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723 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
what are the mechanisms of injury for spinal cord injuries
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acceleration and deceleration
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what are the classifications of spinal cord injuries
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hyperflexion, hyperextension, compression, rotational, penetrating
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hyperflexion to the cervical spine by cause tearing of what
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posterior ligamentous comlex, resulting in anterior dislocation
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hyperextension SCI injuries are related to what
|
falls in which the chin is struck
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hyperextension SCI may cause rupture of what
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anterior ligaments
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hyperflexion injury in the lumbar area can be caused by what
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falling on the buttocks
|
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what is torn in a rotational SCI injury
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posterior ligamentous complex
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what are the types of spinal cord dynddromes
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central core, brown sequard, anterior cord, posterior cord
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what is central cord syndrome associated with
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loss of motor power and sensation in upper extremities, imcomlete loss in thoracic area
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what is brown sequard syndrome
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loss of pain and temperature sensation on opposite side, loss of voluntary motor control on the same side as the cord damage
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what is anterior cord syndrome
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loss of motor power, pain and temperature sensation, with preservation of position, vibration, and touch sense in lower extremities
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what are the types of shock associated with spinal core injury
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spinal shock and nuerogenic shock
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what is the management for
SCI |
hemodynamic stability, cord decompression/immobilization, pharmacological, nutrition, elimination
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what are major complications of SCI
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respiratory and temperature control complications, DVT, mobilizatoin/skin care, autonomic dysreflexia
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rehabilitation of SCI depends on what
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level of injury
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what are the 2 layers of the skin
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epidermis and dermis
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what is the epidermis composed of
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dead cells
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what does the dpidermis provide
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a protective barrier
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how ofter does the epidermis regenerate
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every 2-3 weeks
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how thick is the dermis
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1-2 mmthick
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what is the dermis composed of
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connective tissue and collagenous fiber bundles
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what does the dermis contain
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blood vessels, sweat and sebaceous glands, nerves, sensory fibers
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what are the skin functions
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maintain body temperature, barrier to insensible water loss, metabolism, protective barrier agianst microbes, protection through touch, pain, pressure
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skin tissue exposure to burn substances (heat chemicals ect) leads to what
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enzyme malfunctionand protein breakdown
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what does prolonged exposure and extreme temperatures lead to
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cell death and protein coagulation
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what is the zone of coagulaton
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central zone
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what is the zone of stasis
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middle zone
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what is the zone of hyperemia
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outer zone
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what is the area of greatest exposure
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zone of exposure
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what happens in the zone of coagulation
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irreversible skin death
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what happens in teh zone of stasis
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impaired circulation with potential loss of blood flow, potentially salvageable but can convert to full thickness wound
|
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What are factors that lead to conversion to a full-thickness wound
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inflammation, infection, inappropriate fluid resuscitation or wound care, chronic illness, malnutrition
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what happens in teh zone of hyperemia
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vasodilation, minimal cell involvement, often early spontaneous recovery
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how is the size of burn injuries classified
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the rule of nines
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how is the depth of a burn injury classified
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superficial, partial thickness, full-thickness
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superficial burns effect which part of the skin
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epidermis
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what are the symptoms of superficial burns
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erythema, mild discomfort, pain
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when does the pain from superficial burns resolve
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48-72 hours
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what can cause superficial burns
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sunburns, mild steam burns
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what is the heal time of 1st degree burns
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2-7 days
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what part of the skin is damaged in partial-thickness burns
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epidermis and upper 1/3 of dermis
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what is the appearance of a partial thickness burn
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light to bright red of mottled appearance, weeping, blisters
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healing time of partial thickness burns is dependent on what
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depht of burn
|
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what is the range of healing time for partial thickness burns
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7-21 days
4-6 weeks +6 weeks |
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what is the long term effects for partial thickness burns
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minimal scarring to skin grafting
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what part of the skin is damaged in a full thickness burn
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epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous tissue
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what do full thickness burns look like
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pale white, charred, red or brown, leathery
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what is the pain level of full thickness burns
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painless
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what is the treatment for full thickness burns
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skin grafting
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what are complications of full thickness burns
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infection, fluid and electrolyte imbalance
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what are the types of burns
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thermal, chemical, electrical, radiation
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what is the most common type of burn
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thermal
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what are the causes of thermal burns
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steam, scalds, direct contact with heat, fire injuries
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what are the most severe types of chemical burns
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alkalis often more severe than acids
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what do chemical burns extent depend on
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chemical concentration and length of exposure
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what are the causes of chemical burns
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household/industrial chemical (cement), tar, asphalt
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low-voltage electrial cords lead to what
|
mouth burns
|
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high voltage and lightening lead to what
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entrance wuond and exit wound, possible arcing
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electrical burns are produced by what
|
heat
|
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what do electrical burns do
|
depolarizes muscles and nerves, initiates abnormal electrical rhythms in heart and brain
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radiation burns are usually what
|
localized, may look like thermal burn
|
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Exposure to what causes radiation burns
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industrial or medical therapy
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what gets priority admission to burn trauma unit
|
burns of the hands, face, and genitalia, inhalation injury, chemical or electrical injury, comorbidities, TBSA > 10% partial thickness and all full thickness burns
