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489 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
What unit of measurement is common to both english and metric system of measurement?
Time
What is the metric unit for length?
Meter
To convert from meters to millemeters you should move the decimal point
right, six places
the quantity of matter a body contains is measured by its
mass
A standard mass when used as a checking device for balancing a scale serves as an accurate untie of measure at any position on earth due to
The acceleration of the standard mass due to gravity remains the same at any altitudeon the earthds surface
The knot is a derived unit that combines the unit of distance witht he unit of
time
the term velocity may be used in place of speed only if what condition is met?
The motion of the body is in a straight path in a given direction
What is the mechanical equivalent of 10 Btu of heat endergy
7779 foot-punds
All units of power involve
Force, distance, time
fahrenheit to celsius?
Celcius to fahrentheit
5/9(f-32)
9/5(c)+32
Kelvin
equal the absolute zero point at -273 degrees C
Rankine
indicates absolute zero at -460 degrees F
Water is nto suitable for use in most thermometers because
Its freezing point is too high
The zero point on the thermometer coincides with the temperature of
melting ice
The bloiling point on a celcius thermometer indicates the temperature of
Water just as it begins to boil
he resistance element used in the construction of resistance thermometers if normally made of what type of wire
Platinum
What temperature measuring device produces an electromotive force?
A thermocouple
What describes the humans ear reaction to sound?
it responds to sound on a logarithmic scale
What is the minimum change in sound level that the human ear can detect?
1.0 decibel
The phenomena associated with the atom are due to the presence of which of the following groups of principle subatomic particles?
Electron, proton, neutron
The mass and consequently the weight of an atom is contained almost entirely in what part of the atom?
Nucleus
Which of the following statements best decribes a compound?
It is a chemical combination of two or more elements
When an atom of one element has been changed into an atom of another element it has undergone what process?
Transmutation
Under some conditions, what element contains a neutron but under other conditions does not conatin a neutron?
Hydrogen
The atomic weight of an atom is indicated byt the total numbers of what two particles?
Protons and neutrons
An atom of an element has a different number of neutrons from another atom of the same element and a different atomic weight. This elelment is known as
An isotope
In matter the relative sizes of the particles have which of the following relationships?
The molecule is the smallest unit of a compound, and the atom is the smallest unit of an element
What describes an ion?
An atom that has gained or lost an electron
Under what condition does an atom become a negative ion?
When it gains an electron in it outer shell
Absolute zero
The temperature at which it is beleived that all molecular activities in substance ceases
Boyles law
For a constant temperature the product of the volume and pressure of an enclosed gas remains constant
p1v1=p2v2
charles law
gases expand and contract in direct proportion tot he change in absolute temperature provided pressure is constant
general gas law
p1v1/t1=p2v2/t2
the energy developed in an aircraft engine is determined by what fuel characteristic
mass
reluctance of a body to change its speed, direction or resting position is known as?
inertia
what is the quantative measure of inertia
mass of the body
the space through which an action at distance force is effective is known as
a force field
description of force is complete when which factors are given?
Direction, magnitude and point of applicationg
the force of attraction exerted by the earth on a body is known as
gravity
The weight of a body at any altitude is determined by
the force on the body exerted by gravity at that altitude
specific gravity
dividing the weight of the substance by the weight of an equal volume of water
acceleration
change in a bodys speed or direction
Force
F=ma
A force applied tot he center of gravity of a body and causes the body to accelerate but not to rotate
translational force
1 horsepower
33000 foot-pounds a minute, 550 fot-pounds per second, 746 watts
Centripetal and centrifugal are terms used to define equal and opposite forces in relation to
revolving bodies
during the time a ball is in a circular path, which force prevents the ball from traveling in a linear path?
centrifugal
kinetic energy
k=1/2mvsquared
centripetal
restraining force that prevent an object from travelling in a straight lien
what is the principal difference betweenr adio waves, heat and light
frequency
what describes the transefer of heat by convection
movement of a hot fluid
what heat tranfer processes are used to cool an object by using surrounding fins
conduction and convection
the heat energy transfer that occurs in the form of electromagnetic waves, which is almost identical to the same action in the transfer is known as
radiation
radiant heat acts in which of the following ways?
moves at the speed of light, travels in a straight line, passes through a median without heating hit
conduction
heat transferred by molecular collision
absorbtion
motion of the medium occuring without mechanical motion being applied
radiation
heat transference closely resembling radio wave propagation
what temperature measuring device uses the difference in coefficients of expansion of dissimilar metals?
thermocouple
the footcandle is used to express the intensity of illumination in the english system. What is it in the metric system?
lumens
what type of simple lense is thicker in the center than at its edges?
a positiv eor convergent lense
in a given medium the color of the light wave is determined by
frequency
aircraft anticollision light?
aircraft engines operating
when fighting an electrical fire
use carbon dioxide
what alloy is used to make msot non-magnetic tools?
berryllium copper
at the local level you may insulate tools for what type of circuit?
low-voltage
the color for safety ground wire is
green
which metersshoudl you use when troubleshooting an open circuit?
ohmmeter
an ammeter is connected into a circuit in what way?
in series with the cicuit
when a multimeter is not being used the selector switch should be in which position
high dc volts
for precise resistance measurements you should use which of the following instruments?
wheatstone bridge
what meters are contained in a multimeter?
ohmmeter,ammeter and voltemeter
a permanent magnet, moving coil meter mechanism can be adapted to measuring alternation current and voltage if used with what?
a rectifier
To test insulation for high resistance, ground and leakage what meter should you use
megger
a megger is prevented rom exceeding its rated output voltage by action of a
voltage regulator
what term is used to define abnormal resistance or impedance that interferes with normal signal flow?
discontinuity
what instrument should you use to roubleshoot fuel quantity coaxal cables?
time-domain reflector
the output of the phase in a phase angle voltemeter is porportional to the signal amplitude multiplied by which of the following angle of phase difference?
