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489 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What unit of measurement is common to both english and metric system of measurement?
|
Time
|
|
What is the metric unit for length?
|
Meter
|
|
To convert from meters to millemeters you should move the decimal point
|
right, six places
|
|
the quantity of matter a body contains is measured by its
|
mass
|
|
A standard mass when used as a checking device for balancing a scale serves as an accurate untie of measure at any position on earth due to
|
The acceleration of the standard mass due to gravity remains the same at any altitudeon the earthds surface
|
|
The knot is a derived unit that combines the unit of distance witht he unit of
|
time
|
|
the term velocity may be used in place of speed only if what condition is met?
|
The motion of the body is in a straight path in a given direction
|
|
What is the mechanical equivalent of 10 Btu of heat endergy
|
7779 foot-punds
|
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All units of power involve
|
Force, distance, time
|
|
fahrenheit to celsius?
Celcius to fahrentheit |
5/9(f-32)
9/5(c)+32 |
|
Kelvin
|
equal the absolute zero point at -273 degrees C
|
|
Rankine
|
indicates absolute zero at -460 degrees F
|
|
Water is nto suitable for use in most thermometers because
|
Its freezing point is too high
|
|
The zero point on the thermometer coincides with the temperature of
|
melting ice
|
|
The bloiling point on a celcius thermometer indicates the temperature of
|
Water just as it begins to boil
|
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he resistance element used in the construction of resistance thermometers if normally made of what type of wire
|
Platinum
|
|
What temperature measuring device produces an electromotive force?
|
A thermocouple
|
|
What describes the humans ear reaction to sound?
|
it responds to sound on a logarithmic scale
|
|
What is the minimum change in sound level that the human ear can detect?
|
1.0 decibel
|
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The phenomena associated with the atom are due to the presence of which of the following groups of principle subatomic particles?
|
Electron, proton, neutron
|
|
The mass and consequently the weight of an atom is contained almost entirely in what part of the atom?
|
Nucleus
|
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Which of the following statements best decribes a compound?
|
It is a chemical combination of two or more elements
|
|
When an atom of one element has been changed into an atom of another element it has undergone what process?
|
Transmutation
|
|
Under some conditions, what element contains a neutron but under other conditions does not conatin a neutron?
|
Hydrogen
|
|
The atomic weight of an atom is indicated byt the total numbers of what two particles?
|
Protons and neutrons
|
|
An atom of an element has a different number of neutrons from another atom of the same element and a different atomic weight. This elelment is known as
|
An isotope
|
|
In matter the relative sizes of the particles have which of the following relationships?
|
The molecule is the smallest unit of a compound, and the atom is the smallest unit of an element
|
|
What describes an ion?
|
An atom that has gained or lost an electron
|
|
Under what condition does an atom become a negative ion?
|
When it gains an electron in it outer shell
|
|
Absolute zero
|
The temperature at which it is beleived that all molecular activities in substance ceases
|
|
Boyles law
|
For a constant temperature the product of the volume and pressure of an enclosed gas remains constant
p1v1=p2v2 |
|
charles law
|
gases expand and contract in direct proportion tot he change in absolute temperature provided pressure is constant
|
|
general gas law
|
p1v1/t1=p2v2/t2
|
|
the energy developed in an aircraft engine is determined by what fuel characteristic
|
mass
|
|
reluctance of a body to change its speed, direction or resting position is known as?
|
inertia
|
|
what is the quantative measure of inertia
|
mass of the body
|
|
the space through which an action at distance force is effective is known as
|
a force field
|
|
description of force is complete when which factors are given?
|
Direction, magnitude and point of applicationg
|
|
the force of attraction exerted by the earth on a body is known as
|
gravity
|
|
The weight of a body at any altitude is determined by
|
the force on the body exerted by gravity at that altitude
|
|
specific gravity
|
dividing the weight of the substance by the weight of an equal volume of water
|
|
acceleration
|
change in a bodys speed or direction
|
|
Force
|
F=ma
|
|
A force applied tot he center of gravity of a body and causes the body to accelerate but not to rotate
|
translational force
|
|
1 horsepower
|
33000 foot-pounds a minute, 550 fot-pounds per second, 746 watts
|
|
Centripetal and centrifugal are terms used to define equal and opposite forces in relation to
|
revolving bodies
|
|
during the time a ball is in a circular path, which force prevents the ball from traveling in a linear path?
|
centrifugal
|
|
kinetic energy
|
k=1/2mvsquared
|
|
centripetal
|
restraining force that prevent an object from travelling in a straight lien
|
|
what is the principal difference betweenr adio waves, heat and light
|
frequency
|
|
what describes the transefer of heat by convection
|
movement of a hot fluid
|
|
what heat tranfer processes are used to cool an object by using surrounding fins
|
conduction and convection
|
|
the heat energy transfer that occurs in the form of electromagnetic waves, which is almost identical to the same action in the transfer is known as
|
radiation
|
|
radiant heat acts in which of the following ways?
|
moves at the speed of light, travels in a straight line, passes through a median without heating hit
|
|
conduction
|
heat transferred by molecular collision
|
|
absorbtion
|
motion of the medium occuring without mechanical motion being applied
|
|
radiation
|
heat transference closely resembling radio wave propagation
|
|
what temperature measuring device uses the difference in coefficients of expansion of dissimilar metals?
|
thermocouple
|
|
the footcandle is used to express the intensity of illumination in the english system. What is it in the metric system?
|
lumens
|
|
what type of simple lense is thicker in the center than at its edges?
|
a positiv eor convergent lense
|
|
in a given medium the color of the light wave is determined by
|
frequency
|
|
aircraft anticollision light?
|
aircraft engines operating
|
|
when fighting an electrical fire
|
use carbon dioxide
|
|
what alloy is used to make msot non-magnetic tools?
|
berryllium copper
|
|
at the local level you may insulate tools for what type of circuit?
|
low-voltage
|
|
the color for safety ground wire is
|
green
|
|
which metersshoudl you use when troubleshooting an open circuit?
|
ohmmeter
|
|
an ammeter is connected into a circuit in what way?
|
in series with the cicuit
|
|
when a multimeter is not being used the selector switch should be in which position
|
high dc volts
|
|
for precise resistance measurements you should use which of the following instruments?
|
wheatstone bridge
|
|
what meters are contained in a multimeter?
