands radio silence on the frequency in use.
Urgency communications have priority over all other communications except distress, and the word PAN-PAN warns other stations not to interfere with urgency transmissions.

Front 70

What route should be flown in the event of lost communications when in IFR conditions?

Back 70

AIM 6-4-1, FAR 91.185
1. Last assigned route
2. If being vectored, direct to fix specified
3. Expected route
4. filed flight plan route

Front 71

What altitude should be maintained in the event of lost communications when in IFR conditions?

Back 71

AIM 6-4-1, FAR 91.185
At the highest of the following for the route segment flown:
1. Last assigned altitude
2. The MEA
3. expected altitude

Front 72

List the types of AIRMETs?

Back 72

AIM 7-1-6
Sierra: describes IFR or extensive mountain obscuration
Tango: describes moderate turbulence, wind of 300 kts or more, nonconvective LLWS
Zulu: describes moderate icing with freezing level heights

Front 73

Under what condition does an aircraft produce the strongest wake vortices?

Back 73

AIM 7-3-3
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is Heavy, Clean, and Slow

Front 74

What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?

Back 74

AIM 7-3-4
a crosswind will decrease the lateral movement of the upwind vortex and increase the movement of the downwind vortex. Thus, a light wind with a cross runway component of 1 to 5 knots could result in the upwind vortex remaining in the touchdown zone for a period of time and hasten the drift of the downwind vortex toward another runway.

Front 75

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?

Back 75

AIM 7-3-4
The light, quartering tailwind requires maximum caution because a tailwind condition can move the vortices of the preceding aircraft forward into the touchdown zone.

Front 76

List some common vortex avoidance procedures.

Back 76

AIM 7-3-6
1. Landing behind a larger aircraft: stay at or above flight path, land beyond its touchdown.
2. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft: land well prior to its rotation point.
3. departing behind a larger aircraft: rotate prior to its rotation point and stay above its flight path, upwind if possible.
4. Takeoff or landing after a larger aircraft executing a missed approach: delay takeoff for 2 minutes.

Front 77

For the purposes of wake turbulence separation minima, define the ATC aircraft classes.

Back 77

AIM P/C Glossary
Class Max Certified TOW
Heavy > 255,000 pounds
Large > 41,000 to 255,000 pounds
Small < 41,000 pounds

Front 78

What wake turbulence separation is required for small aircraft following bigger airplanes on Landing approach?

Back 78

AIM 7-3-9
Landing behind----> Large B757 Heavy
Small 4 NM 5 NM 6 NM
Large 4 NM 4 NM 5 NM
Heavy 4 NM 4 NM 4 NM

Front 79

What wake turbulence separation is required for aircraft following bigger airplanes on takeoff?

Back 79

AIM 7-3-9
2 minutes (4 to 5 miles radar separation) for all aircraft departing behind heavy/B757 from same threshold, crossing or parallel runways.
3 minutes for small aircraft departing from intersection behind large aircraft, or opposite direction large aircraft on takeoff or go-around.
3 minutes for all aircraft departing from intersection on same or parallel runway behind heavy/B757, or opposite direction of heavy/B757 on takeoff.

Front 80

Explain the criteria that defines a Near Mid Air Collision (NMAC) for the purposes of reporting to the FAA.

Back 80

AIM 7-6-3
A near midair collision is defined as an incident associated with the operation of an aircraft in which a possibility of collision occurs as a result of proximity of less than 500 feet to another aircraft, or a report is received from a pilot or a flight crewmember stating that a collision hazard existed between two or more aircraft.

Front 81

Define hypoxia.

Back 81

AIM 8-1-2
Aypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of the brain and other organs. hypoxia from exposure to altitude is due only to the reduced barometric pressures encountered at altitude, for the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere remains about 21 percent from the ground out to space.

Front 82

How should a pilot overcome the symptoms of avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation?

Back 82

AIM 8-1-3
Hyperventilation symptoms subside after the rate and depth of breathing are consciously brought under control.
the buildup of carbon dioxide in the body can be hastened by controlled breathing in and out of a paper bag held over the nose and mouth.
Talking aloud often helps, while normally-paced breathing at all times prevents hyperventilation.

Front 83

During landing, what illusions may be experienced with rain on the windshield or when penetrating a fog layer prior to touchdown?

Back 83

AIM 8-1-5
Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height. The pilot who does to recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach
Penetration of fog can create the illusion of pitching up. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will steepen the approach, often quite abruptly.

Front 84

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

Back 84

AIM 8-1-5
Atmospheric haze can create the illusion of being at a greater distance from objects on the ground and in the air.

Front 85

Define aircraft approach category.

Back 85

AIM P/C Glossary
Based on a 1.3 Vso. Aircraft fit in only one category. If necessary to maneuver in excess of the upper limit, the next higher category applies.
Category A: < 91 knots
Category B: 91 knots > 121 knots
Category C: 121 knots > 141 knots
Category D: 141 knots > 166 knots
Category E: 166 knots or more.

Front 86

What is meant by the ATC term "expedite"?

Example: expedite your climb through 8,000 feet, climb and maintain 10,000 feet.

Back 86

AIM P/C Glossary
Used by ATC when prompt compliance is required to avoid the development of an imminent situation. Expedite climb/descent normally indicates to a pilot that the approximate best rate of climb/descent should be used without requiring an exceptional change in aircraft handling characteristics.

Front 87

After landing and exiting the runway, how do you know when you are clear of the runway?

Back 87

AIM 2-3-5, P/C Glossary
An aircraft exiting the runway is not clear of the runway until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the applicable holding position markings.

Front 88

What does the term "fuel remaining" mean to ATC?

Back 88

AIM P/C Glossary
A phrase used by either pilots or controllers when relating to the fuel remaining on board until actual fuel exhaustion. Pilots will state the approximate number in minutes the flight can continue with the fuel remaining, to include reserve fuel.

Front 89

What is meant by the term "minimum fuel" to ATC?

Back 89

AIM 5-5-15, P/C Glossary
An aircraft's fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching the destination, it can accept little or no delay. It's not an emergency but indicates an emergency is possible should any undue delay occur.
A minimum fuel advisory does not imply a need for traffic priority. If the remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency and report fuel remaining in minutes.

Front 90

What defines the final approach segment (FAS)?

Back 90

AIM P/C Glossary
ILS: FAS begins at glide slope intercept point.
When ATC directs a lower than published GSIA, it is the actual point of glide slope intercept.
Nonprecision approach: FAS begins at Maltese cross. With no depicted FAF (on-airport VOR), it begins inbound on final with final descent.
for a teardrop procedure with no depicted FAF, the FAS begins 10 miles from the on-airport navaid.

Front 91

What is an OROCA?

Back 91

AIM P/C glossary
an off route altitude which provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 foot buffer in nonmountainous terrain areas, and a 2,000 foot buffer in designated mountainous areas within the US this altitude may not provide signal coverage from ground based navigational aids, air traffic control radar, or communications coverage.
Note: OROCA is used in a similar manner as the Jeppesen Grid Mora.