Cosine
maximum deflection of the phase-angle voltmeter occurs when what relationships exist between the two signals?
0 or 180 degrees
what type of voltmeter is a precision voltmeter that compares an unknown voltage with an internal reference voltage?
differential voltmeter
aluminum has the tendency to flow away from the point where pressure is applied. this tendency is known as
creep
when stamping wires or cables the distance between the markings should not exceed
15 inches
which of the following letters is not used to identify a wire segment?
o
when used on aircraft electrical wiring the recommended power rating range for general use soldering irons is
60-200 watts
what is the reason for moistureproofing solder type electrical connectors?
to reinforce the connector
the preferred method for attatching cable terminals to terminal blocks require?
an anchor nut and a flat washer
shielded conduit should be supported by the use of what clamp?
bonded
when long runs of cable between panels needs to be supported what clamp do you use?
strap
in addition to supporting and protecting electrical wires, what other advantage does conduit offer?
it provides radio shielding
what type of wire should you use to secure an oxygen regulator
seal wire
a primary objective of bonding is to provide an electrical path of
high dc resistance and low rf impedence
when using methly chloroform to clean, remove
5 minutes
when a generator is not delivering its rated voltage or current you should check which of the following circuits?
control, feeder, regulator
what color paint is normally used for line test equipment?
yellow
the ma-2 stand is not used to test and check
reverse current relay operation
when using the huntron tracker 1000
all power must be off, signal fuse must be installed,the test leads attached to device under test
the huntron tracker 2000 quadrant 3 shows
negative current and negative voltage
when using the huntron tracker you should begin testing in what range?
medium
when using the Huntron Tracker you should use the low range for what reason
defects will show easier and the internal 54 ohm impedance makes it less likely that parts in parallel with the device under test will load the tester
in the SND mode of the automatic transistor analyzer model 900 a good device is indicated by the sonalert when it beeps in what way?
out of phase with the amber light
when using the automatic transistor analyzer model 900 to test a transistor you can test it in a) how many way b) ways that are correct
a)six b) two
you should use the jet ignition system tester to check the input/output of which components?
spark plug, power output and input of the ignition unit
the ttu-27e tachometer indicator test set can test
two and four pole tach generators for speed output voltage under load, tachometer indicator calibration accuracy, tachometer indicator voltage
after the tachometer generator to be tested is mounted on the tester. what component will control the speed at which it will be driven?
a variable dc drive motor in the test set
when performing functional ground test of the EGT system, heat for the thermocouples is provided by
heater probes
an external ac power supply is required to supply electrical power to a jetcal analyzer that is being used to make
checks for egt indicators
what pulses are generated by the synchrophaser test set?
slave and master pulses
the gain test readout from the synchrophaser test set is provided by what front panel component
the calibrated potentiometer
what test set provides regulated pitot and static pressure for evaluating the performance of air data systems, aircraft pneumatic instruments and other auxilallary equipment
ttu-205c/e
when using the an/fsm-17a to dynamically test the transmitter of the angle of attack system what energy is fed to the transmitter probe?
vacuum or air pressure
the basic configuration of a VAST station consists of section
a computer subsystem, a dtu, a stimulus and measurement
what component of the vast station serves to synchronize instructions between computer and functional blocks?
dtu
what are the three levels of fault detection used in the VAST
self-test, autocheck and self check
what test should you run on a vast station before you apply power to a UUT
continuity test
programmed halts are used during VAST testing to permit the operator to manually intervene in order to perform
observations an adjustments
what is the lowest voltage that will destroy or damage an esd-sensitive device?
20 volts
what is the minimum resistance for personal ground straps?
250,000 ohms
aircraft with ac primary systems
obtain ac power from transformer rectifier units
the frequency of an ac generator is determined by
the number of magnetic poles and rotor RPM
what are advantages of an ac over a dc system
lighter, current is transmitted at a lower lever, smaller wiring is used
what is not considered uncommon to all ac generators
the output is taken from stationary armature windings
the power generated by a 120/208 voltac generator is normally distributed by what type of system?
a three-wire, wye connected system
what will supply 208 volts ac to aircraft
c to ground
what is the advantage ofa brushless aircraft generator?
it has a longer overhaul period and is more reliable
what device provides the driving force for a generator
the prime mover
in comparison to a three wire inverter power system,a four-wire 120 volt three phase 4000 hz power system provides for
improved load balancing per phase
what is the purpose of the series starting winding in some inverters
to provide higher starting torque
what determines the number of phases in the output of an inverter?
the sets of windings on the stator
the output voltage of the inverter is ,maintained at the correct level by controlling the
dc excitation current in the rotor field of the generator
what determines the current capabilities of a tranformer rectifier?
the cooling available
in what respect does the autotransformer differ from the conventional transformer
it has only one winding
a variac transformer is used to provide
continuous control of line voltage
what will have a tendency to shorten the life of a battery
frequent engine starts
when used in the battery vent system what is the purpose of a sump jar?