|
ohmmeter,ammeter and voltemeter
|
|
a permanent magnet, moving coil meter mechanism can be adapted to measuring alternation current and voltage if used with what?
|
a rectifier
|
|
To test insulation for high resistance, ground and leakage what meter should you use
|
megger
|
|
a megger is prevented rom exceeding its rated output voltage by action of a
|
voltage regulator
|
|
what term is used to define abnormal resistance or impedance that interferes with normal signal flow?
|
discontinuity
|
|
what instrument should you use to roubleshoot fuel quantity coaxal cables?
|
time-domain reflector
|
|
the output of the phase in a phase angle voltemeter is porportional to the signal amplitude multiplied by which of the following angle of phase difference?
|
Cosine
|
|
maximum deflection of the phase-angle voltmeter occurs when what relationships exist between the two signals?
|
0 or 180 degrees
|
|
what type of voltmeter is a precision voltmeter that compares an unknown voltage with an internal reference voltage?
|
differential voltmeter
|
|
aluminum has the tendency to flow away from the point where pressure is applied. this tendency is known as
|
creep
|
|
when stamping wires or cables the distance between the markings should not exceed
|
15 inches
|
|
which of the following letters is not used to identify a wire segment?
|
o
|
|
when used on aircraft electrical wiring the recommended power rating range for general use soldering irons is
|
60-200 watts
|
|
what is the reason for moistureproofing solder type electrical connectors?
|
to reinforce the connector
|
|
the preferred method for attatching cable terminals to terminal blocks require?
|
an anchor nut and a flat washer
|
|
shielded conduit should be supported by the use of what clamp?
|
bonded
|
|
when long runs of cable between panels needs to be supported what clamp do you use?
|
strap
|
|
in addition to supporting and protecting electrical wires, what other advantage does conduit offer?
|
it provides radio shielding
|
|
what type of wire should you use to secure an oxygen regulator
|
seal wire
|
|
a primary objective of bonding is to provide an electrical path of
|
high dc resistance and low rf impedence
|
|
when using methly chloroform to clean, remove
|
5 minutes
|
|
when a generator is not delivering its rated voltage or current you should check which of the following circuits?
|
control, feeder, regulator
|
|
what color paint is normally used for line test equipment?
|
yellow
|
|
the ma-2 stand is not used to test and check
|
reverse current relay operation
|
|
when using the huntron tracker 1000
|
all power must be off, signal fuse must be installed,the test leads attached to device under test
|
|
the huntron tracker 2000 quadrant 3 shows
|
negative current and negative voltage
|
|
when using the huntron tracker you should begin testing in what range?
|
medium
|
|
when using the Huntron Tracker you should use the low range for what reason
|
defects will show easier and the internal 54 ohm impedance makes it less likely that parts in parallel with the device under test will load the tester
|
|
in the SND mode of the automatic transistor analyzer model 900 a good device is indicated by the sonalert when it beeps in what way?
|
out of phase with the amber light
|
|
when using the automatic transistor analyzer model 900 to test a transistor you can test it in a) how many way b) ways that are correct
|
a)six b) two
|
|
you should use the jet ignition system tester to check the input/output of which components?
|
spark plug, power output and input of the ignition unit
|
|
the ttu-27e tachometer indicator test set can test
|
two and four pole tach generators for speed output voltage under load, tachometer indicator calibration accuracy, tachometer indicator voltage
|
|
after the tachometer generator to be tested is mounted on the tester. what component will control the speed at which it will be driven?
|
a variable dc drive motor in the test set
|
|
when performing functional ground test of the EGT system, heat for the thermocouples is provided by
|
heater probes
|
|
an external ac power supply is required to supply electrical power to a jetcal analyzer that is being used to make
|
checks for egt indicators
|
|
what pulses are generated by the synchrophaser test set?
|
slave and master pulses
|
|
the gain test readout from the synchrophaser test set is provided by what front panel component
|
the calibrated potentiometer
|
|
what test set provides regulated pitot and static pressure for evaluating the performance of air data systems, aircraft pneumatic instruments and other auxilallary equipment
|
ttu-205c/e
|
|
when using the an/fsm-17a to dynamically test the transmitter of the angle of attack system what energy is fed to the transmitter probe?
|
vacuum or air pressure
|
|
the basic configuration of a VAST station consists of section
|
a computer subsystem, a dtu, a stimulus and measurement
|
|
what component of the vast station serves to synchronize instructions between computer and functional blocks?
|
dtu
|
|
what are the three levels of fault detection used in the VAST
|
self-test, autocheck and self check
|
|
what test should you run on a vast station before you apply power to a UUT
|
continuity test
|
|
programmed halts are used during VAST testing to permit the operator to manually intervene in order to perform
|
observations an adjustments
|
|
what is the lowest voltage that will destroy or damage an esd-sensitive device?
|
20 volts
|
|
what is the minimum resistance for personal ground straps?
|
250,000 ohms
|
|
aircraft with ac primary systems
|
obtain ac power from transformer rectifier units
|
|
the frequency of an ac generator is determined by
|
the number of magnetic poles and rotor RPM
|
|
what are advantages of an ac over a dc system
|
lighter, current is transmitted at a lower lever, smaller wiring is used
|
|
what is not considered uncommon to all ac generators
|
the output is taken from stationary armature windings
|
|
the power generated by a 120/208 voltac generator is normally distributed by what type of system?
|
a three-wire, wye connected system
|
|
what will supply 208 volts ac to aircraft
|
c to ground
|
|
what is the advantage ofa brushless aircraft generator?
|
it has a longer overhaul period and is more reliable
|
|
what device provides the driving force for a generator
|
the prime mover
|
|
in comparison to a three wire inverter power system,a four-wire 120 volt three phase 4000 hz power system provides for
|
improved load balancing per phase
|
|
what is the purpose of the series starting winding in some inverters
|
to provide higher starting torque
|
|
what determines the number of phases in the output of an inverter?
|
the sets of windings on the stator
|
|
the output voltage of the inverter is ,maintained at the correct level by controlling the
|
dc excitation current in the rotor field of the generator
|
|
what determines the current capabilities of a tranformer rectifier?
|
the cooling available
|
|
in what respect does the autotransformer differ from the conventional transformer
|
it has only one winding
|
|
a variac transformer is used to provide
|
continuous control of line voltage
|
|
what will have a tendency to shorten the life of a battery
|
frequent engine starts
|
|
when used in the battery vent system what is the purpose of a sump jar?