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what is done in the inital ER management for burns
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ABCs, accurate history, wet gauze dressings, tetanus injection
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what is done on arrival to the BTU
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ABCs, wound care, pain management
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what is the parkland formula for
|
fluid resuscitation
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what is the parkland formula
|
4 ml x kg x % TBSA
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what is given over the first 24 hours
|
lactated ringers
|
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how is the fluid distributed over the 24 hour period
|
1/2 over 1st 8 hours
1/4 over 2nd 8 hours 1/4 over 3rd 8 hours |
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what are escharotomies performed
|
performed on all cicumferential burns, often lateral chest
|
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what is a circumferential burn
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involves the entire extremity circumference
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why is an escharotomy perfored on a lateral chest burn
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to improve chest compliance and ventilation
|
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when does burn shock occur
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can occurin 35% TBSA
|
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what does capillary dilation lead to
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increased capillary permeability which leads to leaking plasma which causes blisters and edema
|
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what does negative interstital hydrostatic pressure lead to
|
generates edema
|
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what causes arteriolar vasodilation after a burn
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histamine, prostaglandins, kinins, oxygen radicals
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what are the cardiovascular results of burns
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decreased myocardial contractility and cardiac output, increased systemic vascular resistance and increases pulmonary vascular resistance
|
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what can PVR lead to
|
pulmonary edema
|
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what do you do more fluids after the 1st 24 hours
|
titrate IV to maintain urine output of 30-50 ml/hr for adults
1 ml/kg/hour for children |
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how often are urine outputs measured
|
hourly
|
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what are the GI effects of burns
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paralytic illeus, stress ulcers
|
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how do you treat paralytic illeus
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rest GI
|
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how do you treat stress ulcers
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prophylacticaly
|
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what is given for pain management
|
opiates, sedatives, anxiolytics
|
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how are pain meds given
|
no IM or SQ injections
|
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why can carbon monoxide cause hypoxia
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it is a by product of carbon combustion and has affinity with hemoglobin 200 X that of oxygen causing hypoxia
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what are the early signs of CO poisoning
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decreased LOC, increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate
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what are the later sings of CO poisoning
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N/V, unresponsive, respiratory failure
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how do you treat CO poisoning
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100% oxygen
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what are severe signs of CO poisoning
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cherry red mucous membranes, skin and nail beds
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when is inhalation injury seen
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burns to face, head, and neck
|
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what are the symptoms of inhalation injury
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singed facial hair, swollen lips and mouth, burns to the airway can cause swelling that blocking flow of air into the lungs
|
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how is an inhalation injury diagnosed
|
ABG's, fiberoptic bronchoscopy
|
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how is inhalation injury treated
|
mechanical ventilation, suctioning, bronchdilators, pulmonary hygiene, tracheostomy
|
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what do you do for chemical burns
|
remove all clothing, rinse generously with water or saline, alkali burns to eyes require hours of irrigation
|
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how do you treat electrical burns
|
EKG and baseline cardiac enzymes
titrate IV fluids to urine output of 100-150 ml/hr (2ml/kg/hr in kids) to prevent myoglobulinuria and concurrent renal failure |
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what is done for wound cleansing in burns
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hydrotherapy, topical antibiotics, and dressings
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what do you need to watch in topical antibiotics
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watch WBC with silvadene, ointments to face
|
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how are dressings applied to burns
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lightly as possible, fine mesh gauze to face or open, tube gauze
|
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what are the types of debridement
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mechanical, enzymatic, surgical
|
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what is the typical surgical procedure seen with burns
|
excision of full-thickness burns with split thickness skin graft
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what kind of graft is a split-thickness skin graft
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autograft
|
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how are grafts left intact
|
staples
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what are donor sites covered with
|
opsite or xeroform gauze
|
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what is done for graft care
|
remove staples, dress with fine mesh gauze impregnated with antibiotic ointment
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what is a homograft
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from live or decreased donor
|
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what is a heterograft
|
porcine
|
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what are the risks for homo and heterografts
|
infection and antigenicity
|
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what are the disadvantages of cultured epithelial cells
|
fragility and contracture development
|
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what is done in rehab for burn patients
|
physical therapy-contracture prevention
occupational therapy-splinting nutrition- supplements, tubefeedings, TPN |
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what do jobst stockings do
|
reduces scarring
|
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what often form to STSG
|
blisters
|
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what are the categories of donors
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deceased cadaver donor, deceased after cardiac death donor
living, related donor living, unrelated donor |
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what is an autograft transplant
|
self
|
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what is an allograft transplant
|
same species-homograft
|
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what is an isograft transplant
|
identical twins
|
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what is a xenograft
|
another species-heterograft
|
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what is an orthotopic transplant
|
graft at a natural place or on the proper part of the body
|
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what are the heart indications for transplant
|
cardiac tumor, congenital heart disease, cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, primary pulmonary hypertension may require heart and lung
|
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what are the kidney indications for transplant
|
genetic disease-polycystic
primary glomerulonephritis systemic diseases- diabetic nephropathy, hypertension, SLE irreversible damage from drug therapy |
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what are the indications for kidney/pancreas transplants
|
end-stage diabetic nephropathy, type 1 diabetes with life-threatening hypo/hyperglycemia refractory to medical management, isolated pancreas for brittle type 1 diabetes without advanced nephropathy, no significant secondary complications of diabetes
|
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what are the indications for liver transplant
|
alcoholic liver disease, cholestatic liver disease-primary bilary cirrhosis, sclerosing cholangitis
chronic hepatitis- viral, autoimmune genetic disorder hepatocellular carcinoma |
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what are the single lung indications for transplant
|
COPD-emphysema
Interstitial lung disease- idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, carcoidosis primary pulmonary hypertension- may require double lung transplant |
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what can't a patient have before transplant
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an infection-active infection can lead to sepsis and clinical instability
|
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what are the common key aspects for candidacy for all organs
|
estimation of patient's risk or developing disease recurrence in allograft, estimation of patient's risk for undergoing transplant surgery, evaluation of patient's ability to tolerate immunosuppression therapy, evaluation of any psychological pathology, assessment of social support, evaluation of resources
|
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what are the lab studies for all candidates
|
histocompatability- blood types, tissue type (HLA)
Panel reactive antibody screen Serologies/infectious disease- CMV, EBV, hepatitis, HIV, HSV, VZV Blood chemistries liver function tests prothrombin and partial thromboplastin time urinalysis 24-hour urine for creatinine clearance and protein |
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what are additional tests needed for liver transplant
|
abdominal ultrasound and CT scan
Alpha fetoprotein levels |
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what are additional tests needed for lung transplant
|
CT of chest, echocardiogram, exercise capacity tests
|