to neutralize gases and excess battery solution
the ac/dc hydraulicmotor-driven generator provides electrical power to
essential circuits
power for turning the ramair turbine generator armature is obtained from
ram air
the output from ram-air turbine generator is kept at the desired frequency by
connecting it to a fixed load
airborne APUs are particularly useful for what reason
they automatically replace malfunctioning generators
the gtcp95 power plant apu is capable of providing
air for ground operation of aircraft cycle coolingsystems, starting air for aircraft engines, aircraft electrical power
what section of the compressor and turbine assembly supplies bleed air for pneumatic power?
turbine
which of the following are the four main systems of the gas turbine engine?
electrical, fuel control, bleed air, lubrication
what describes the operation of the ignition system?
ignition is only required during the starting and is automatically cut at approx. 95% engine RPM
the three centrifugal speed sequence switches int he APU are adjusted to operate at what percentages o turbine speed?
35,95,106
what is the function of the 35% switch
to deenergize the starter moter
naval aircraft are designed to accept electrical power froman external power source
to start aircraft engines so maintanence can be performed in the hangar bay
what is the most common method of voltage regulation in ac/dc generators?
to vary current in the field winding
the amplitude of the output voltage of an ac generator may be controlled by
varying the strength of the magnetic field
the exciters variable output is changed to dc by which of the following components
bridge rectifier
what is the result of the action of the voltage regulator controlling the strength of the generators magnetic field?
a controlled output voltage
what is represented but the magnitude of the control voltage applied to the control amplifier of a solid state regulator
the difference between the generators ac output voltage and a reference voltage
a decrease in generator output voltage causes an increase in emitter-collector current in all four transistors producing
the exciter generator output increases the ac generator field increases and the generator output increases
what device maintians the ac generator at a constant speed?
a constant speed drive assembly
what are considered to be a phase of operation of the constant speed drive
overdrive, straight through, underdrive
what is the function of the supervisory panel
voltage regulation and circuit protection for the generator and its associated equipment
under which of the following conditions will the supervisory panel disconnect the generator from its load
feeder fault, underfrequency, overfrequency anbd undervoltage and overvoltage
in a supervisory panel voltage regulation is accomplished by controlling which function
amplitude of the dc voltage to the generator exciter stator coils
what components protect the circuit from over and undervoltage conditions?
voltage sensors
using a capacitor to bring the power factor of an a circuit to unity results in
reduced line current
In an ac circuit the ac load is slightly inductive. To improve the power factor of the load in the circuit the capacitor should be connected in what way
in parallel with the circuit
the electrical power is connected to the equipment by
power distribution system
systems of like priorities are grouped to a common line that is known as
a bus
what is the minimum resistance for personal ground straps?
250,000 ohms
aircraft with ac primary systems
obtain ac power from transformer rectifier units
the frequency of an ac generator is determined by
the number of magnetic poles and rotor RPM
what are advantages of an ac over a dc system
lighter, current is transmitted at a lower lever, smaller wirign is used
what is not considered uncommon to all ac generators
the output is taken from stationary armature windings
the power generated by a 120/208 voltac generator is normally distributed by what type of system?
a three-wire, wye connected system
whiwhat will supply 208 volts ac to aircraft
c to ground
what is the advantage ofa brushless aircraft generator?
it has a longer overhaul period and is more reliable
what device provides the driving force for a generator
the prime mover
in comparison to a three wire inverter power system,a four-wire 120 volt three phase 4000 hz power system provides for
imroved load balancing per phase
what is the purpose of the series starting winding in some inverters
to provide higher starting torque
what determines the number of phases in the output of an inverter?
the sets of windings on the stator
the output voltage of the inverter is ,maintained at the correct level by controlling the
dc excitation current in the rotor field of the generator
what determines the current capabilities of a tranformer rectifier?
the cooling available
in what respect does the autotransformer differ from the conventional transformer
it has only one winding
if there is a phase reversal o the external power what device prevents this power form being applied
ground power monitor
in a grounded three wire system, grounding is normally accomplished by grounding the
b phase only
what is the advantage of an ungrounded electrical system over a grounded electrical system?
circuits are iinsulated from one another
what is a characteristic of a single phase voltage regulating system
its simple design allows its use in low-power requirements
what is the primary purpose of an aircraft lighting system
to provide specialized light outside the aircraft and to illuminate the inside
the actuation of what device releases the magnetic brake allowing landing light to extend or retract?
mechanical linkage and retract extend switch actuation
angle of attack is too low
red
angle of attack is too high
green
angle of attack is optimum
amber
inverted v
very low
flashing approach lights
the arresting gear is not fully extended
purpose of arresting gear override switch
allows approach light to function properly while the arresting hook is up
fuselage formation lights are connected in parallel with and controlled by the same switches as
wingtip formation lights only
purpose of in-flight probe light?
illuminate the probe of the reciever aircraft and the drogue of the refueling aircraft
what lighting feature is provided to aid a crew member who is reading a chart?
extention lights
in hydraulic systems th AE maintains circuits that control the fluid
flow
all hydraulic systems contain a minimum of
a pump, selector valve, actuator and resevoir
what directs the fluid flow in a hydraulic stystem?
selector valve
hydraulic pressure is supplied to afcs components by what component of the hydraulic surface booster control system?
engagement valve
in the afcs what is the purpose of the modulator piston linear transducer?
to send rate signals to the afcs computer
the hydraulic surface control booster system operates in
two modes- manual and afcs
what function is common to both the left and right main gear torque-link switches?