|
to neutralize gases and excess battery solution
|
|
the ac/dc hydraulicmotor-driven generator provides electrical power to
|
essential circuits
|
|
power for turning the ramair turbine generator armature is obtained from
|
ram air
|
|
the output from ram-air turbine generator is kept at the desired frequency by
|
connecting it to a fixed load
|
|
airborne APUs are particularly useful for what reason
|
they automatically replace malfunctioning generators
|
|
the gtcp95 power plant apu is capable of providing
|
air for ground operation of aircraft cycle coolingsystems, starting air for aircraft engines, aircraft electrical power
|
|
what section of the compressor and turbine assembly supplies bleed air for pneumatic power?
|
turbine
|
|
which of the following are the four main systems of the gas turbine engine?
|
electrical, fuel control, bleed air, lubrication
|
|
what describes the operation of the ignition system?
|
ignition is only required during the starting and is automatically cut at approx. 95% engine RPM
|
|
the three centrifugal speed sequence switches int he APU are adjusted to operate at what percentages o turbine speed?
|
35,95,106
|
|
what is the function of the 35% switch
|
to deenergize the starter moter
|
|
naval aircraft are designed to accept electrical power froman external power source
|
to start aircraft engines so maintanence can be performed in the hangar bay
|
|
what is the most common method of voltage regulation in ac/dc generators?
|
to vary current in the field winding
|
|
the amplitude of the output voltage of an ac generator may be controlled by
|
varying the strength of the magnetic field
|
|
the exciters variable output is changed to dc by which of the following components
|
bridge rectifier
|
|
what is the result of the action of the voltage regulator controlling the strength of the generators magnetic field?
|
a controlled output voltage
|
|
what is represented but the magnitude of the control voltage applied to the control amplifier of a solid state regulator
|
the difference between the generators ac output voltage and a reference voltage
|
|
a decrease in generator output voltage causes an increase in emitter-collector current in all four transistors producing
|
the exciter generator output increases the ac generator field increases and the generator output increases
|
|
what device maintians the ac generator at a constant speed?
|
a constant speed drive assembly
|
|
what are considered to be a phase of operation of the constant speed drive
|
overdrive, straight through, underdrive
|
|
what is the function of the supervisory panel
|
voltage regulation and circuit protection for the generator and its associated equipment
|
|
under which of the following conditions will the supervisory panel disconnect the generator from its load
|
feeder fault, underfrequency, overfrequency anbd undervoltage and overvoltage
|
|
in a supervisory panel voltage regulation is accomplished by controlling which function
|
amplitude of the dc voltage to the generator exciter stator coils
|
|
what components protect the circuit from over and undervoltage conditions?
|
voltage sensors
|
|
using a capacitor to bring the power factor of an a circuit to unity results in
|
reduced line current
|
|
In an ac circuit the ac load is slightly inductive. To improve the power factor of the load in the circuit the capacitor should be connected in what way
|
in parallel with the circuit
|
|
the electrical power is connected to the equipment by
|
power distribution system
|
|
systems of like priorities are grouped to a common line that is known as
|
a bus
|
|
what is the minimum resistance for personal ground straps?
|
250,000 ohms
|
|
aircraft with ac primary systems
|
obtain ac power from transformer rectifier units
|
|
the frequency of an ac generator is determined by
|
the number of magnetic poles and rotor RPM
|
|
what are advantages of an ac over a dc system
|
lighter, current is transmitted at a lower lever, smaller wirign is used
|
|
what is not considered uncommon to all ac generators
|
the output is taken from stationary armature windings
|
|
the power generated by a 120/208 voltac generator is normally distributed by what type of system?
|
a three-wire, wye connected system
|
|
whiwhat will supply 208 volts ac to aircraft
|
c to ground
|
|
what is the advantage ofa brushless aircraft generator?
|
it has a longer overhaul period and is more reliable
|
|
what device provides the driving force for a generator
|
the prime mover
|
|
in comparison to a three wire inverter power system,a four-wire 120 volt three phase 4000 hz power system provides for
|
imroved load balancing per phase
|
|
what is the purpose of the series starting winding in some inverters
|
to provide higher starting torque
|
|
what determines the number of phases in the output of an inverter?
|
the sets of windings on the stator
|
|
the output voltage of the inverter is ,maintained at the correct level by controlling the
|
dc excitation current in the rotor field of the generator
|
|
what determines the current capabilities of a tranformer rectifier?
|
the cooling available
|
|
in what respect does the autotransformer differ from the conventional transformer
|
it has only one winding
|
|
if there is a phase reversal o the external power what device prevents this power form being applied
|
ground power monitor
|
|
in a grounded three wire system, grounding is normally accomplished by grounding the
|
b phase only
|
|
what is the advantage of an ungrounded electrical system over a grounded electrical system?
|
circuits are iinsulated from one another
|
|
what is a characteristic of a single phase voltage regulating system
|
its simple design allows its use in low-power requirements
|
|
what is the primary purpose of an aircraft lighting system
|
to provide specialized light outside the aircraft and to illuminate the inside
|
|
the actuation of what device releases the magnetic brake allowing landing light to extend or retract?
|
mechanical linkage and retract extend switch actuation
|
|
angle of attack is too low
|
red
|
|
angle of attack is too high
|
green
|
|
angle of attack is optimum
|
amber
|
|
inverted v
|
very low
|
|
flashing approach lights
|
the arresting gear is not fully extended
|
|
purpose of arresting gear override switch
|
allows approach light to function properly while the arresting hook is up
|
|
fuselage formation lights are connected in parallel with and controlled by the same switches as
|
wingtip formation lights only
|
|
purpose of in-flight probe light?
|
illuminate the probe of the reciever aircraft and the drogue of the refueling aircraft
|
|
what lighting feature is provided to aid a crew member who is reading a chart?
|
extention lights
|
|
in hydraulic systems th AE maintains circuits that control the fluid
|
flow
|
|
all hydraulic systems contain a minimum of
|
a pump, selector valve, actuator and resevoir
|
|
what directs the fluid flow in a hydraulic stystem?
|
selector valve
|
|
hydraulic pressure is supplied to afcs components by what component of the hydraulic surface booster control system?
|
engagement valve
|
|
in the afcs what is the purpose of the modulator piston linear transducer?
