Ae3 Advancement Test Cycle 203

Front 1

Under what catagory (ies) can all maintenance be performed on naval aircraft be grouped?

Back 1

scheduled and unscheduled

Front 2

An accident free naval career can best be achieved by following which of the following courses of action?

Back 2

taking a common sense approach towards safety.

Front 3

if electrical equipment is to be repaired, what action should you take before beginning the actual work?

Back 3

secure the main power switches in the open position and properly tag them.

Front 4

When an aircraft anticollission light is operating on the flight line, it warns personnel of what potential hazards?

Back 4

aircraft engines are operating.

Front 5

if you are working on high voltage circuits or around wires having exposed surfaces, you should keep tools and equipment that have metal parts what minimum number of feet from the work area?

Back 5

4 feet.

Front 6

The intensity of electrical shock is determined by which of the following properties?

Back 6

current

Front 7

What is the primary reason a person should not move about after recieving an electrical shock?

Back 7

the heart is temporarily weakened

Front 8

when fighting an electrical fire what extinguishing agent should be used?

Back 8

carbon dioxide CO2

Front 9

if you swallow gasoline, which of the following actions should you take?

Back 9

drink large amounts of milk or water and take 4 tablespoons of vegetable oil, if available

Front 10

which of the following statements describes the hazards of compressed air?

Back 10

it can inject minute foreign bodies into the skin

Front 11

When using compressed air to clean out fixtures and jigs, you should observe the proper safety precautions. Also you should maintain the air pressure below what maximum value?

Back 11

30 PSI

Front 12

when using tools you should observe which of the following rules?

Back 12

use tools for their intended purpose, maintain tools in good repair, replace tools that are damaged or not working properly

Front 13

Which of the following is the cause of most accidents in electrical or electronic work centers?

Back 13

carelessness

Front 14

if one of your tools becomes worn, damaged or broken, you should inform which person?

Back 14

work center supervisor

Front 15

what alloy is used to make most non magnetic tools?

Back 15

beryllium copper

Front 16

at the local level you may insulate tools for what type of circuit?

Back 16

low-voltage

Front 17

when you find a damaged power tool electrical cord, what action should you take?

Back 17

replace the cord

Front 18

what is NOT a safety practice to follow when using a soldering iron?

Back 18

shake the iron to get rid of excess solder

Front 19

while using an electric drill, you experience electric shock. what condition is the most likely cause?

Back 19

an incorrectly grounded drill

Front 20

what color is the safety ground wire for electrical tools?

Back 20

green

Front 21

you need to apply voltage to a power tool having a three wire system. the receptacle is a two wire type. to connect this tool to the voltage source, you sould use an adapter with an external ground wire and connect it in what configuration?

Back 21

connect the safety ground to a good ground before plugging in the tool.

Front 22

descrepancies found before, during or after flight require what type of maintenance?

Back 22

unscheduled

Front 23

you are troubleshooting an electrical device that is not receiving any power. what check should you make first?

Back 23

visual indications of trouble

Front 24

what kind of meter should you use when troubleshooting an open circuit?

Back 24

ohmmeter

Front 25

before making an adjustment to any system you should conslt which of the following publications?

Back 25

MIM

Front 26

an ammeter is connected to a circuit in which way?

Back 26

In series

Front 27

When a multimeter is not being used, the selector switch should be in which position?

Back 27

high AC volts

Front 28

which condition is the most probably cause of for a grounded circuit?

Back 28

frayed insulation on wiring

Front 29

for precise resistant measurement, you should use which instrument?

Back 29

ohmmeter

Front 30

What is the formula used to find Rx in a bridge circuit?

Back 30

Rx=R2(R3)/R1

Front 31

which of the following types of meters are contained in the mutltimeter?

Back 31

ammeter, voltmeter, ohmmeter

Front 32

a permanent magnet, moving coil meter mechanism can be adapted to measuring alternating current and voltage if it is used with which device?

Back 32

a rectifier

Front 33

what is a standard feature of the fluke model 8100A digital multimeter?

Back 33

a selectable input filter, a full four digit readout, a power source of 115 volts or 230 volts can be used

Front 34

to test isulation for high resistance, grounds, and leakage, what meter should you use?

Back 34

megger

Front 35

a megger is prevented from exceeding its rated output voltage by the action of what?

Back 35

a friction clutch

Front 36

what values can be measured by using an oscilloscope?

Back 36

frequency, voltage amplitudes, and phase differences

Front 37

what term is used to define abnormal resistance or impedence that interferes with normal signal flow?

Back 37

discontinuity

Front 38

what instrument should you use to troubleshoot fuel quantity coaxial cables?

Back 38

time-domain reflectometer

Front 39

th output of the phase detector in the phase angle voltmeter is proportional to the signal amplitude multiplied by which angle of phase difference?