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what are additional tests needed for heart transplant
|
echocardiogram, metabolic exercise training, hemodynamic measurements
|
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what are additional tests needed for kidney transplant
|
noninvasive cardiac testing, coronary angiography
|
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long term success of transplants depends on what
|
immune system
|
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what are the three phases of the primary immune response
|
recognition of non-self
proliferation of immunocompetent cells action against the foreign substance |
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what is the secondary immune response
|
immunologic memory
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what are the class 1 HLA antigens
|
present on almost all body cells "self"
|
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what are class II HLA antigens
|
on B lymphocytes-induce immune response
|
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what are class III HLA antigens
|
on some RBCs and complement
|
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where are immune cells produced
|
bone marrow as stem cells
|
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what do stem cells become
|
lymphocytes or phagocytes
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what do B cell lymphocytes mature
|
in the bone marrow
|
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where do T cell lymphocytes mature
|
in thymus- develop ability to recognize self from non-self
|
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what is humoral immunity mediated by
|
b cells
|
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what does humoral immunity do
|
produces antibodies/immunoglobulins and mark the antigens for destruction by antibodies
|
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what is cell-mediated immunity determined by
|
T cells
|
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what do cytotoxic T cells do
|
kill invading cells
|
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what do helper T cells do
|
stimulate B cells for antibody production, identified by T4 or CD4 markers
|
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what do suppressor T cells do
|
suppress the immune response
|
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what are natural killer cells
|
another types of lymphocyte; attack and destroy non-self cells
|
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what are phagocytes
|
macrophages present antigen to help T cells and cytotoxic T cells; produce interleukins that stimulate maturation of helper and cytotoxic T cells
|
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what are complements
|
series of 25 proteins; activation coverts to enzymes that promote lysis of cells
|
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what happens in graft rejection
|
transplanted tissue recognized as non-self by immune system
cell-mediated- HLA class II antigens on donor cells activate helper T cells Natural kiler cells attack any HLA class I antigens transplanted organ infiltrated with cells that destroy the grafted tissue humoral-mediated rejection also occurs at the same time with antigen-antibody complement promotes tissue destroying cells at the transplant site |
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what is a hyperacute rejection
|
within hours; humoral mediated
|
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what is an acute rejection
|
weeks to months; cellular mediated
|
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what is chronic rejection
|
varying times; progesses for years until destruction of transplanted organ; humoral and cell mediated
|
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what is graft vs. host disease
|
donor cells perceive recipient tissue as "non-self"- cell mediated
|
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how is graft vs host disease treated
|
with immunosuppression and supportive therapy
|
|
what are the skin symptoms of GVHD
|
micropapular rash on soles, palms, earlobes
|
|
what are the liver symptoms of GVHD
|
elevation of all liver labs; degeneration small bile ducts
|
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what are the small bowel symptoms of GVHD
|
liters of diarrhea watery or bloody
|
|
what tests do you run for surveillance for rejection in the pancreas
|
C peptide or glucose
|
|
what tests do you run for surveillance for rejection in the liver
|
LFT
|
|
what tests do you run for surveillance for rejection in the kidney
|
BUN/creatinine
|
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what tests do you run for surveillance for rejection in the heart
|
echocardiogram
|
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what tests do you run for surveillance for rejection in the lungs
|
pulmonary function test
|
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what is the only organ in which biopsy is only definitive diagnosis of rejection
|
heart
|
|
what can be done for prevention of rejection
|
pre-transplant studies for histocompatability and immunosuppressant regimes
|
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what are the pre-transplant studies for histocompatability
|
degree of shared antigens between two or more individuals, panel reactive antibody, human leukocyte antigens- antigens determined by major genes within the major histocompatibility complex
|
|
what medication therapies are done in immunosupressant regimes
|
combination medication therapies
|
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what is the initial immunosuppression
|
higher dose immediately after transplant, maintenance dose defined over time
|
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what is the induction therapy of immunosuppressant therapy
|
usually administered prior to transplant, used for patients with higher risk of rejection, used for protocols to induce chimerism
|
|
what are the drugs used in immunosuppressive therapy
|
corticosteroids, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, azathioprine, mycophenolate mofetil
|
|
what do corticosteroids do in immunosuppression
|
used in maintenance and acute rejection, multiple adverse effects
|
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what does cyclosporine do
|
inhibits cytotoxic T cells
impairs secretion of interleukins |
|
what does tacrolimus do
|
approved for liver transplants, inhibition of interleukin 2, fewer adverse effects
|
|
what does azathioprine do
|
interferes with antibody production, suppresses WBC production
|
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what does mycophenolate mofetil do
|
inhibits response of T and B cells without global bone marrow suppression
|
|
what are the sources of infections in transplant patients
|
exogenous sources- allograft, blood transfusion, environment
endogenous sources- latent virus, normal flora opportunistic-most common, hospital acquired infections, organisms that produce significant morbidity under condition of depressed host resistance |
|
what are microbial factors for infection
|
endogenous sources- skin and GI tract with gram negative bacteria
transmission via donated blood transfusion of blood and blood products transmission from environment- human, water system, air |
|
what are some ways to prevent infection
|
minimize risk factors in environment, prophylactic medications, vaccinations, educate patients and family regarding sources, hand washing
|
|
what are some prophylactic medications for infections
|
bactrim, acyclovir
|
|
what is done in the care of transplant recipients
|
stabilizze immunosuppressant regime, wound care, assessment of organ function, observe for complications, infection surveillance and prophylaxis, strength/mobility/stamina, education
|
|
what education needs to be done on medications for organ recipients
|
immunosuppression, prophylactic meds, wound and tube care
|
|
what education needs to be done on infection surveillance for organ recipients
|
fever, change in mental status/mentation, skin changes/change in wound, new cough or congestion, GI symptoms, change in urine
|
|
what education needs to be done on infection prevention for organ recipients
|
environmental exposures-soil, pets
exposure to others-influenza, vaccinated kids |
|
what are late/long term complications of transplant
|
acute rejection, chronic rejection, infection, medication side effects
|
|
what are some common medication side effects
|
osteoporosis, renal impairment, malignancy, hyperlipidemia, hypertension
|
|
what is blunt trauma
|
injuries are produced by a rapid decrease in velocity over a short distance; deceleration
|
|
what does the severity of injury of blunt trauma depend on
|
energy that is transferred during deceleration that occurs in a crash or fall
|
|
what is acceleration
|
applied to a body when a stationary/slow moving object is stuck by a faster moving object- energy from faster moving object is transferred to the slower object
|
|
what is penetrating trauma
|
object penetrates the body lacerate, disrupt destroy or contuse tissue
|
|
what are the contributing factors of a gun shot wound
|
bullet's trajectory, extent of cavitation, degree of combustion involved
|
|
what is the bullet's trajectory
|
pathway projectile takes as it travels thru body
|
|
what is the extent of cavitation
|
kinetic energy from impact-blast effect
|
|
what is important when evaluating the extent of stab wounds
|
position of patient
|
|
what is impalement
|
usually occurs secondary to fall onto object or sustained by machinery
|
|
what is important to remember for impalement
|
object could be providing tamonade of major vessels; never remove an impaled object
|
|
what is done from trauma resuscitation
|
primary secondary and tertiary surveys
|
|
what is a primary survey
|
lasts 15 seconds:
A- airway with c-spine stabilization B-breathing C-circulation D-disability E-exposure |
|
what is done in a secondary survey
|
head to toe exam-foley, NGT
AMPLE-allergies, meds, past illness, last meal, events imaging definitive care-includes surgery, splinting, meds, consults or transfers F-full set of vitals G-give comfort measures H-history; head to toe assessment I-inspect posterior surfaces |
|
what is a tertiary survey
|
involves repeating the primary and secondary survey within 24 hours for missed injuries
|
|
what is done on the chest assessment
|
inspect, palpate, auscultate, percuss
|
|
what does the chest inspection look at
|
determine the respiratory rate/depth, look for chest wall asymmetry, look for paradoxical chest wall motion, look for ecchymosis, seat belt of steering wheel marks, penetrating wounds
|
|
what does chest palpation examine
|
feel the trachea for deviation, assess for adequate and equal chest wall movement, feel for chest wall tenderness or rib crunching indicating rib fracture, feel for sub-q emphysema
|
|
what does chest auscultation examine
|
listen for normal, equal breath sounds bilaterally
listen especially in teh apices and axillae and at the back of the chest |
|
what does chest percussion examine
|
percuss both sides of the chest looking for dullness or resonance
|
|
what are the lethal six life threatening injuries of chest trauma
|
airway obstruction, tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, open pneumothorax, massive hemothorax, flail chest
|
|
what are the hidden six immediate life threatening injuries of chest trauma
|
traumatic rupture of the aorta, major tracheobronchial disruption, blunt cardiac injury, diaphragmatic tear, esophageal perforation, pulmonary contusion
|
|
what are the causes of an airway obstruction
|
tounge-most common cause in unconscious pt.