|
to send rate signals to the afcs computer
|
|
the hydraulic surface control booster system operates in
|
two modes- manual and afcs
|
|
what function is common to both the left and right main gear torque-link switches?
|
preventing the throttles from being plaed in reverse propeller range when airborne
|
|
what component prevents the landing gear control lever from being placed in the wheel up positions when the weight of the aircraft is on the landing gear
|
an electrically operated but deenergized solenoid
|
|
what is the purpose of the time delay relay in the relay panel?
|
to ensure that the arresting hook is in the fully up a nd locked position before hydraulic pressure is removed
|
|
what controls hydraulic pressure to the steer damper unit?
|
steering shutoff valve
|
|
what permits restricted hydraulic fluid flow to the bypass valve to dampen nosewheel shimmy
|
undirectional restrictors
|
|
what controls the flow of fluid to the actuator
|
servo valve
|
|
what prevents system pressure from becoming excessive int he steer-damper unit
|
fluid compensator
|
|
what contains a swivel disconnect switch to prevent reverse steering
|
Steering feedback pot.
|
|
what feeds a signal to the steering amplifier as the nosewheel is moved?
|
steering feedback pot
|
|
what provides nonlinear steering response as it is varied mechanically by the rudder pedals
|
command potentiometer
|
|
what recieves the turn signal ordered by the rudder pedals from the command potentiometer?
|
steering amplifier
|
|
the catapaulting systems launch bar warning light illuminates when
|
solenoid A is energized
|
|
the launch bar control switch is placed to retract and the warning light remains on. what component failure is indicated?
|
selector valve
|
|
to retract the speed brakes the speed brake control switch is moved in the in position causing solenoid a and solonoid b to be
|
deenergized
|
|
operational principle of the canopy selector valve
|
it is manually or electrically actuated and hydraulically operated
|
|
to close the canopy
|
the control circuit breaker must be closed, the canopy switch closed and solonoid 2 energized
|
|
to open the canopy
|
control circuit breaker open, canopy switch open and solonoid 1 energized
|
|
what ensures the fluid in the hydraulic motor is not surging
|
flow regulator
|
|
what simultaneously passes voltage to the hydraulic selector valve and dump valve
|
pressure sensing switch
|
|
what protects the motor against reverse fluid pressure
|
check valve
|
|
what enables accumulated air to escape from the air system?
|
dump valve
|
|
what is the principle cause of cabin temperatures rising above the level at which the crew can maintain efficiency
|
ram-air friction
|
|
the cabin air-conditioning and pressurization system maintains cabin air temperature and pressure at a comfortable and safe level by forcing what kind of air through cockpit diffusers?
|
dehumidified refrigerated air, hot engine bleed air
|
|
cabin air pressure is controlled by the operation of which of the following components
|
a safety valve, manual dump control, pressur eregulator and safety valve, manual dump control and a pressure regulator
|
|
when the cockpit switch in the ON position, the desired cabin temperature is maintainted by what means
|
proportional amounts of engine bleed air and refrigerated air being mixed by the dual temperature control valve
|
|
cabin temperature changes are anticipated by what components
|
cabin duct dual temperature sensor
|
|
at what altitude is cabin pressurization automatically initiated
|
8000 ft
|
|
what is the function of the cabin duct limit bridge?
|
to limit the temperature of the cabin inlet air
|
|
in turbine-powered aircraft what is the relationship between engine power and turbine power?
|
they are directly proportional
|
|
the fuel shutoff valve is electrically closed on engine shutdown by placing the condition lever in what position?
|
feather
|
|
the engine coordinators function to coordinate the power and condition levers along with what other components
|
the fuel control, the propeller, and the electronic trimming circuit
|
|
dual unit thermocouples are radially mounted in what part of the engine?
|
turbine inlet case
|
|
by what method are thermocouples electrically connected to provide an average temperature
|
in parallel
|
|
an air turbine starter can be operated by compressed air from a gtc, an apu, or what other device?
|
an operating engine
|
|
what is the function of the engine start systems speed sensitive control?
|
to activate internal switches at predetermined intervals relative to the engines normal speed
|
|
the ignition exciter provides what voltage
|
a stepped up voltage for firing ignition plugs
|
|
at what percentage of the rated engine RPM does the fuel control shutoff valve open to permit fuel flow to the engine?
|
16% RPM
|
|
the temperature datum valve is located in
|
between the fuel control and engine fuel nozzles
|
|
what is the function of the compressor bleed air valves?
|
to reduce the compressor load during starts
|
|
when the start control valve is energized
|
the engine start switch is depressed
|
|
the yellow starter valve light illuminate when
|
the start control valve is open
|
|
what occurs when 65% rpm is reached?
|
the fuel pumps will operate in series
|
|
for any slow cycle operation the timing cycle for the propeller de-icer is such that current is supplied to the heating element for what time period?
|
40-75 seconds
|
|
under what condition will a fire warning light illuminate?
|
when the resistance of the sensing element decreases to a predetermined level due to an increase in temperature
|
|
CF3Br extinguishes a fire in the aircraft how
|
it displaces air in the nacelle making the air incapable of supporting a fire
|
|
what component controls the oil cooler door position when the oil cooler switch is in the automatic mode
|
a thermostat
|
|
what control system serves to vary the exhaust escape area to obtain the desired thrust and to maintain safe operation conditions?
|
variable exhaust nozzle system
|
|
what VEN system component serve to schedule, compute,and control engine operation?
|
ECA
|
|
decreasing the VEN areas has what effect on EGT
|
Increases EGT
|
|
what is the function of the propeller governor?
|
to control engine speed by varying the pitch of the propeller
|
|
the pitchof the propeller is varied by porting haydraulic fluid directly to which of the following parts of the propeller picton
|
inboard and outboard side
|
|
the synchrophaser will function in whcih of the following modes?
|
normal and synchrophasing
|
|
what is the function of the pulse generator in the synchrophaser system
|
to provide pulses for phase and speed control of the propellers
|
|
what is the purpose od the phase and trim control in the synchrophaser system
|
to set the phase relationship between master and slave propellers.
|
|
the synchrophaser provides what servomoter voltage
|
an ac voltage in phase or 180 degrees out of phase with the excitation voltage
|
|
what synchrophaser circuit prevents the slave engine from following an overspeeding or underspeeding master engine?