preventing the throttles from being plaed in reverse propeller range when airborne
what component prevents the landing gear control lever from being placed in the wheel up positions when the weight of the aircraft is on the landing gear
an electrically operated but deenergized solenoid
what is the purpose of the time delay relay in the relay panel?
to ensure that the arresting hook is in the fully up a nd locked position before hydraulic pressure is removed
what controls hydraulic pressure to the steer damper unit?
steering shutoff valve
what permits restricted hydraulic fluid flow to the bypass valve to dampen nosewheel shimmy
undirectional restrictors
what controls the flow of fluid to the actuator
servo valve
what prevents system pressure from becoming excessive int he steer-damper unit
fluid compensator
what contains a swivel disconnect switch to prevent reverse steering
Steering feedback pot.
what feeds a signal to the steering amplifier as the nosewheel is moved?
steering feedback pot
what provides nonlinear steering response as it is varied mechanically by the rudder pedals
command potentiometer
what recieves the turn signal ordered by the rudder pedals from the command potentiometer?
steering amplifier
the catapaulting systems launch bar warning light illuminates when
solenoid A is energized
the launch bar control switch is placed to retract and the warning light remains on. what component failure is indicated?
selector valve
to retract the speed brakes the speed brake control switch is moved in the in position causing solenoid a and solonoid b to be
deenergized
operational principle of the canopy selector valve
it is manually or electrically actuated and hydraulically operated
to close the canopy
the control circuit breaker must be closed, the canopy switch closed and solonoid 2 energized
to open the canopy
control circuit breaker open, canopy switch open and solonoid 1 energized
what ensures the fluid in the hydraulic motor is not surging
flow regulator
what simultaneously passes voltage to the hydraulic selector valve and dump valve
pressure sensing switch
what protects the motor against reverse fluid pressure
check valve
what enables accumulated air to escape from the air system?
dump valve
what is the principle cause of cabin temperatures rising above the level at which the crew can maintain efficiency
ram-air friction
the cabin air-conditioning and pressurization system maintains cabin air temperature and pressure at a comfortable and safe level by forcing what kind of air through cockpit diffusers?
dehumidified refrigerated air, hot engine bleed air
cabin air pressure is controlled by the operation of which of the following components
a safety valve, manual dump control, pressur eregulator and safety valve, manual dump control and a pressure regulator
when the cockpit switch in the ON position, the desired cabin temperature is maintainted by what means
proportional amounts of engine bleed air and refrigerated air being mixed by the dual temperature control valve
cabin temperature changes are anticipated by what components
cabin duct dual temperature sensor
at what altitude is cabin pressurization automatically initiated
8000 ft
what is the function of the cabin duct limit bridge?
to limit the temperature of the cabin inlet air
in turbine-powered aircraft what is the relationship between engine power and turbine power?
they are directly proportional
the fuel shutoff valve is electrically closed on engine shutdown by placing the condition lever in what position?
feather
the engine coordinators function to coordinate the power and condition levers along with what other components
the fuel control, the propeller, and the electronic trimming circuit
dual unit thermocouples are radially mounted in what part of the engine?
turbine inlet case
by what method are thermocouples electrically connected to provide an average temperature
in parallel
an air turbine starter can be operated by compressed air from a gtc, an apu, or what other device?
an operating engine
what is the function of the engine start systems speed sensitive control?
to activate internal switches at predetermined intervals relative to the engines normal speed
the ignition exciter provides what voltage
a stepped up voltage for firing ignition plugs
at what percentage of the rated engine RPM does the fuel control shutoff valve open to permit fuel flow to the engine?
16% RPM
the temperature datum valve is located in
between the fuel control and engine fuel nozzles
what is the function of the compressor bleed air valves?
to reduce the compressor load during starts
when the start control valve is energized
the engine start switch is depressed
the yellow starter valve light illuminate when
the start control valve is open
what occurs when 65% rpm is reached?
the fuel pumps will operate in series
for any slow cycle operation the timing cycle for the propeller de-icer is such that current is supplied to the heating element for what time period?
40-75 seconds
under what condition will a fire warning light illuminate?
when the resistance of the sensing element decreases to a predetermined level due to an increase in temperature
CF3Br extinguishes a fire in the aircraft how
it displaces air in the nacelle making the air incapable of supporting a fire
what component controls the oil cooler door position when the oil cooler switch is in the automatic mode
a thermostat
what control system serves to vary the exhaust escape area to obtain the desired thrust and to maintain safe operation conditions?
variable exhaust nozzle system
what VEN system component serve to schedule, compute,and control engine operation?
ECA
decreasing the VEN areas has what effect on EGT
Increases EGT
what is the function of the propeller governor?
to control engine speed by varying the pitch of the propeller
the pitchof the propeller is varied by porting haydraulic fluid directly to which of the following parts of the propeller picton
inboard and outboard side
the synchrophaser will function in whcih of the following modes?
normal and synchrophasing
what is the function of the pulse generator in the synchrophaser system
to provide pulses for phase and speed control of the propellers
what is the purpose od the phase and trim control in the synchrophaser system
to set the phase relationship between master and slave propellers.
the synchrophaser provides what servomoter voltage
an ac voltage in phase or 180 degrees out of phase with the excitation voltage
what synchrophaser circuit prevents the slave engine from following an overspeeding or underspeeding master engine?
the 2% limiting switch
what is the purpose of resynchrophasing?
to correct for accumulated one direction errors
what assembly maintains the minimum desired low pitch angle?