dentures, teeth, secretions, blood bilateral mandibular fracture, laryngeal trauma |
|
what are the physical findings of an airway obstruction
|
stridor, hoarseness,, sub-q emphysema, ALOC, use of accessory muscles, apnea
|
|
what is the management of an airway obstruction
|
when in doubt, just intubate, maintain c-spine immobilization
|
|
what is a pneumothorax
|
collection of air in the pleural cavity causing loss of the normal negative intrapleural pressure resultingin compression of the injured lung forcing it to collapse
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of a pneumothorax
|
respiratory distress-SOB, decreased O2 sats, cyanosis
decreased breath sounds on affected side-muffled hyperresonance when percussed on affected side unequal chest movement-tracheal deviation |
|
how can a pneumothorax cause the lung to collapse
|
air leaks from inside of the lung to the space between the lung and the chest wall which leads to collapse
|
|
on an x-ray, what does the dark portion represent
|
dark side of the cest is filled with air that is outside of the lung tissue
|
|
when does an open pneumothorax occur
|
usually results from a penetrating injury; impalement or GSW
|
|
what do you do first for an open pneumothorax
|
emergently cover wound with a sterile dressing-taped on three sides to allow the intra pleural air to escape
|
|
what treatments are done for an open pneumothorax
|
place chest tube (not near wound), intubate if breathing remains compromised
|
|
when does a tension pneumothorax occur
|
occurs with a disruption involving viceral or parietal pleura, or tracheobraonchial tree
|
|
what forms in a tension pneumothorax
|
a one way valve forms allowing air inflow into pleural space and prohibiting air outflow
|
|
why is their increased pressure in a tension pneumothorax
|
volume of air aincreases with each inspiration
|
|
what happens when the pressure increases in a tension pneumothorax
|
the ipsilateral lung collapses which leads to hypoxia
|
|
what does pressure build up cause in a pneumothorax
|
causes mediastinum to shift toward the contralateral side and impinge on both contralaterlung lung and vasculature entering rt atrium which leads to worsening hypoxia dn cmpromised venous return
|
|
what are the types of injuries that may result in a tension pneumothorax
|
penetrating chest injury, blunt trauma with parenchymal lung injury, mechanical ventilation with high airway pressures
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax
|
severe respiratory distress, hypotension, JVD, diminished or absent breath sounds on affected side, hyperresonance, tracheal shift to unaffected side
|
|
what is the treatment for tension pneumothorax
|
life threatening emergency-must immediately decompress the collapse lung by inserting a 14 gauge angiocath through 2nd intercostal space in the mid clavicular line. This will turn the tension into a simple pneumothorax
|
|
what is a hemothorax
|
collection of blood within the pleura
|
|
what is a hemothorax often result of
|
a penetrating injury
|
|
where is damage often seen when a hemothorax appears
|
intercostal vessels, pulmonary parenchyma, pulmonary and great vessels
|
|
what is an exsanguinating hemmorage
|
massive blood loss from severe lung laceration or injury to the hear (2-4L of blood)
|
|
what are the causes of a hemothorax
|
pulmonary parenchymal laceration, intercostal artery laceration, or disruption of a major pulmonary or bronchial vessel
|
|
what is a moderate hemothorax and what can is result in
|
500-1500ml and can result in symptoms
|
|
what is a massive hemothorax and what does it require
|
1500-2000ml and requires immediate chest tube insertion, autotransfusion and possible thoracotomy
|
|
what are the signs and syptoms of a hemothorax
|
signs of both respiratory and cardiovascular distress, severey compromised lung vital capacity, dyspnea and hypoxemia related to massive collections of blood in thel ung tissue.
|
|
what is heard when percussion is done over a hemothorax
|
dullness over injured lung fields
|
|
what should you beware of in a hemothorax
|
potential of hypovolemic shock
|
|
what is the treatment for a hemothorax
|
chest tube-drainage is imperative
IV-be prepared for volume replacement-immediate resuscitation occurs while blood is being evacuated open thoracotomy |
|
when is further surgical exploration required in a patient with a hemothorax
|
if blood loss is greater than 500ml/hr for 2 hours
if hemodynamic instability continues despite adequte fluid resuscitation serial HCT values decline to severely low levels |
|
what is cardiac tamponade
|
compression of the heart due to fluid accumulation within the pericardium
|
|
what causes cardiac tamponade
|
bleeding or air in the pericardial sac increasing pericardial pressure
|
|
what does cardiac tamponade prevent
|
prevents ventricles from adequately filling or pumping blood
|
|
what are the signs and symtoms of cardaic tamponade
|
hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds, tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, elevated CVP, PCWP
|
|
when is beck's triad seen
|
in cardiac tamponade
|
|
what is becks triad
|
fall in the systolic blood pressure, rising jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds
|
|
what is the treatment of cardiac tamponade
|
pericardiocentesis, pericardial window
|
|
what is flail chest
|
multiple rib or sternal fracture, which isolates part of the chest wall allowing the chest to move independently of the thorax
|
|
what is flail chest a marker of
|
severe trauma
|
|
what is seen if flail chest is not corrected
|
respiratory distress, sub-q emphysema
|
|
what is flail chest mangement
|
if the patient is in severe distress or shock-intubate
stabilize the flail segment pain control-opioids, PCA, intercostal nerve block aggressive pulmonary toilet early mobilization surgical stabilization |
|
what does an aortic rupture usually result from
|
blunt chest trauma-vertical or horizontal deceleration injury or crushing chest injury
|
|
aortic rupture in teh leading cause of immediate death from what
|
blunt trauma in pts involved in MVC and falls
|
|
what is the most common area for aortic ruptue
|
descending aorta, can be a partial or complete tear
|
|
what do you need to assess for in an aortic rupture
|
other injury-1st or 2nd rib, high sternal fracture, or left clavicular fracture
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of aortic rupture
|
severe CP radiates from midscapular region to back, shock, harsh precordial systolic murmur, left hemothorax, widened mediastinum on CXR-aorta gram
loss of pulses in lower extremities |
|
what is the treatment for ruptured aorta
|
fluid resuscitation-may need vasoactive drugs
emergency surgery to repair the tear-be prepared for an emergency thoractomy in the ED |
|
what is essential in a ruptured aorta
|
if the aorta is cross clamped, know how long the aorta was cross clamped,
comtniured hemodynamic monitoring is essential |
|
what is the assessment focused on in an aortic rupture
|
CV system
|
|
what difference may you seen in an aortic rupture
|
may see differences in teh presence or quality of pulses between upper and lower extremities or between arms
|
|
what may you see in the upper extremities in an aortic rupture
|
hypertension, precordial or intrascapular systolic murmurs
|
|
when and where does a diaphragmatic rupture occur
|
usually occurs on teh lt side after severe blunt thoracoabdominal trauma
Can occur from penetrating injury to diaphragm |
|
when is there a high index of suspicion in a diaphragmatic ruptuer
|
with a rapid deceleration injury, direct crush to upper abdomen, severe chest trauma with lower rib fracture, penetrating injury to chest or upper abdomen
|
|
what are the major symtoms of diaphragmatic rupture
|
pain and dyspnea
|
|
what is the treatment of diaphragmatic rupture
|
surgical repair; laparotomy
|
|
what causes a myocardial cntusion
|
caused by high speed deceleration injuries or kicking injuries from animals
|
|
when is a myocardial contusion suspected
|
when trauma is severe enough to produce rib/sternal fracutre, pulmonary contusion or patient reccives severe anterior blunt trauma
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of a myocardial contusion
|
anginal type CP refractory to nitrate therapy
non-specific ST segment or T wave change, possible dysrhythmias elevated CPK_MB isoenzymes observe the patient and treat dysrhythmias |
|
what do you do if enzymes are elevated and there are ischemic changes
|
treat as AMI
|
|
what is teh treatment for myocardial contusion
|
bedrest to decrease myocardial oxygen demands
|
|
when is a pulmonary contusion seen
|
serious injury to lung parenchyma
|
|
what does a pulmonary contusion result in
|
interstitial hemorrhage with resulting alveolar collapse
atelectasis consolidation of the uninjured areas of lung ventilation perfusion mismatch from shunting of blood |
|
what are the signs and symptoms of a pulmonary contusion
|
hemoptysis, fever, wheezing and rales, decreased breath sounds, signs of hypoxemia
|
|
what si the treatment for pulmonary contusion
|
oxygen therapy, pain mangement, careful fluid mangement, meticulous pulmonary care, if severe-intubate/mechanically ventilate
antibiotics are only used if a documented infection exists |
|
what do you use on the patient if they need to be intubated
|
neuromuscular blocking agent
|
|