|
the 2% limiting switch
|
|
what is the purpose of resynchrophasing?
|
to correct for accumulated one direction errors
|
|
what assembly maintains the minimum desired low pitch angle?
|
low-pitch stop
|
|
the process of aligning the propeller to the airstream to minimize drag during engine shutdown conditions is known as
|
feathering
|
|
when is the automatic feathering system used?
|
during take off only
|
|
what is the function of the approach power compensator system?
|
to control engine power during landing approaches
|
|
in the approach power compensator sysem what component/aircraft system provides the computer with aircraft approach angle information
|
the angle of attack transducer
|
|
after spreading the blades on the H-60 helecopter the bladefold actuators run in the fold direction to releive stress on what component
|
the segment gear in the bladefold actuator
|
|
at supersonic speeds greater than mach 2, the variable inlet duct ramp system allows which of the following to occur?
|
subsonic air to enter the engine only
|
|
the altimeter is part of what aircraft system?
|
pitot-static
|
|
in the pitot-static system the term pitot represent what type of pressure
|
impact
|
|
in computing airspeed the airspeed indicator uses whcih of the following pressures
|
the difference between static and impact pressure
|
|
the meaning of the word altitude
|
elevation, above mean sea level, above ground level
|
|
at what altitide does gravity acting on the atmoshpere produce a pressure of 14.79 psi and support a column of mercury to a height of 29.92 inches
|
mean sea level
|
|
the altitude reading of a properly calibrated altimeter refernced to 29.92 inches of mercury is known as the
|
pressure altitude
|
|
at what altitude does the barometric pressure setting for the aircraft altimeters change from the local barometric pressure to 29.92 inches
|
18000 feet
|
|
for the pilot to obtain the best performance from the aircraft engine what should be known?
|
density
|
|
the VSI indicator is driven by
|
the difference between diaphrahm and case pressures
|
|
what is the purpose of the air data computer?
|
to sense the characteristics odd the air surrounding the aircraft and correct the data to compensate for aircraft induced errors
|
|
what are the four data sense inputs to the adc?
|
pitot pressure, static pressure, total temperature and AOA
|
|
what symbol represents the correct impact pressure
|
Qc
|
|
what is the meaning of Angle of Attack
|
the angle at which the leading edge of the wing encounters the air mass
|
|
purpose of the angle of attack transmitter?
|
to convert mechanical motion into proportional electrical signals
|
|
what is the purpose of the angle of attack system?
|
to indicate attitude with respect to the surrounding air mass
|
|
static pressure errors become a significant factor in the accuracy of pressure indications at what relative speeds?
|
supersonic and transonic
|
|
cause of significant errors in indicated static pressure as detected by static ports.
|
angle of attack
|
|
what is meant by impact pressure(Qc)
|
the force of the air against the aircraft
|
|
the two temperatures that make up total temperature are the ambient temperature plus
|
temperature increase created by the motion of the aircraft
|
|
what is the function of the AICS
|
to decelerate supersonic air to provide subsonic air for the engine
|
|
in the automatic altitude reporting system position and altitude reporting is accomplished by what components
|
transponders
|
|
the automatic altitude reporting system provides the altitude at what increments?
|
100 feet
|
|
what total number of dimension are displayed on the radar presentation by the semi-automatic air traffic control system
|
three
|
|
reason for the development of the the AIMS system
|
to improve air traffic control within the united states
|
|
maximum allowable difference between altitude and ground display altitude in the AIMS system
|
+125 ft
|
|
most high performance naval aircraft use which of the following altimeters as part of the aims system
|
aaj19/a
|
|
what are the limits for the CPU-46a altitude computer
|
80000 ft alt and mach 2.5
|
|
the AAu-19A altimeter operates as a standard altimeter when placed in what mode
|
standby
|
|
what components in the aau-24/a overcome the effects of stop-jump friction
|
vibrators
|
|
when turning the baroset knob on the aau-24a altimeter what device drives the barometric counter
|
a spur gear
|
|
when used in naval aircraft the angle-of-sideslip is used along with
|
rocket firing system
|
|
the angle of attack system operates by detecting
|
airflow differential pressure
|
|
on most naval aircraft the stall warning system is activated by
|
angle of attack system
|
|
what is most desirable for an instrument gyroscope
|
heavy weight for small size and high speed of rotation
|
|
for a gyro to have two degrees of freedom the platform must have what total number of gimbals?
|
two
|
|
what are two fundamental properties for gyroscopic action
|
rigidity in space and precession
|
|
a spinning gyro precesses when subjected to a deflecting force. which of the following actions will make the gyro precess at a faster rate?
|
a decrease in speed of rotor an increase in the force applied
|
|
what action does the gyro horizon have, relative to its case, to indicate aircraft attitude?
|
the case revolves about the gyro
|
|
in a turn-and-bank indicator what factors determine the position of the ball
|
natural forces
|
|
what instrument does a pilot use to reduce the possibility of damage to an aircraft from excessive stress?
|
the accelerometer
|
|
what is the purpose of filling the bowl of an aircraft direct-reading compass with fluid
|
to slow the movement of the compass card
|
|
what is the purpose of the lubber line on the direct-reading compass?
|
to serve as a reference mark when reading the card
|
|
the standby attitude indicator is capable of displaying how many degrees of roll
|
360
|
|
a jet engines tachometer is referenced to what percentage of rpm
|
takeoff
|
|
the indicator in a tachometer system is designed to respond to changes in
|
Frequency
|
|
what is the principle difference between a two pole and four pole tachometer generator?
|
the polarity of their rotor
|
|
at high speed the armature of the synchronous motor is brought into synchronism by
|
the hysterisis disk and the permanent magnet
|
|
what is the purpose of concentrating flux on the edge of the drag disk
|
to provide maximum torque to weight ratio
|
|
what is a characteristic of the VSI
|
its compactness and easily readable scale
|
|
activation of the test switch in a VSI system will cause the RPM inicator to read what percentage
|
80%
|
|
thermocouple indicators operate on which of the following principles?