low-pitch stop
the process of aligning the propeller to the airstream to minimize drag during engine shutdown conditions is known as
feathering
when is the automatic feathering system used?
during take off only
what is the function of the approach power compensator system?
to control engine power during landing approaches
in the approach power compensator sysem what component/aircraft system provides the computer with aircraft approach angle information
the angle of attack transducer
after spreading the blades on the H-60 helecopter the bladefold actuators run in the fold direction to releive stress on what component
the segment gear in the bladefold actuator
at supersonic speeds greater than mach 2, the variable inlet duct ramp system allows which of the following to occur?
subsonic air to enter the engine only
the altimeter is part of what aircraft system?
pitot-static
in the pitot-static system the term pitot represent what type of pressure
impact
in computing airspeed the airspeed indicator uses whcih of the following pressures
the difference between static and impact pressure
the meaning of the word altitude
elevation, above mean sea level, above ground level
at what altitide does gravity acting on the atmoshpere produce a pressure of 14.79 psi and support a column of mercury to a height of 29.92 inches
mean sea level
the altitude reading of a properly calibrated altimeter refernced to 29.92 inches of mercury is known as the
pressure altitude
at what altitude does the barometric pressure setting for the aircraft altimeters change from the local barometric pressure to 29.92 inches
18000 feet
for the pilot to obtain the best performance from the aircraft engine what should be known?
density
the VSI indicator is driven by
the difference between diaphrahm and case pressures
what is the purpose of the air data computer?
to sense the characteristics odd the air surrounding the aircraft and correct the data to compensate for aircraft induced errors
what are the four data sense inputs to the adc?
pitot pressure, static pressure, total temperature and AOA
what symbol represents the correct impact pressure
Qc
what is the meaning of Angle of Attack
the angle at which the leading edge of the wing encounters the air mass
purpose of the angle of attack transmitter?
to convert mechanical motion into proportional electrical signals
what is the purpose of the angle of attack system?
to indicate attitude with respect to the surrounding air mass
static pressure errors become a significant factor in the accuracy of pressure indications at what relative speeds?
supersonic and transonic
cause of significant errors in indicated static pressure as detected by static ports.
angle of attack
what is meant by impact pressure(Qc)
the force of the air against the aircraft
the two temperatures that make up total temperature are the ambient temperature plus
temperature increase created by the motion of the aircraft
what is the function of the AICS
to decelerate supersonic air to provide subsonic air for the engine
in the automatic altitude reporting system position and altitude reporting is accomplished by what components
transponders
the automatic altitude reporting system provides the altitude at what increments?
100 feet
what total number of dimension are displayed on the radar presentation by the semi-automatic air traffic control system
three
reason for the development of the the AIMS system
to improve air traffic control within the united states
maximum allowable difference between altitude and ground display altitude in the AIMS system
+125 ft
most high performance naval aircraft use which of the following altimeters as part of the aims system
aaj19/a
what are the limits for the CPU-46a altitude computer
80000 ft alt and mach 2.5
the AAu-19A altimeter operates as a standard altimeter when placed in what mode
standby
what components in the aau-24/a overcome the effects of stop-jump friction
vibrators
when turning the baroset knob on the aau-24a altimeter what device drives the barometric counter
a spur gear
when used in naval aircraft the angle-of-sideslip is used along with
rocket firing system
the angle of attack system operates by detecting
airflow differential pressure
on most naval aircraft the stall warning system is activated by
angle of attack system
what is most desirable for an instrument gyroscope
heavy weight for small size and high speed of rotation
for a gyro to have two degrees of freedom the platform must have what total number of gimbals?
two
what are two fundamental properties for gyroscopic action
rigidity in space and precession
a spinning gyro precesses when subjected to a deflecting force. which of the following actions will make the gyro precess at a faster rate?
a decrease in speed of rotor an increase in the force applied
what action does the gyro horizon have, relative to its case, to indicate aircraft attitude?
the case revolves about the gyro
in a turn-and-bank indicator what factors determine the position of the ball
natural forces
what instrument does a pilot use to reduce the possibility of damage to an aircraft from excessive stress?
the accelerometer
what is the purpose of filling the bowl of an aircraft direct-reading compass with fluid
to slow the movement of the compass card
what is the purpose of the lubber line on the direct-reading compass?
to serve as a reference mark when reading the card
the standby attitude indicator is capable of displaying how many degrees of roll
360
a jet engines tachometer is referenced to what percentage of rpm
takeoff
the indicator in a tachometer system is designed to respond to changes in
Frequency
what is the principle difference between a two pole and four pole tachometer generator?
the polarity of their rotor
at high speed the armature of the synchronous motor is brought into synchronism by
the hysterisis disk and the permanent magnet
what is the purpose of concentrating flux on the edge of the drag disk
to provide maximum torque to weight ratio
what is a characteristic of the VSI
its compactness and easily readable scale
activation of the test switch in a VSI system will cause the RPM inicator to read what percentage
80%
thermocouple indicators operate on which of the following principles?
dissimilar metal junctions produce an electromotive force when heated
a total number if how many dual-unit thermocouples are mounted in each engine turbine inlet casing of a p-3 aircraft
18
thermocouples in an engine exhaust system convert exhaust gas into which of the following units of measurement
millivolts
in a fuel flow transmitter the incoming fuel is directed against what component
vane
when input fuel pressure to the fuel flow transmitter becomes excessively high the instrument is bypassed by what transmitter component
relief valve
in the fuel flow transmitter what component eliminates the swirling motion of the incoming fuel
straightening vanes
in the fuel flow totalizer indicator what component causes the pointer to deflect proportionally to the fuel being consumed?