what do intraabdominal injuries result from
|
compression causing crush injury
abrupt shearing force causing tears of organs or vascular pedicles sudden rise in intraabdominal pressure causing rupture of an intraabdominal viscus |
|
what are teh 3 collisions involved in a MV crash
|
MV impacts another object
victim stikes internal parts of the car soft tissues vs. supporting structures of body- shearing injury-transection of thoracic or abdominal aorta |
|
what is penetrating trauma
|
injury as a result of a penetrating object which lacerates, disrupts, destroys or contuses tissue
|
|
what is penetrating trauma the result of
|
GSW, stab wound, or impalement
|
|
what is penetrating trauma management dependent on
|
wound and location, trajectory, degree of tissue injury and complete understanding of anatomy
|
|
what are the 3 abdominal cavities
|
peritonem, retroperitoneum, pelvis
|
|
what is in the upper peritoneum
|
liver, spleen, diaphragm, stomach and transverse colon
|
|
what is in the lower peritoneum
|
small bowel and sigmoid colon
|
|
what is in the retroperitoneum
|
abdominal aorta, IVC, duodenum, pancreas, kidneys, ureter, ascend/decend colon
|
|
what is in the pelvis
|
rectum, bladder, iliac vessels and genitalia
|
|
what are the 4 components of an abdominal assessment
|
inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
|
|
how is an abdominal inspection done
|
remove all clothing, do not remove any protruding or impaled objects
|
|
what is done in an abdominal inspection
|
inspect for asymmetry, ecchymosis (seat belt sign), abrasions, lacerations, or penetrating injury. Do not forget to inspect the flank and back
|
|
what is cullen's sign
|
blue discoloration in the periumbilical area
|
|
what does cullen's sign suggest
|
hemoperitoneum
|
|
what is grey-turner's sign
|
ecchymosis in the flank region
|
|
what is grey-turner's sign associated with
|
retroperitoneal hemorrhage
|
|
what is kehr's sign
|
injury to the spleen can cause irritation ot the diaphragm (phrenic nerve) resulting in referred pain to the left shoulder
|
|
when is an abominal auscultation done
|
always done before percussion and palpation
|
|
what does auscultation begin with
|
assessment of bowel sounds
|
|
what are normal bowel sounds
|
high pitched; every 5-10 seconds
|
|
what is a bruits
|
vascular sounds due to turbulent blood flow
|
|
what does a bruits signal
|
arterial injury or aneurysm
|
|
what is peritoneal friction rub an indication of
|
inflammation
|
|
when is a peritoneal friction rub heard
|
during respiratory cycle in upper quad in presence of hepatic or splenic disorder
|
|
what is a percussion done
|
determine areas of pain, if pina is severe skip percussion and palpation
|
|
what does percussion determine
|
organ location and size
|
|
what does tympany show
|
air/gas filled
|
|
when is dullness heard
|
with solid organs or fluid filled structures
|
|
what is light palpation
|
fingers pressed about 1cm in depth
|
|
what does a light palpation detect
|
detects areas of tenderness or rigidity
|
|
what is a deep palpation
|
finger pressed about 1cm in depth
|
|
what does a deep palpatioin determine
|
determine organ size and presence of masses
guarding or rebound tenderness |
|
what are the diagnostics for abdominal trauma
|
x-rays, labs, focused abdominal sonography for trauma, diagnositc peritoneal lavage, compute tomography, cystogram, laparotomy
|
|
what may plain radiographs show
|
peritoneal gas
|
|
findings of plain radiographs are associated with what
|
abdominal injuries
|
|
what do plain radiographs assist in determining
|
trajectory with penetrating injury
|
|
what are the laboratory evaluations for abdominal trauma
|
CBC, electrolytes, PT/PTT, ABG, types and screen, UA, ETOH or drug screen, amylase/lipase
|
|
what do labs not provide
|
inital evidence of injury
|
|
what does a FAST asses for
|
free fluid in teh peritoneal cavity
|
|
how is a FAST done on
|
hemodynamically unstable
|
|
what is a FAST floowed up with
|
a CT
|
|
what are the disadvantages of FAST
|
unable to identify or grade retroperitoneal injuries, unable to identify injuries to the bowel or solid organs, cannot distinguish between blood and ascites, findings may be difficult to inerpret in the obsese or patient with pervious abdominal surgeries
|
|
when is a dianostic peritoneal lavage done
|
blunt abdominal trauma with an equivocal or unreliable abdominal examination, unexplained BP drop or blood loss, hemodynamically unstable; unable to transport to CT
|
|
what are the contraindications of a DPL
|
pregnancy and if laparotomy is alrady indicated
|
|
what must a patient have before getting a DPL
|
foley and NGT
|
|
how is a DPL done
|
catheter is blindly inserted through the peritoneal fat and peritoneum into the peritoneal space
|
|
when are teh DPL results positive
|
gross blood is present on aspiration
greater than 100,000 RBC greater than 500 WBC if bile, bacteria, or food particles returned |
|
what does a CT scan evaluate
|
solid organ injury, intraabdominal blood, fluid or air
|
|
what is a systogram used for
|
to rule out bladder injury/rupture
|
|
what are the indications of a cystogram
|
gross hematuria with a seat belt sign or pelvic fracture
|
|
when should a cystogram be don
|
before DPL
|
|
what are the normal results of a cystogram
|
complete bladder emptying without bladder emptying without reflux or obstruction to flow of urine
|
|
what are the indications for a laparotomy
|
obvious peritoneal signs, decreased BP with distended abdomen, GSW with peritoneal penetration, stab wound with evisceration, peritonitis or decreased BP, postive DPL, any diagnostic suggestive of intraabdominal injury
|
|
what is the laparotomy procedure
|
incision, control bleeding, contamination control, systemic exploration, closure
|
|
what is damage control surgery
|
abbreviated laparotomy with containment of bleeding a contamination; intra abdominal packing for inital injury control
|
|
what is phase 1 of damage control
|
immediate exploratory lap to control hemorrhage and contamination; definitive reconstruction is delayed
|
|
what is phase II of damge control
|
secondary and continuous resuscitation in ICU, optimizing O2 comsumption and delivery, lactate clearance, core rewarming, correction of coagulapathy, ventilatory support
|
|
what is phase III of damage control
|
return to OR for packing removal, definitive injury repair and possible closure
|
|
where is the liver located
|
RUQ
|
|
what are the hepatic functions
|
assists in intestinal digestion with bile secretion, destroys aged RBC, stores a large volume of blood, synthesis of clotting factors, metabolism of fats, proteins, and carbs, metabolic detoxification
|
|
what is the most commonly injury intra-abdominal organ
|
liver
|
|
when does hepatic injury most often occur
|
with penetrating trauma
|
|
what is grade one of the hepatic injury
|
subcapsular hematoma less than 1 cm in maximal thickness, capsular avulsion, superficial parenchymal laceration less than 1cm deep, and isolated periportal blood tracking
|
|
what is grade 2 of the hepatic injury scale
|
parenchymal laceration 1-3 cm deep and parenchymal/subcapsular hematomas 1-3cm thick
|
|
what is grade 3 of the hepatic injury scale
|
parenchymal laceration more than 3cm deep and parenchymal or subcapusular hematoma more than 3cm in diameter
|
|
what is grade 4 of the hepatic injury scale
|
parenchymal/subscapular hematoma more than 10 cm in diameter, lobar destruction, or devascularization
|
|
what is grade 5 of the hepatic injury scale
|
global destruction or devascularization of the liver
|
|
what is the operative management of hepatic injury
|
resuscitation, damage control, laparotomy/celiotomy for repair
|
|
what is the nonoperative management of hepatic injury
|
blunt injury; without other intraabdominal injury requiring laparotomy, hemodynamically stable, lack of continued need for transfusion, without peritoneal signs, can be done regardless of grade of injury
|
|
where int he spleen located
|
LUQ
|
|
what are the splenic functions
|
blood filtering, removal/destruction of aged and defored RBCs, platelet and RBC storage, phagocytosis of bacteria, production of antibodies
|
|
splenic injury most often is the result of what
|
blunt trauma; compression or deceleration force
|
|
what is grade 1 of teh splenic injury scale
|
laceration: less than 1 cm in depth
hematoma: subcapsular less than 10% of surface |
|
what is grade 2 of the splenic injury scale
|
laceration: 1-3 cm in depth not involving a trabecular vessel
hematoma: subcapsular 10-50% of surface area or 5cm in diameter |
|
what is stage 3 of teh splenic injury scale
|
greater than 3 cm depth or any depth involving a trabecular vessel
Hematoma: subcapsular greater than 50% of surface are or intraparenchymal |
|
what is stage 4 of the splenic injury scale
|
segmental or hilar vessel involvement
|
|
what is stage 5 of the splenic injury scale
|
shattered splled or hilar bessel disruption
|
|
what is the operative management of splenic injury indicated for
|
an emergent splenectomy is indicated with significant accumulation of intraperitoneal blood (greater than 1000ccs)
blood transfusion greater than 2 units progressive decrease in H/H hemodynamic instability |
|
what happens after a splenectomy
|
lifelong risk for a variety of serious infections; Strep. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and Neisseria meningitis.