Back 39

the cosine

Front 40

maximum deflection of the phase angle voltmeter occurs when what phase relationships exsist between the two signals?

Back 40

0 degrees or 180 degrees

Front 41

what type of voltmeter is a precision voltmeter that compares an unknown voltage with an internal reference voltage?

Back 41

differential voltmeter

Front 42

to be classified as a cable, a single conductor must have what characteristic?

Back 42

be insulated and have a metallic braided shield

Front 43

to replace an aircraft electrical wire, you must determine the correct size and type of wire to use. to make this determination, which publication should you consult first?

Back 43

the aircraft MIM

Front 44

aluminum has the tendency to flow away from a point where pressure is applied. this tendency is known as...

Back 44

creep

Front 45

when stamping wires or cables, the distance between markings should not exceed what maximum distance?

Back 45

15 inches

Front 46

you are reading a wire identification code. which of the following types of information can you gain?

Back 46

circuit function, wire size, and wire segment

Front 47

Which letters are NOT to be used to identify a wire segment?

Back 47

I, O

Front 48

what letter suffix in wire identification identifies the wire as being a ground?

Back 48

N

Front 49

heat shrinkable tubing has what kind of advantage?

Back 49

it insulates wire terminals and it also waterproofs wire splices

Front 50

when used on aircraft electrical wiring, the recommended power rating range for general use soldering irons is within what range?

Back 50

60 to 200 watts

Front 51

before reusing items of mounting hardware, what determination should you make first?

Back 51

that they are not damaged and exceed the specification for the items required by the IPB

Front 52

you have temporarily installed suitable substitute mounting parts. when should these parts be replaced?

Back 52

when the required parts become available

Front 53

what should you consider when substituting mounting parts?

Back 53

magnetic properties, size, length, strenght, corrosion, style, special features, lubrication or coating

Front 54

what is the reason for moisture proofing solder-type electrical connectors?

Back 54

to improve the connector's dielectric chracteristics

Front 55

the preferred method of attaching cable terminals to terminal blocks requires the use of what items of hardware?

Back 55

an anchor nut and a flat washer

Front 56

shielded conduit should be supported by the use of what type of clamp?

Back 56

bonded

Front 57

when long runs of cable between panels need to be supported which of the following types of clamps is preferred?

Back 57

AN 742

Front 58

when installing a cable through a lightning hole, you should use a grommet (rubber cusion) if the cable's distance from the edge of the hole is less than what minimum distance?

Back 58

1/4

Front 59

in addition to supporting and protecting electrical wires, what other advantage does a conduit offer?

Back 59

it provides radio shielding

Front 60

what kind of safety wire should you use to support an oxygen regulator?

Back 60

seal wire

Front 61

if an aircraft were improperly bonded what condition would exist?

Back 61

an increased liklihood of fire and a noisy radio receiver

Front 62

a primary objective of bonding is to provide a path of...

Back 62

high DC resistance and low RF impedence

Front 63

when using methyl chloroform to clean electrical equipment you should remove the equipment from the solution within what maximum length of time?

Back 63

5 minutes

Front 64

A generator is not delivering its rated voltage or current. before you remove this generator, which circuit should you check?

Back 64

control, feeder and regulator

Front 65

when a printed circuit is manufactured by the photoetching process, what portions of the plastic or phenolic sheet are actually photographically exposed?

Back 65

all areas covered by light sensitive enamal not covered by the circuit template.

Front 66

exposed copper is removed during the etching process, and the unexposed copper surfaces are protected by...

Back 66

enamel

Front 67

what color paint is normally used for line test equipment?

Back 67

yellow

Front 68

which of the following statements describes actions you should take when troubleshooting aircraft electrical equipment?

Back 68

use line test equipment in conjunction with shop test equipment, follow the instructions in the applicable MIM, use test equipment to isolate malfunctions to a specific component

Front 69

the MA-2 aircraft electrical power test set (stand) is NOT used to perform a complete test and check of which component?

Back 69

generator spline wear

Front 70

the load bank of an MA-2 is capable of supplying dc loads from 0 to what maximum value?

Back 70

500 amperes

Front 71

When using the huntron tracker 1000 what statement is a test requirement?

Back 71

all circuit power must be off, the signal fuse must be installed, and the test leads need to be attached to the device under test

Front 72

the huntron tracker 2000 quadrant 3 shows which of the following displays?

Back 72

negative current and negative voltage

Front 73

when using the huntron tracker 1000 or 2000, you should begin testing in which range?

Back 73

medium

Front 74

When testing analog circuits or devices, with a huntron tracker, you should use the low range of the tester for what reason?

Back 74

defects will show easier, and the internal 54 ohm impedence makes it less likely that parts in parallel with the device under test will load the tester

Front 75

i the SND mode of the automatic transistor analyzer model 900, a good device is indicated by the sonalert when it beeps in what way?