the magnetic drum and cup linkage
what is the purpose of a vent on the fuel pressure transmitter
to allow the transmitter to accurately measure the differential pressure between the pump and the atmosphere
movement of the transmitter potentiometer will have which result
applies signal to the nozzle position indicator
the torquemeter system operates on the principle that engine loading will have what result?
creates shaft twist, which causes two magnets to measure the distance from the two toothed flanges
in what units of measurement do capacitive type fuel quantity gauges indicate the fuel quantity in the tank
pounds
capacitance of the fuel gauge capacitor depends on
area of plates, distance between the plates and the diaelectric constant
if fuel quantity increases
tank unit capacitance increases, tank unit leg current increases and tranformer voltage and voltage across the voltmeter are in phase
inductors motor direction of rotation is determined by a comparision of what characteristics of two voltages
phase
if two or more fuel tank units are connected in parallel the effects of what condition is minimized
variations in aircraft attitude
what condition will cause the diaelectric constant and fuel quantity to deviate?
weight and temperature of fuel
what unit of measurement is indicated by hydraulic pressure indicators in most naval aircraft?
pounds per square inch
in a dc position-indicating system, what is the purpose of the copper cyclinder in the indicator
to dampen pointer oscillation
what is indicated by a red mark on an instrument glass?
a maximum limit
whatis the purpose of a white index mark painted on the bottom center of all instruments color marked for operating ranges?
to show whether or not the glass cover has moved after operating ranges have been marked
what pub do you refer to for tubing and tubing repair?
NAVAIR 01-1a-8
rigid tubing in modern aircraft may be made from what metals/aloys?
aluminum alloy, corrosion resistant steel
where are identification marks located on rigid tubing
near the fitting and in each compartment
when identification tape is used on rigid tubing in military aircraft the function if identified by
color,wording, and symbols on 1 inch wide tape
PHDAN
carbon dioxide,gaseous oxygen, nitrogen gas, and freon
what method is used to identify the specifications of flexible tubing
a code of dots and dashes printed on the tubing
course
the intended horizontal direction of travel
heading
the horizontal direction in which the aircraft is pointed
bearing
the horizontal direction of one terrestrial object from another
distance
the seperation between two points measured in some scaler quantity
planes that pass through the earth perpendicular to the earths rotational axis intersect with the earths surface to form circles known as
parallels
agonic
an irregular line connection points on a map of the earth indicating where a compass points north
isogonic
an irregular line connecting points on a map of the earth indicating where there is the same variation to true north
variation
the angular difference between the directions of true north and magnetic north at a particular location
deviation
the angular difference between the direction of the earths magnetic field and the compass reading due to nearby electromagnetic influences
the difference between the direction of the earths magnetic field and the horizontal at any location on the earths surface is known as
magnetic dip
a line on a map that connects all places having equal dip angles is known as
isoclinic
the aircraft navigator is plotting the present position by using aircraft course and speed, last known position, elapsed time, and any changes in speed and course since last known position. what type of navigation is this?
dead reckoning
accelerometers in inertial navigation equipment are mounted on the platform that remains perpendicular to the earths gravitational field at all times to sense
vehicle accelerations only
int he compass system what unit senses the direction of the flux lines of the earths magnetic field?
the flux valve
a displacement gyro provides what signal
azimuth, pitch and roll
roll control transmitter
rolls signals to the AFCS control amplifier
outer roll
roll signals to the indicators
pitch servo control
pitch signals to the indicators
the directional gyro pitch gimbal is maintained perpendicular to the surface of the earth by a motor generator that is driven by the amplified output of
the vertical gyros pitch servo control transmitter
the aircraft horizontal situation indicator will provide whhat item of information?
the aircrafts deviation from a selected course
the distance counter of the bdhi displays
distance to base, distance to target, distance to ground electronic station
free mode
used in areas where the earths magnetic field is appreciably distorted
slaved mode
used in normal conditions
compass mode
used when the displacement gyros signals are not reliable
free mode
used when the flux vlave signal is unreliable
what component provides the timing switching and voltages used for erection, monitoring, and leveling AHRS displacement gyroscopes
Amplifier power supply
the compass adapter compensator provides correct heading information to the attitude indicator when its operating in
FREE, COMPASS and SLAVED
the latitude degrees control on the compass controller provides a signal to the directional gyroscope for the compensation of
apparent drift
in which of the following modes of operation will the directional gyro provide azimuth only information to the indicator
FREE
the two basic categories of navigation
position fixing and dead reckoning
dead reckoning is the process by which position is calculated from
course,speed, elapsed time and previous position
the inertial navigation system is unique to for what reason
it is independent of its operating environment
every body continues its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line, u nless its compelled to change that state by forces impressed upon it. This statement follows what law
newtons first line of motion
acceleration is proportional tot he resultant force and is in the same direction as that force. this follows what law
newtons second law of motion
what statement defines the term velocity and acceleration
velocity is a change in position and acceleration is a change in velocity
what are the two processes used in an inertial navigation system?