|
|
what is the most severe infection post-splenectomy
|
overwheliming post-splenectomy infection
|
|
what must be done for the patient post splenectomy
|
must be vaccinated
|
|
what is OPSI symptoms
|
fever, malaise, myalgias, headache, N/V/D
|
|
what does OPSI rapidy progress to
|
bacteremic septic shock accompanied by a decrease in BP, decrease in blood sugar, anuria, and DIC
|
|
what is the mangement post splenectomy
|
immunoprophylaxis, antibiotic prophylaxis, antibiotic prophylaxis, and patient education
|
|
what does immunoprophlaxis consist of
|
a series of vaccinations; pneumococcal, meningococcal, and haemophilus influenzae B and annual influenza
|
|
what does antibiotic prophlaxis consist of
|
2 year prophylaxis, or standby antibiotic therpay; the patient retains a personal supply of antibiotics and takes them upon the first sign of even mild respiratory infections
|
|
what is teh key in post splenectomy management
|
preventing serious infection and pt education
|
|
what pt education should be done post splenectomy
|
even a common cold can be serious, should contact their physician immediately when not feeling well, wearing a medic alert tag and carrying a wallet card is important
|
|
when is there nonoperative management of splenic injury
|
hemodynamically stable, grade 1 or II
|
|
what is the nonoperative management of splenic injury
|
serial abdominal exams, serial vital signs, serial H/H, monitored unit with immediate access to CT, surgeon and OR
|
|
Risk of failure of non-operative managment correlates with what
|
grade of injury
|
|
small bowel injury is primarily from what
|
penetrating injury
|
|
CT of a small bowel injury has a significant what
|
false negative test
|
|
what is teh management of a small bowel injury
|
surgical-repair small perforations, bowel resection for large wounds, ileostomy
|
|
what are large bowel injuries often result of
|
penetrating injury
|
|
what is the mangement of large bowel injury
|
surgical- primary repair, resection and anastamosis, colostomy
|
|
renal injury occurs most often with what
|
blunt trauma
|
|
what is teh mangement for renal injury
|
bedrest with serial H/H
angiography/embolization nephrectomy |
|
when to most bladder injuries occur
|
pelvic fracture
|
|
what is an intraperitoneal rupture associated with
|
seat belt injury with rupture to dome of the bladder
|
|
what is the appearance seen iwth an intraperitoneal rupture
|
appearance of free dye outlining the loops of the bowel
|
|
what is the mangement of an intraperitoneal rupture
|
surgical
|
|
what is an extraperitoneal rupture associated with
|
fracture to superior and inferior pubic rami
|
|
what is the appearance of an extraperitoneal rupture
|
sunburst appearance
|
|
what is the management of an extraperitoneal rupture
|
foley or suprapubic catheter and follow up cystogram
|
|
what is abdominal compartment syndrome the result of
|
result of increased intraabdominal pressure
|
|
what does abdominal compartment syndrome involve
|
all organ system of the body and if untreated it can be fatal
|
|
what are the contributing factors to abdominal compartment syndrome
|
bowel edema from injury and resuscitation
perihepatic packing blood accumulation in the mesentery persistent hemorrhage |
|
what are the cardiovascular changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
|
IAP increases resulting in decreased venous return
decrease CO decreased BP increased SVR |
|
what are the pulmonary changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
|
upward pressure on diaphragm,
decrease in chest wall expansion decreased tidal volume decreased compliance increased peak pressures |
|
what are the renal changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
|
decreased renal blood flow
decreased urine output renal failure |
|
what are the contributing factors to abdominal compartment syndrome
|
bowel edema from injury and resuscitation
perihepatic packing blood accumulation in the mesentery persistent hemorrhage |
|
what is teh monitoring done for abdominal compartment syndrome
|
bladder pressure moniotring-insert foley; instill 60-100ml NSS and measure the pressures by water manometer or transducer/monitor q
|
|
what are the cardiovascular changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
|
IAP increases resulting in decreased venous return
decrease CO decreased BP increased SVR |
|
what is normal bladder pressure
|
0
|
|
what are the pulmonary changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
|
upward pressure on diaphragm,
decrease in chest wall expansion decreased tidal volume decreased compliance increased peak pressures |
|
what happens if bladder pressure is greater than 25
|
requires urgent intervention
|
|
what are the renal changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
|
decreased renal blood flow
decreased urine output renal failure |
|
what is the management of abdoinal compartment syndrome
|
decompression- surgical
|
|
what is teh monitoring done for abdominal compartment syndrome
|
bladder pressure moniotring-insert foley; instill 60-100ml NSS and measure the pressures by water manometer or transducer/monitor q
|
|
what is orthopedic trauma
|
fractures
|
|
what is normal bladder pressure
|
0
|
|
what are the complications of orthopedic trauma
|
PE
Fat emboli |
|
what happens if bladder pressure is greater than 25
|
requires urgent intervention
|
|
what is the management of abdoinal compartment syndrome
|
decompression- surgical
|
|
what is orthopedic trauma
|
fractures
|
|
what are the complications of orthopedic trauma
|
PE
Fat emboli |
|
what are the contributing factors to abdominal compartment syndrome
|
bowel edema from injury and resuscitation
perihepatic packing blood accumulation in the mesentery persistent hemorrhage |
|
what are the cardiovascular changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
|
IAP increases resulting in decreased venous return
decrease CO decreased BP increased SVR |
|
what are the pulmonary changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
|
upward pressure on diaphragm,
decrease in chest wall expansion decreased tidal volume decreased compliance increased peak pressures |
|
what are the renal changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
|
decreased renal blood flow
decreased urine output renal failure |
|
what is teh monitoring done for abdominal compartment syndrome
|
bladder pressure moniotring-insert foley; instill 60-100ml NSS and measure the pressures by water manometer or transducer/monitor q
|
|
what is normal bladder pressure
|
0
|
|
what happens if bladder pressure is greater than 25
|
requires urgent intervention
|
|
what is the management of abdoinal compartment syndrome
|
decompression- surgical
|
|
what is orthopedic trauma
|
fractures
|
|
what are the complications of orthopedic trauma
|
PE
Fat emboli |
|
what is seen on the insepction of orthopedic trauma
|
comparison- both sides of body for symmetry, contour, size and alignment
skin and soft tissue-edema, ecchymosis, gross deformity joints-deformity, edema, erythema, ROM, rotation |
|
what is examined on the palpation of orthopedic trauma
|
temperature, quality of pulses, capillary refill, muscle strength, DTR
|
|
long bone or pelvic fractures can lead to what
|
fat emboli
|
|
what is the best way to prevent emboli
|
immoblize the fractured extremity