Back 75

out of phase with the amber light

Front 76

when using the automatic transistor analyzer 900 to test a transistor, you can connect the transistor to the tester in what total number of ways of which what total number are correct?

Back 76

6 ways, 2 correct

Front 77

you should use the jet ignition system tester to check the input/output of which components?

Back 77

spark plug, power output of the ignition unit, and power input of the ignition unit

Front 78

the TTU-27E tachometer test set can be used to test which of the following components?

Back 78

two-pole and four-pole tachometer generators for speed and output voltage under load, tachometer indicator calibration accuracy, and tachometer indicator voltage

Front 79

after the tachometer generator that is to be tested is mounted on the tester, what component will control the speed at which it will be driven?

Back 79

a variable dc drive motor in the test set

Front 80

when performing a functional ground test for the EGT system, heat for thermocouples is provided by...

Back 80

heater probes

Front 81

an external ac power supply is required to supply electrical power to a JETCAL analyzer that is used to make what check?

Back 81

EGT indicators

Front 82

which of the following pulses is/are generated by the synchrophaser test set?

Back 82

slave and master pulses

Front 83

the gain test readout from the synchrophaser test set is provided by what front panel component?

Back 83

the calibrated pentiometer

Front 84

which test set provides regulated pitot and static pressure for elevating the performance characteristics of air data systems, aircraft pneumatic instruments, and other auxilary equipment?

Back 84

ttu-205C/E

Front 85

what are the power requirements for the ttu-205C/E test set?

Back 85

115 VAC, Single phase, 400 hertz

Front 86

the TF-20 liquid quantity test set can be used to perform which funcion?

Back 86

measures tank unit probe capacitance and insulation resistance, simulate the total capacitance of a probe for checking the aircraft fuel quantity indicator, calibrate the test sets megohmmeter scales and capacitance indicator dial

Front 87

when using the AN/FSM-17A to dynamically test the transmitter of the AOA system, what type of energy is fed to the transmitter probe?

Back 87

vacuum or air pressure

Front 88

the AN/PSM-21A air-conditioning test set is used to troubleshoot and check which of the following systems?

Back 88

cabin pressure, pressure suit, and air conditioning systems

Front 89

the basic configuration of a typical VAST station consists of which component?

Back 89

a computer processing unit, a DTU, and a stimulus and measurement section

Front 90

What component of the VAST system serves to synchronize instructions between the computer and the VAST system's functional building blocks?

Back 90

DTU

Front 91

what are the three levels of fault detection used in the VAST?

Back 91

self-test, auto-check and self-check

Front 92

what test should you run on a VAST station before you apply power to a UUT?

Back 92

continuity test

Front 93

programmed haults are used during VAST testing to permit the operator to manually intervene in order to perform which procedure?

Back 93

observations and adjustments

Front 94

what is the lowest voltage that will damage or destroy and ESD-sensitive device?

Back 94

20 volts

Front 95

the generation of static electricity on an object by rubbing is known as the...

Back 95

triboelectric effect

Front 96

under which of the following conditions is generated static electricty decreased?

Back 96

humid air

Front 97

what is not an ESD prime generator?

Back 97

synthetic mats

Front 98

what is the minimum resistance for personnel ground straps?

Back 98

250,000 ohms

Front 99

which procedure should not be performed when working on ESD sensitive devices?

Back 99

use of a simpson 260 meter or equivalent to test components.

Front 100

jet engine starters must have which capability?

Back 100

high starting torque and high speed

Front 101

what two sections make up the constant speed drive/starter unit?

Back 101

a turbine motor and a planetary differential transmission

Front 102

the CSD/S is maintaining an output of 8000 RPM from the engine input drive shaft. what mode is the CSD/S operating in?

Back 102

the constant speed drive mode

Front 103

for a fire to occur which elements must be present?

Back 103

oxygen, heat and combustible material

Front 104

in an electronic ignition system, what component develops the voltage that produces a spark?

Back 104

the exciter

Front 105

in an electronic ignition system, ignition is discontinued when what percentage of the rated engine speed is reached?

Back 105

45%-65%

Front 106

in turbine powered aircraft, what relationship if any, exists between engine power and turbine temperature?

Back 106

they are directly proportional

Front 107

by what means does an engine temperature control system on turboprop engines control engine torque?

Back 107

electronic fuel trimming

Front 108

the fuel shutoff valve is electrically closed on engine shutdown by placing the condition lever in what position?

Back 108

ground stop

Front 109

the engine coordinators function to coordinate the power and condition levers along with what other components?

Back 109

the fuel control, the propeller, and the electronic fuel trimming circuit

Front 110

the discriminating device will complete the feather cycle when the condition lever is placed in feather and the power lever is placed in what position?