|
dissimilar metal junctions produce an electromotive force when heated
|
|
a total number if how many dual-unit thermocouples are mounted in each engine turbine inlet casing of a p-3 aircraft
|
18
|
|
thermocouples in an engine exhaust system convert exhaust gas into which of the following units of measurement
|
millivolts
|
|
in a fuel flow transmitter the incoming fuel is directed against what component
|
vane
|
|
when input fuel pressure to the fuel flow transmitter becomes excessively high the instrument is bypassed by what transmitter component
|
relief valve
|
|
in the fuel flow transmitter what component eliminates the swirling motion of the incoming fuel
|
straightening vanes
|
|
in the fuel flow totalizer indicator what component causes the pointer to deflect proportionally to the fuel being consumed?
|
the magnetic drum and cup linkage
|
|
what is the purpose of a vent on the fuel pressure transmitter
|
to allow the transmitter to accurately measure the differential pressure between the pump and the atmosphere
|
|
movement of the transmitter potentiometer will have which result
|
applies signal to the nozzle position indicator
|
|
the torquemeter system operates on the principle that engine loading will have what result?
|
creates shaft twist, which causes two magnets to measure the distance from the two toothed flanges
|
|
in what units of measurement do capacitive type fuel quantity gauges indicate the fuel quantity in the tank
|
pounds
|
|
capacitance of the fuel gauge capacitor depends on
|
area of plates, distance between the plates and the diaelectric constant
|
|
if fuel quantity increases
|
tank unit capacitance increases, tank unit leg current increases and tranformer voltage and voltage across the voltmeter are in phase
|
|
inductors motor direction of rotation is determined by a comparision of what characteristics of two voltages
|
phase
|
|
if two or more fuel tank units are connected in parallel the effects of what condition is minimized
|
variations in aircraft attitude
|
|
what condition will cause the diaelectric constant and fuel quantity to deviate?
|
weight and temperature of fuel
|
|
what unit of measurement is indicated by hydraulic pressure indicators in most naval aircraft?
|
pounds per square inch
|
|
in a dc position-indicating system, what is the purpose of the copper cyclinder in the indicator
|
to dampen pointer oscillation
|
|
what is indicated by a red mark on an instrument glass?
|
a maximum limit
|
|
whatis the purpose of a white index mark painted on the bottom center of all instruments color marked for operating ranges?
|
to show whether or not the glass cover has moved after operating ranges have been marked
|
|
what pub do you refer to for tubing and tubing repair?
|
NAVAIR 01-1a-8
|
|
rigid tubing in modern aircraft may be made from what metals/aloys?
|
aluminum alloy, corrosion resistant steel
|
|
where are identification marks located on rigid tubing
|
near the fitting and in each compartment
|
|
when identification tape is used on rigid tubing in military aircraft the function if identified by
|
color,wording, and symbols on 1 inch wide tape
|
|
PHDAN
|
carbon dioxide,gaseous oxygen, nitrogen gas, and freon
|
|
what method is used to identify the specifications of flexible tubing
|
a code of dots and dashes printed on the tubing
|
|
course
|
the intended horizontal direction of travel
|
|
heading
|
the horizontal direction in which the aircraft is pointed
|
|
bearing
|
the horizontal direction of one terrestrial object from another
|
|
distance
|
the seperation between two points measured in some scaler quantity
|
|
planes that pass through the earth perpendicular to the earths rotational axis intersect with the earths surface to form circles known as
|
parallels
|
|
agonic
|
an irregular line connection points on a map of the earth indicating where a compass points north
|
|
isogonic
|
an irregular line connecting points on a map of the earth indicating where there is the same variation to true north
|
|
variation
|
the angular difference between the directions of true north and magnetic north at a particular location
|
|
deviation
|
the angular difference between the direction of the earths magnetic field and the compass reading due to nearby electromagnetic influences
|
|
the difference between the direction of the earths magnetic field and the horizontal at any location on the earths surface is known as
|
magnetic dip
|
|
a line on a map that connects all places having equal dip angles is known as
|
isoclinic
|
|
the aircraft navigator is plotting the present position by using aircraft course and speed, last known position, elapsed time, and any changes in speed and course since last known position. what type of navigation is this?
|
dead reckoning
|
|
accelerometers in inertial navigation equipment are mounted on the platform that remains perpendicular to the earths gravitational field at all times to sense
|
vehicle accelerations only
|
|
int he compass system what unit senses the direction of the flux lines of the earths magnetic field?
|
the flux valve
|
|
a displacement gyro provides what signal
|
azimuth, pitch and roll
|
|
roll control transmitter
|
rolls signals to the AFCS control amplifier
|
|
outer roll
|
roll signals to the indicators
|
|
pitch servo control
|
pitch signals to the indicators
|
|
the directional gyro pitch gimbal is maintained perpendicular to the surface of the earth by a motor generator that is driven by the amplified output of
|
the vertical gyros pitch servo control transmitter
|
|
the aircraft horizontal situation indicator will provide whhat item of information?
|
the aircrafts deviation from a selected course
|
|
the distance counter of the bdhi displays
|
distance to base, distance to target, distance to ground electronic station
|
|
free mode
|
used in areas where the earths magnetic field is appreciably distorted
|
|
slaved mode
|
used in normal conditions
|
|
compass mode
|
used when the displacement gyros signals are not reliable
|
|
free mode
|
used when the flux vlave signal is unreliable
|
|
what component provides the timing switching and voltages used for erection, monitoring, and leveling AHRS displacement gyroscopes
|
Amplifier power supply
|
|
the compass adapter compensator provides correct heading information to the attitude indicator when its operating in
|
FREE, COMPASS and SLAVED
|
|
the latitude degrees control on the compass controller provides a signal to the directional gyroscope for the compensation of
|
apparent drift
|
|
in which of the following modes of operation will the directional gyro provide azimuth only information to the indicator
|
FREE
|
|
the two basic categories of navigation
|
position fixing and dead reckoning
|
|
dead reckoning is the process by which position is calculated from
|
course,speed, elapsed time and previous position
|
|
the inertial navigation system is unique to for what reason
|
it is independent of its operating environment
|
|
every body continues its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line, u nless its compelled to change that state by forces impressed upon it. This statement follows what law
|
newtons first line of motion
|
|
acceleration is proportional tot he resultant force and is in the same direction as that force. this follows what law
|
newtons second law of motion
|
|
what statement defines the term velocity and acceleration
|
velocity is a change in position and acceleration is a change in velocity
|
|
what are the two processes used in an inertial navigation system?