|
|
how can the fractured extermity be immobilized
|
MAST trousers in the field
|
|
pelvic fractures may cause what
|
serious intraabdominal injury
|
|
what are the signs of a PE
|
local swelling, tenderness, deformity, unusual pelic movement and eccymosis
|
|
what do you assess in a pelic fracture
|
neurovascular status of the lower extremities
|
|
how are pelvic fractures usually diagnosed
|
x ray
|
|
what is the treatment for a stable pelvic fractures
|
bedrest for a stable fracture- up to 6 weeks
|
|
upper extremity fractures may affect what
|
ability to do ADLs
|
|
fractures of the upper extremities may require what
|
casting, percutaneous pins
|
|
upper extremity fractures may affect what
|
ability to do ADLs
|
|
what do you monitor in an upper extremity fracture
|
neurovascular status
pain |
|
fractures of the upper extremities may require what
|
casting, percutaneous pins
|
|
what helps mortality and morbidity of lower extremity fractures
|
early internal fixation
|
|
what do you monitor in an upper extremity fracture
|
neurovascular status
pain |
|
lower extremity fractures may require what
|
plates and pinning
|
|
what helps mortality and morbidity of lower extremity fractures
|
early internal fixation
|
|
what do you monitor in lower extremity fractures
|
NVS
Pain |
|
lower extremity fractures may require what
|
plates and pinning
|
|
what is important in extremity trauma
|
important to splint until bone can be reset
|
|
what do you monitor in lower extremity fractures
|
NVS
Pain |
|
what does splinting do
|
immobilizes the bone, aids in control of hemorrhage, reduce pain and prevent furthur injury
|
|
what is important in extremity trauma
|
important to splint until bone can be reset
|
|
what are the complications of extemity trauma
|
compartment syndrome, pulmonary embolism, fat embolism
|
|
what does splinting do
|
immobilizes the bone, aids in control of hemorrhage, reduce pain and prevent furthur injury
|
|
what is compartment syndrome
|
extremities havemultiple compartments that encase muscle, nerves, and blood vessels and enveloped by fascia that is tough and non-elastic: when pressure rised the vascular and neuro structures become compressed and compromised
|
|
what are the complications of extemity trauma
|
compartment syndrome, pulmonary embolism, fat embolism
|
|
what is compartment syndrome
|
extremities havemultiple compartments that encase muscle, nerves, and blood vessels and enveloped by fascia that is tough and non-elastic: when pressure rised the vascular and neuro structures become compressed and compromised
|
|
upper extremity fractures may affect what
|
ability to do ADLs
|
|
fractures of the upper extremities may require what
|
casting, percutaneous pins
|
|
what do you monitor in an upper extremity fracture
|
neurovascular status
pain |
|
what helps mortality and morbidity of lower extremity fractures
|
early internal fixation
|
|
lower extremity fractures may require what
|
plates and pinning
|
|
what do you monitor in lower extremity fractures
|
NVS
Pain |
|
what is important in extremity trauma
|
important to splint until bone can be reset
|
|
what does splinting do
|
immobilizes the bone, aids in control of hemorrhage, reduce pain and prevent furthur injury
|
|
what are the complications of extemity trauma
|
compartment syndrome, pulmonary embolism, fat embolism
|
|
what is compartment syndrome
|
extremities havemultiple compartments that encase muscle, nerves, and blood vessels and enveloped by fascia that is tough and non-elastic: when pressure rised the vascular and neuro structures become compressed and compromised
|
|
upper extremity fractures may affect what
|
ability to do ADLs
|
|
fractures of the upper extremities may require what
|
casting, percutaneous pins
|
|
what do you monitor in an upper extremity fracture
|
neurovascular status
pain |
|
what helps mortality and morbidity of lower extremity fractures
|
early internal fixation
|
|
lower extremity fractures may require what
|
plates and pinning
|
|
what do you monitor in lower extremity fractures
|
NVS
Pain |
|
what is important in extremity trauma
|
important to splint until bone can be reset
|
|
what does splinting do
|
immobilizes the bone, aids in control of hemorrhage, reduce pain and prevent furthur injury
|
|
what are the complications of extemity trauma
|
compartment syndrome, pulmonary embolism, fat embolism
|
|
what is compartment syndrome
|
extremities havemultiple compartments that encase muscle, nerves, and blood vessels and enveloped by fascia that is tough and non-elastic: when pressure rised the vascular and neuro structures become compressed and compromised
|
|
where does compartment syndrome most commonly occur
|
in hand, lower arm, lower leg and foot
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome
|
6 p's
pain pallor pulse polar paresthesia paralysis |
|
compartment syndrome may require what
|
fasciotomy
|
|
how does a pulmonary embolism form
|
blood clots form in peripheral veins of lower extremities and pelvis. sudden blood flow changes and an increase in pressure dislodge the clost intro the peripheral circulation. the clot travels through circulation and lodges in the pulmonary artery or one of the smaller branches- obstructing distal blood flow
|
|
what causes vasoactive substances to be released in a pulmonary embolism
|
tissue typoxia
|
|
what happens when vasoactive substances are released
|
increase pulmonary resistance, right ventricular strain/failure, shock
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of a pulmonary embolism
|
new onset of dyspnea, sudden onset of chest pain, pale, dusky, cyanotic skin, hemoptysis, fever, increased anxiety, decreased level of consciousness, pleuritic pain, bronchial breath sounds, hypoxemia
|
|
what are the diagnositcs for PE
|
EKG-may see changes
CXR-WNL initally but later will show s/s of atelectasis of infarction d-dimer-specific test for fibrin split products; positive if greater than 500 V/Q scan-WNL or show a perfusion deficit spiral chest CT pulmonary angiogram |
|
what does a normal VQ scan show
|
equal distribution of gas (darker spots)
|
|
what does a PE V/Q scan show
|
gas is not taken into the perfused area (no picture or very light/cold spots
|
|
how do you ensure an adequate interpretaton of a V/Q scan
|
read in conjunction with CXR
|
|
what is the most definitve diagnostic tool for diagnosing a PE
|
pulmonary angiogram
|
|
what is the goal of PE treatment
|
improve gas exchange and pulmonary tissue perfusion
|
|
what is the treatment of PE
|
high fowlers postion, supplemental oxygen, mechanical ventilation, pain management, heparin therapy, low molecular weight heparin, fibrinolytics, hemodynamically unstable, filter
|
|
what does high fowlers postion do
|
faciitates breathing; increases diaphragmatic excursion
|
|
what do you have to monitor when giving heparin therapy
|
PTT-keep at 2-2.5xnormal
|
|
what does a fat embolism usually occur from
|
traumatic injury to long bones, pelvis, and multiple skeletal fractures
|
|
when are fat embolisms usually seen
|
24-48 hours post injury
|
|
wht are the signs and symptoms of a fat embolism
|
tachycardia, tachypnea, alkolosis, low grade fever, new onset dyspnea, hypocarbia, increased respiratory rate and effort, CXR with new pulmonary inflitrates
|
|
what is the treatment for a fat emboli aimed at