detection and integration
what quantity does an ins derive when acceleration is integrated twice over a specific area of time
displacement
what mathematical process is used in an INS to derive displacement
velocity is integrated over a specific period of time
if the integral of acceleration with respect to time is velocity, and the integral of velocity with respect to time is displacemtn, what is the double integral of acceleration with respect to time
displacement
the mathematical process of summing all minute values of a variable function over a given time is known as
integration
an INS containing only a single-axis acceleration detecting device can detect
acceleration along a straight line parallel to the sensitive axis of the detector
when an object is undergoing a change in velocity(either + or -) the object is undergoing
integration
during ins operation the first integrator(velocity) ceases to produce an output when which of the following conditions occur?
the net sum of detected acceleration is zero
when the first and second integrators cease to produce outputs the INS readout device should indicate what condition exists?
the readout has experienced displacement
for a two-axis INS to keep track of a vehicles position on a plane orientation of the two accelerometers must be such that their axes are maintained ___ to eachother
perpendicular
the gyros in the stable element are used for what purpose
to provide stabalization signals for the stablized platform
what component of the INS provides the primary data for the system?
gyro
what method is used to eleiminate the effects of gravity on the accelerometers on an INS
providing counter-torquing signals for the accelerometers
what is the total number of integrators required to produce an output that corresponds to distance displacement if the input is accleeration
three
what means is used to eliminate the gravitational effect fromt he vertical accelerometers output signal
the computer subtracts the gravity component fromthe output of the accelerometer
the stable element of an inertial platform is isolated from the angular motion of the aircraft by being mounted on what part?
gimbals
what means is used to stabalize the stable element of the INS
Two two degree of freedom gyros
any displacement of the stable element from its frame of reference is detected by
electrical pickoffs
aircraft heading and attitude information is derived from
angular relationship of the gyroscope gimbals
what gyroscopic principle is used to maintain the stable platform horizontal to the earth?
precession
which of the following terms defines a pendulum
a pivoted mass that is imperfectly balanced
the process of torquing the platform to a position normal to the gravity vector as the stable element is transported over the earth is known as
schuler tuning
the INS operates about which frame of reference?
A non-rotating frame horizontally aligned in plane perpendicular to the surface of the earth and oriented to true north
by what means is the stable element maintain level flight to the earth during aircraft flight
by nulling the synchros on the platform
if an airraft is flying west in the souther atmosphere what direction centripetal correction is needed
North
Coriolis corrections are necessary in an INS for what reasons?
the earth is a rotating reference for the system
what accelerometer and gyro combinations make up the north and east schuler loops respectively
north accelerometer and east gyro; east accelerometer and north gyro
if the integration process in an INS are to be meaningful what initial condition need to be known?
initial velocity and vehicle position
what three basis forms of external references are used when aligning an ins
terrestrial, celestial and intertial
fine alignment is the process of aligning the platform axes with the computer axes. this alignment is accomplished by placing the
X- and Y- accelerometer axes mutually perpendicular to the gravity vector
during leveling the outputs of the accelerometers are apllied to the gyro whose sensitive axis has what relationship to the sensitive axis of the accelerometer
perpendicular
what reference is being used when a north seeking paltform is aligning itself to true north
the earths rotation
its more difficult to align an aircraft a t sea than the ships INS for what reason
the accelerometers on a ship being remotely located from the aircraft, do not sense the same accelerations as those on the aircraft
in the analytic INS the platfor position is referenced to
a point in space
what type of INS is most commonly used in naval aircraft?
semianalytic
what type of INS is referenced to inertial space with the accelerometers remaining normal to the earths gravitational field
geometric
what typeof INS is primarily used in spacecraft and ballistic missiles?
strap-down only
what type of INS combinestwo navigation system and retains the best characteristics
hybrid
what type of updating process compares the inertial ground velocities witht he ground velocities of some other systems?
damping effect
compensators of the magnetic compass are adjusted during the process of swinging for which of the following purposes?
to reduce deviation error
what process is eliminated by using the calibrator set to calibrate an aircraft compass system?
rotating the aircraft on a compass rose
what is the accuracy of the electrical heading inputs provided by this calibrator test
0.1 degrees
errors in the compass sytem are mearured as the difference between the aircraft magnetic heading, as indicated on the aircrafts compass and the magnetic heading of
a simulated earths field
what is the purpose of the AFCS
to reduce the pilots workload in controlling the aircraft
what componenets are examples of airfoils?
fusalage, wings, propellers
by what means does an airfoil produce lift
by creating high pressure on a rounded surface
a movable device attatched to the trailing edge of an airfoil increases lift by
increasing the angle of attack
if the control stick of a fixed wing aircraft were moved aft what would be the result?
the elevators would move up
what flight controls must be coordinated when banking an aircraft?
elevators, aeilerons and rudder
to compensate for an aircrafts continuous right yaw condition the pilot shoul
push the left rudder pedal and hold
what aileroncontrol is necessary to return the aircraft to laterally level flight from a right bank
the left aileron must go down and the right aileron must go up
the movement of the aircraft nose in the opposite direction of an intended turn is caused by ailerons drag is known as
adverse yaw
what is the major avantage of helicopter over fixed wing aircraft
it can fly at zero or very low airspeed
operation of the collective control causes a change in pitch angle of
the main rotor blades
in hovering flight only helicopter heading is controlled by which control
rudder pedals
pitch and directional control of a rotary-wing aircraft is accomplished by the use of a
cyclic stick
what is the function of the amplifiers and computers in the AFCS
to determine the magnitude and direction of the correction needed
If the AFCS senses deviations from the reference flight conditions it causes what to occur
the ailerons to maintain a reference bank angle or heading, the elevators to maintain a reference pitch angle or altitude, the rudder to coordinate turns or provide yaw damping
the pilot control the operatal mode sof the AFCS through the use of
a control panel
in what AFCS componentare all sensor and command control signal combined and modified to develop output signals used when AFCS engaged
air navigation computer
if the force sensor is generating pitch signal that is used in the AFCS pitch channel what switch closes?