Back 110

in any position

Front 111

the reference temperature and turbine inlet temperature signals sent to the temperature datum control indicate a difference greater than 1.9 degrees celcius, and a control signal is sent to the temprature datum valve. with the power lever in the temprature controlling range and the TEMP DATUM switch in the AUTO position, the control signal causes the temperature datum valve to...

Back 111

regulate fuel flow to the engine being controlled

Front 112

engine speed is less than 94% and the engine coordinator is set above 66 degrees. what temperature is the normal limiting temprature automatically set?

Back 112

978 degrees celcius

Front 113

dual unit thermocouples are radially mounted in what part of the engine?

Back 113

turbine inlet case

Front 114

by which methods are thermocouples electrically connected to provide an average temperature?

Back 114

in parallel

Front 115

an air turbine starter can be operated by compressed air from a GTC, an APU, or what other device?

Back 115

an operating engine

Front 116

what is the function of the engine start system's speed-sensitive control?

Back 116

to activate internal switches at predetemined intervals relative to the engine's normal speed

Front 117

the ignition exciter provides which voltage?

Back 117

a 28-volt excitation voltage for activating the speed-sensitive control

Front 118

what behavior of the paralleling lamp indicates that the secondary element of a fuel pump has failed?

Back 118

it never illuminates

Front 119

along with the temperature datum valve, the fuel control functions to provide a starting fuel flow schedule and to...

Back 119

prevents engine overtemperature and compressor surge

Front 120

at what percentage, if any, of the rated engine RPM does the fuel control shutoff valve open to permit fuel flow to the engine?

Back 120

16% RPM

Front 121

the temperature datum valve is located in which of the following positions?

Back 121

between the fuel control and the engine fuel nozzles

Front 122

what is the function of compressor bleed air valves?

Back 122

to reduce the compressor loads during starts

Front 123

for any slow cycle operation, the timing cycle for propeller deicers is such that current is supplied to the heating elements for approximately what time period?

Back 123

40-75 seconds

Front 124

the propeller deice timer motor is changed from fast speed to slow speed by which action?

Back 124

adjusting the variable resistor to provide maximum resistance.

Front 125

under what condition will a fire warning light illuminate?

Back 125

when the resistance of a sensing element decreases to a predetermined level due to an increase in temperature

Front 126

what is the purpose of the short discriminator circuit in the fire warning system?

Back 126

to prevent the fire warning system from actuating when a short occurs in the circuit

Front 127

what describes the means by which CF3Br extinguishes and aircraft engine fire?

Back 127

it displaces the air in the nacelle, making the air incapable of supporting the fire

Front 128

what component controls the oil cooler door position when the oil cooler switch is in the automatic mode?

Back 128

a thermostat

Front 129

on an aircraft, what control system serves to vary the exhaust escape area to obtain the desired thrust and maintain safe operating conditions?

Back 129

variable exhaust nozzle system

Front 130

what VEN system components serve to schedule, compute and control engine operation?

Back 130

the ECA (electrical control assembly)

Front 131

when the throttle is moved to the idle position, the VEN area rapidly moves to almost full open. the full open VEN area has which effect on engine performance?

Back 131

it allows higher idle speed; reduces acceleration time, and aids starting;lowers thrust

Front 132

decreasing the VEN area has what effect, if any, on EGT?

Back 132

increases EGT

Front 133

what component provides feedback to the ECA to ensure the VEN is positioned correctly?

Back 133

the VEN position transmitter LVDT

Front 134

what is the function of the VEN power unit?

Back 134

to provide hydraulic pressure to the actuator to position the VEN

Front 135

what is the function of the propeller governor?

Back 135

to control engine speed by varying the pitch of the propeller

Front 136

the pitch of the propeller blade is varied by porting hydraulic fluid directly to what part of the propeller piston?

Back 136

geared cam

Front 137

the synchrophaser will function in what mode?

Back 137

normal and synchrophasing

Front 138

what is the function of the pulse generator in the synchrophaser system?

Back 138

to provide pulses for phase and speed control of the propellers

Front 139

what is the purpose of the phase and trim control in the synchrophaser system?

Back 139

to set phase relationship between the master and slave propellers

Front 140

what is the function of the speed bias servo assembly?

Back 140

to translate syncrophaser electrical signals into mechanical bias

Front 141

the synchrophaser provides which servomotor control voltages?

Back 141

an ac voltage in phase or 180 degrees out of phase with the voltage applied to the reference

Front 142

in the input windings of the magnetic modulator, what parameters of the current control the amplitude and phase of the modulators output?

Back 142

magnitude controls amplitude and direction controls phase

Front 143

in a synchrophaser, what governing mode is used to provide improved engine response to transient RPM changes?

Back 143

normal mode