|
detection and integration
|
|
what quantity does an ins derive when acceleration is integrated twice over a specific area of time
|
displacement
|
|
what mathematical process is used in an INS to derive displacement
|
velocity is integrated over a specific period of time
|
|
if the integral of acceleration with respect to time is velocity, and the integral of velocity with respect to time is displacemtn, what is the double integral of acceleration with respect to time
|
displacement
|
|
the mathematical process of summing all minute values of a variable function over a given time is known as
|
integration
|
|
an INS containing only a single-axis acceleration detecting device can detect
|
acceleration along a straight line parallel to the sensitive axis of the detector
|
|
when an object is undergoing a change in velocity(either + or -) the object is undergoing
|
integration
|
|
during ins operation the first integrator(velocity) ceases to produce an output when which of the following conditions occur?
|
the net sum of detected acceleration is zero
|
|
when the first and second integrators cease to produce outputs the INS readout device should indicate what condition exists?
|
the readout has experienced displacement
|
|
for a two-axis INS to keep track of a vehicles position on a plane orientation of the two accelerometers must be such that their axes are maintained ___ to eachother
|
perpendicular
|
|
the gyros in the stable element are used for what purpose
|
to provide stabalization signals for the stablized platform
|
|
what component of the INS provides the primary data for the system?
|
gyro
|
|
what method is used to eleiminate the effects of gravity on the accelerometers on an INS
|
providing counter-torquing signals for the accelerometers
|
|
what is the total number of integrators required to produce an output that corresponds to distance displacement if the input is accleeration
|
three
|
|
what means is used to eliminate the gravitational effect fromt he vertical accelerometers output signal
|
the computer subtracts the gravity component fromthe output of the accelerometer
|
|
the stable element of an inertial platform is isolated from the angular motion of the aircraft by being mounted on what part?
|
gimbals
|
|
what means is used to stabalize the stable element of the INS
|
Two two degree of freedom gyros
|
|
any displacement of the stable element from its frame of reference is detected by
|
electrical pickoffs
|
|
aircraft heading and attitude information is derived from
|
angular relationship of the gyroscope gimbals
|
|
what gyroscopic principle is used to maintain the stable platform horizontal to the earth?
|
precession
|
|
which of the following terms defines a pendulum
|
a pivoted mass that is imperfectly balanced
|
|
the process of torquing the platform to a position normal to the gravity vector as the stable element is transported over the earth is known as
|
schuler tuning
|
|
the INS operates about which frame of reference?
|
A non-rotating frame horizontally aligned in plane perpendicular to the surface of the earth and oriented to true north
|
|
by what means is the stable element maintain level flight to the earth during aircraft flight
|
by nulling the synchros on the platform
|
|
if an airraft is flying west in the souther atmosphere what direction centripetal correction is needed
|
North
|
|
Coriolis corrections are necessary in an INS for what reasons?
|
the earth is a rotating reference for the system
|
|
what accelerometer and gyro combinations make up the north and east schuler loops respectively
|
north accelerometer and east gyro; east accelerometer and north gyro
|
|
if the integration process in an INS are to be meaningful what initial condition need to be known?
|
initial velocity and vehicle position
|
|
what three basis forms of external references are used when aligning an ins
|
terrestrial, celestial and intertial
|
|
fine alignment is the process of aligning the platform axes with the computer axes. this alignment is accomplished by placing the
|
X- and Y- accelerometer axes mutually perpendicular to the gravity vector
|
|
during leveling the outputs of the accelerometers are apllied to the gyro whose sensitive axis has what relationship to the sensitive axis of the accelerometer
|
perpendicular
|
|
what reference is being used when a north seeking paltform is aligning itself to true north
|
the earths rotation
|
|
its more difficult to align an aircraft a t sea than the ships INS for what reason
|
the accelerometers on a ship being remotely located from the aircraft, do not sense the same accelerations as those on the aircraft
|
|
in the analytic INS the platfor position is referenced to
|
a point in space
|
|
what type of INS is most commonly used in naval aircraft?
|
semianalytic
|
|
what type of INS is referenced to inertial space with the accelerometers remaining normal to the earths gravitational field
|
geometric
|
|
what typeof INS is primarily used in spacecraft and ballistic missiles?
|
strap-down only
|
|
what type of INS combinestwo navigation system and retains the best characteristics
|
hybrid
|
|
what type of updating process compares the inertial ground velocities witht he ground velocities of some other systems?
|
damping effect
|
|
compensators of the magnetic compass are adjusted during the process of swinging for which of the following purposes?
|
to reduce deviation error
|
|
what process is eliminated by using the calibrator set to calibrate an aircraft compass system?
|
rotating the aircraft on a compass rose
|
|
what is the accuracy of the electrical heading inputs provided by this calibrator test
|
0.1 degrees
|
|
errors in the compass sytem are mearured as the difference between the aircraft magnetic heading, as indicated on the aircrafts compass and the magnetic heading of
|
a simulated earths field
|
|
what is the purpose of the AFCS
|
to reduce the pilots workload in controlling the aircraft
|
|
what componenets are examples of airfoils?
|
fusalage, wings, propellers
|
|
by what means does an airfoil produce lift
|
by creating high pressure on a rounded surface
|
|
a movable device attatched to the trailing edge of an airfoil increases lift by
|
increasing the angle of attack
|
|
if the control stick of a fixed wing aircraft were moved aft what would be the result?
|
the elevators would move up
|
|
what flight controls must be coordinated when banking an aircraft?
|
elevators, aeilerons and rudder
|
|
to compensate for an aircrafts continuous right yaw condition the pilot shoul
|
push the left rudder pedal and hold
|
|
what aileroncontrol is necessary to return the aircraft to laterally level flight from a right bank
|
the left aileron must go down and the right aileron must go up
|
|
the movement of the aircraft nose in the opposite direction of an intended turn is caused by ailerons drag is known as
|
adverse yaw
|
|
what is the major avantage of helicopter over fixed wing aircraft
|
it can fly at zero or very low airspeed
|
|
operation of the collective control causes a change in pitch angle of
|
the main rotor blades
|
|
in hovering flight only helicopter heading is controlled by which control
|
rudder pedals
|
|
pitch and directional control of a rotary-wing aircraft is accomplished by the use of a
|
cyclic stick
|
|
what is the function of the amplifiers and computers in the AFCS
|
to determine the magnitude and direction of the correction needed
|
|
If the AFCS senses deviations from the reference flight conditions it causes what to occur
|
the ailerons to maintain a reference bank angle or heading, the elevators to maintain a reference pitch angle or altitude, the rudder to coordinate turns or provide yaw damping
|
|
the pilot control the operatal mode sof the AFCS through the use of
|
a control panel
|
|
in what AFCS componentare all sensor and command control signal combined and modified to develop output signals used when AFCS engaged
|
air navigation computer
|
|
if the force sensor is generating pitch signal that is used in the AFCS pitch channel what switch closes?