pitch force
pitch and bank reference information is furnished to the AFCS by a
vertical gyro
what is implied by the term vertical gyro?
the gyros spin axis is continuously erected vertical to the surface of the earth
AFCS rate gyroscopes serve to detect which rate for the AFCS
pitch, roll yaw
A rate gyro's output is the result
spin axis precession
a rate gyro is mounted in a flexible gimbal whose rotational freedom is restrained by
torsion restoring spring
heading information for the AFCS is recieved from the
aircraft compass system/inertial navigation system
what component of the AFCS corrects the amount of control surface deflection due to changes in airspeed
an airspeed gain control unit
the elevator channel is fed a nosedown signal when the flaps are lowered to..
prevent the aircraft from ballooning
when the accelerometer is mounted correctly and subjected to a normal gravity force of 1 g, the sensitive element of the normal accelerometer is in what state
mechanically biased to produce zero output
the phase relationship between the excitation voltage and the signal voltage of the accelerometer transmitter is determined by
direction only
what is the purpose of the manual mode of operation of the hydraulic booster package?
to provide hydraulic assistance tot he pilot in moving the control surfaces
a follow-up signalthat prevents control surface overshoots in the AFCSis provided by
a control surface position transmitter
what component of the hydraulic booster packages supplies rate of movement information to the AFCS
the modulating piston
the final amplifying link to move the flight control surfaces is provided by
the servo loop
what type of signal is developed byt he control surface position transmitter
control surface command signal
what type of signal brings back the control surface to the null position?
feedback signal
in high speed aircraft which AFCS mode is considered most crititcal to safetey?
stability augmentation
what mode of operation functions as the basic hands off mode of the AFCS
Attitude hold
what operational mode allows the pilot to manually fly the aircraft without disengaging the AFCS
control stick steering
what AFCS mode of operation enables the pilot to make a hands off carrier landing
ACLS
The SAS 1 system provides electrical control signal that are proportional tot he signal inputs of what servo valves?
pitch, roll and yaw
with both SAS 1 and SAS 2 engaged what is the percentage of control authority for flight control movement
10%
when sensing a yaw rate the SAS amplifier processes the signal to
remove long term yaw rate signals
the stabilator system does not optimize trim attitudes for
Descent
the primary purpose of the stabilator control system is to stop
noseup attitudes
when is the stabilator test push button operational
below 50 kias
the inner loop control system is a function of the
DAFCS
in the pitch channel with the airspped below 50 kias, the pilot can use what to change cyclic stick position?
trim rel switch, four direction trim switch
the heading mode is only operational when wha tmode is engaged
yaw trim
what is a function of the ASE in a helicopter
to provide selective attitude retention in all flight axes and to improve handling characheteristics
to engage the HOVER TRIM ENG button the pilot must have the CYC CPLR switch in what position
DOPP
The ASE control panel has a number of specific control shaped knobs. what are the shapes of drift and CG knobs consequently
bar shaped and clover shaped
to trim the heading of the helicopter the pilot must adjust what control knob?
YAW TRIM
the pilot turns the ground speed control knob for which of the following reasons?
to preselectthe forward or aft ground speed to be maintained by the coupler
the pilot turns the drift set knob to
preselect lateral drift
the function of the cg control knob is to let the pilot make
small incremental adjustments in pitch
what is the purpose of the four gaurded toggle switches on the ase channel monitor panel?
to disconnect malfunctioning channels
with both SAS 1 and SAS 2 engaged what is the percentage of control authority for flight control movement
10%
when sensing a yaw rate the SAS amplifier processes the signal to
remove long term yaw rate signals
the stabilator system does not optimize trim attitudes for
Descent
the primary purpose of the stabilator control system is to stop
noseup attitudes
when is the stabilator test push button operational
below 50 kias
the inner loop control system is a function of the
DAFCS
in the pitch channel with the airspped below 50 kias, the pilot can use what to change cyclic stick position?
trim rel switch, four direction trim switch
the heading mode is only operational when wha tmode is engaged
yaw trim
what is a function of the ASE in a helicopter
to provide selective attitude retention in all flight axes and to improve handling characheteristics
to engage the HOVER TRIM ENG button the pilot must have the CYC CPLR switch in what position
DOPP
The ASE control panel has a number of specific control shaped knobs. what are the shapes of drift and CG knobs consequently
bar shaped and clover shaped
to trim the heading of the helicopter the pilot must adjust what control knob?
YAW TRIM
the pilot turns the ground speed control knob for which of the following reasons?
to preselectthe forward or aft ground speed to be maintained by the coupler
the pilot turns the drift set knob to
preselect lateral drift
the function of the cg control knob is to let the pilot make
small incremental adjustments in pitch
during yaw open loop operation wha action should the pilot take to preven too much movement on the rudder pedals
apply opposing force tot he rudder pedals
what method should be used witht he ASE to engage the collective channel in the basic ASE
Pressing the BAR ALT after pressing the ASE
What method shoul the pilot use to change altitude while barometric altitude is engaged
depress BAR ALT button on the collective stick grip and apply force on the collective
what channels are contained int he basis ASE
pitch roll yaw collective
what is the function of ASE servo valves?
to convert pitch and roll error signal into mechanical output