|
pitch force
|
|
pitch and bank reference information is furnished to the AFCS by a
|
vertical gyro
|
|
what is implied by the term vertical gyro?
|
the gyros spin axis is continuously erected vertical to the surface of the earth
|
|
AFCS rate gyroscopes serve to detect which rate for the AFCS
|
pitch, roll yaw
|
|
A rate gyro's output is the result
|
spin axis precession
|
|
a rate gyro is mounted in a flexible gimbal whose rotational freedom is restrained by
|
torsion restoring spring
|
|
heading information for the AFCS is recieved from the
|
aircraft compass system/inertial navigation system
|
|
what component of the AFCS corrects the amount of control surface deflection due to changes in airspeed
|
an airspeed gain control unit
|
|
the elevator channel is fed a nosedown signal when the flaps are lowered to..
|
prevent the aircraft from ballooning
|
|
when the accelerometer is mounted correctly and subjected to a normal gravity force of 1 g, the sensitive element of the normal accelerometer is in what state
|
mechanically biased to produce zero output
|
|
the phase relationship between the excitation voltage and the signal voltage of the accelerometer transmitter is determined by
|
direction only
|
|
what is the purpose of the manual mode of operation of the hydraulic booster package?
|
to provide hydraulic assistance tot he pilot in moving the control surfaces
|
|
a follow-up signalthat prevents control surface overshoots in the AFCSis provided by
|
a control surface position transmitter
|
|
what component of the hydraulic booster packages supplies rate of movement information to the AFCS
|
the modulating piston
|
|
the final amplifying link to move the flight control surfaces is provided by
|
the servo loop
|
|
what type of signal is developed byt he control surface position transmitter
|
control surface command signal
|
|
what type of signal brings back the control surface to the null position?
|
feedback signal
|
|
in high speed aircraft which AFCS mode is considered most crititcal to safetey?
|
stability augmentation
|
|
what mode of operation functions as the basic hands off mode of the AFCS
|
Attitude hold
|
|
what operational mode allows the pilot to manually fly the aircraft without disengaging the AFCS
|
control stick steering
|
|
what AFCS mode of operation enables the pilot to make a hands off carrier landing
|
ACLS
|
|
The SAS 1 system provides electrical control signal that are proportional tot he signal inputs of what servo valves?
|
pitch, roll and yaw
|
|
with both SAS 1 and SAS 2 engaged what is the percentage of control authority for flight control movement
|
10%
|
|
when sensing a yaw rate the SAS amplifier processes the signal to
|
remove long term yaw rate signals
|
|
the stabilator system does not optimize trim attitudes for
|
Descent
|
|
the primary purpose of the stabilator control system is to stop
|
noseup attitudes
|
|
when is the stabilator test push button operational
|
below 50 kias
|
|
the inner loop control system is a function of the
|
DAFCS
|
|
in the pitch channel with the airspped below 50 kias, the pilot can use what to change cyclic stick position?
|
trim rel switch, four direction trim switch
|
|
the heading mode is only operational when wha tmode is engaged
|
yaw trim
|
|
what is a function of the ASE in a helicopter
|
to provide selective attitude retention in all flight axes and to improve handling characheteristics
|
|
to engage the HOVER TRIM ENG button the pilot must have the CYC CPLR switch in what position
|
DOPP
|
|
The ASE control panel has a number of specific control shaped knobs. what are the shapes of drift and CG knobs consequently
|
bar shaped and clover shaped
|
|
to trim the heading of the helicopter the pilot must adjust what control knob?
|
YAW TRIM
|
|
the pilot turns the ground speed control knob for which of the following reasons?
|
to preselectthe forward or aft ground speed to be maintained by the coupler
|
|
the pilot turns the drift set knob to
|
preselect lateral drift
|
|
the function of the cg control knob is to let the pilot make
|
small incremental adjustments in pitch
|
|
what is the purpose of the four gaurded toggle switches on the ase channel monitor panel?
|
to disconnect malfunctioning channels
|
|
with both SAS 1 and SAS 2 engaged what is the percentage of control authority for flight control movement
|
10%
|
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when sensing a yaw rate the SAS amplifier processes the signal to
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remove long term yaw rate signals
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the stabilator system does not optimize trim attitudes for
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Descent
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the primary purpose of the stabilator control system is to stop
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noseup attitudes
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when is the stabilator test push button operational
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below 50 kias
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the inner loop control system is a function of the
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DAFCS
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in the pitch channel with the airspped below 50 kias, the pilot can use what to change cyclic stick position?
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trim rel switch, four direction trim switch
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the heading mode is only operational when wha tmode is engaged
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yaw trim
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what is a function of the ASE in a helicopter
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to provide selective attitude retention in all flight axes and to improve handling characheteristics
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to engage the HOVER TRIM ENG button the pilot must have the CYC CPLR switch in what position
|
DOPP
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The ASE control panel has a number of specific control shaped knobs. what are the shapes of drift and CG knobs consequently
|
bar shaped and clover shaped
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to trim the heading of the helicopter the pilot must adjust what control knob?
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YAW TRIM
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|
the pilot turns the ground speed control knob for which of the following reasons?
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to preselectthe forward or aft ground speed to be maintained by the coupler
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the pilot turns the drift set knob to
|
preselect lateral drift
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the function of the cg control knob is to let the pilot make
|
small incremental adjustments in pitch
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during yaw open loop operation wha action should the pilot take to preven too much movement on the rudder pedals
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apply opposing force tot he rudder pedals
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what method should be used witht he ASE to engage the collective channel in the basic ASE
|
Pressing the BAR ALT after pressing the ASE
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What method shoul the pilot use to change altitude while barometric altitude is engaged
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depress BAR ALT button on the collective stick grip and apply force on the collective
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what channels are contained int he basis ASE
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pitch roll yaw collective
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what is the function of ASE servo valves?
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to convert pitch and roll error signal into mechanical output
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