|
preserving pulmonary function and maintaining hemodynamic stability
|
|
what is the treatment for fat emboli
|
immobilize injuries to prevent emboli from occurring, supplemental oxygen, possible intubation/mechanical ventilation, monitor hemodynamic status, monitor for cardiac dysrhythmias
|
|
what do arterial, central venous, and pulmonary artery catheters measure
|
pressure
|
|
what are the serious risks of inserting a catheter
|
infection and bleeding
|
|
where are central venous pressure lines seen
|
on the floor
|
|
where are arterial lines and pulmonary artery catheters seen
|
in critical care units
|
|
when are catherters inserted
|
with MI's, trauma, septic, burns, there is a real potential for ineffective tissue/cellular perfusion
|
|
what are the components to all pressure monitoring systems
|
invasive catheter, high pressure tubing, transducer, flush system
bedside monitor |
|
what does high pressure tubing do
|
firm do reflect high pressure transducer, not to surrounding air
|
|
what does the tranducer do
|
converts mechanical energy to electrical energy
|
|
what is the vent/stopcock for
|
opening to atmosphere for zeroing
|
|
what is zeroing for
|
to accouint for descrepancy in atomospheric pressures
|
|
what is dynamic pressure
|
the kinetic energy of the moving fluid (BP)
|
|
what is the residual or static pressure
|
the static pressure within the vessel (BP)
|
|
what is the hydrostatic pressure
|
weight of teh fluid in a fluid filled column
|
|
where is the transducer supposed to be
|
level with the heart- 4th intercostal space and midaxillary line
|
|
what happens if the transducer is lower than the heart
|
pressure increases
|
|
what do A-lines do
|
direct and continuous monitoring of systolic and diastolic BP
assessf fluid volume status monitor effects of vasoactive drugs obtain ABGs and other blood samples intra aortic balloon pump mean arterial pressure |
|
what is a mean aterial pressure
|
average driving force of teh movement of blood in arterial system throughout systole and diastole
|
|
what is the equation for a mean BP
|
(sbp+2(DBP))/3
|
|
what is a normal MAP
|
70-90
|
|
what happens when a map is less than 60
|
jeopardizes coronary artery perfusion in brain and kidneys and other vital organ perfusion
|
|
what happens if the MAP is greater than 105
|
indicates hypertension or vasocontrictive disease
|
|
what are the a line sites
|
radial and femoral arteries
|
|
what are the complications of a lines
|
infection, accidental blood loss, imparied circulation, embolus, hematoma, electrical hazards
|
|
what factors can cause inaccurate readings on an A line
|
transducer is to high or low, transducer is not zeroed, waveform is underdamped, mean arterial pressure reads falsely high, you start nitroprusside, calibration is off, system underreads by 10, MAP flasely low, you give fluid or start dopamine
|
|
what can new A lines give
|
MAP, CO, continous systolic and diastolic BP
|
|
what is cardiac output
|
heart rate per minute times stroke volume
|
|
what is the normal cardiac output
|
4-6L/m
|
|
what is preload
|
amount of pressure or stretch exerted on the walls of the ventricle by the volume of blood filling the ventricle at the end of diastole
volume of blood within the ventricle at the end of diastole |
|
what does too much prelaod do
|
overstretches ventricles
|
|
what does too little preload do
|
doesn't stretch enough
|
|
how is preload on teh right side measured
|
CVP catheter
|
|
prelaod on the right side is what
|
RT atrial pressure
|
|
how is preload on the left side measured
|
pulmonary artery catheter
|
|
what is the afterload
|
resistance against which the Right and Left ventricles ahve to contract; sum of all teh forces of all the loads against which the ventricle must shorten to eject blood out into the circulation
|
|
what happens in the afterload is too high
|
the heart works harder to get the valve open, uses more oxygen, the ventricle does't empty well, cardiac output decreases
|
|
what is seen if the afterload is too low
|
the ventricle generates very little pressure to open
weak contraction cardiac output decreases |
|
what is contractility
|
force and velocity of myocardial fiber shortening-it is independent of preload and afterload
|
|
how is contractility measured
|
LVSWI
|
|
what is the LVSWI
|
work involved in moving blood against the resistance
|
|
how is lvswi measured
|
Pap catheters
|
|
what are the normal levels of cardiac index
|
2.4-4.0
|
|
what is cvp
|
central venous pressure
|
|
what does the CVP measure
|
pressure on right side of heart
|
|
what is the levels of CVP
|
2.8 cm water or 2-6 mmhg
|
|
what does low CVP indicate
|
inadequate venous return because of fluid deficit or hypovolemia, too much vasodilating drug
|
|
what does a high CVP indicate
|
inadequate right ventricular emptying because of fluid overload, rt ventriculat failure or pulmonary disorders
|
|
where is a CVP inserted
|
IJ or subclavian
|
|
where is the tip of theCVP
|
superior vena cava
|
|
what is the difference in pulse between overload and rt. sided failure
|
weak in rt failure, bounding in overload
tachy in failurem, normal in overload |
|
what is teh difference in urine output between overload and rt sided failure
|
urine output high in overload
|
|
what is the difference in JVD between overload and Rt. sided failure
|
seen in both
|
|
what is the difference in edema between overload and Rt. sided failure
|
seen in rt failure
|
|
what measures the pressure on the left side of the heart
|
pulmonary artery catheters
|
|
where are pulmonary artery catheters inserted
|
internal jugular or subclavian
|
|
what shows pressurese on the left side of the heart
|
PA diastolic pressure
|
|
what are the normal levels of PA diastolic pressure
|
8-15
|
|
what does PA diastolic estimate
|
the left ventricular prelaod status; amount of stretch in myocardium at end of diastole;volume of blood within left ventricle at end of diastole
|
|
what does pulmonary artery wedge pressure measure
|
left ventricular end diastolic pressure or left ventricular preload
|
|
what is the normal PA wedge pressure
|
4-12
|
|
what do you do if you see al ow PAWP or PAD
|
fluid or blood replacement, vasoconstrictors
|
|
what do you do if there is a high PAP and PAWP
|
diuretics, fluid restriction, NTG, enhancing contractility decreasing afterlaod with arteriole vasodilators
|
|
how is afterlaod calculated
|
SVR
|
|
how is contractility calculated
|
LVSWI
|
|
what is a pacemaker
|
a device that generates an electrical impulse.
|
|
what is the purpose of a pacemaker
|
to deliver an electrical impulse to the heart at needed.
|
|
what are the types of pacemakers
|
transcutaneous, temporary, permanent
|
|
when to you use a transcutaneous pacemaker
|
when evern the patients rhythm strip/ekg shows that the hearts normal pacemaker and the hearts back up pacemakers aren't kicking to save the heart
|
|
what are the implications for a transcutaneous pacemaker
|
very painful, adjust output and rate, valium-mophine, stop gap until other pacemaker can be implanted
|
|
what does an impulse to the heart from a pacemaker do
|
depolarizes the heart resulting in a contraction
|
|
what do you need to set when putting in a pacemaker
|
rate, output and sensitivity
|
|
what do you set the rate at with a pacemaker
|
60-80 unless overdrive pacing
|
|
what do you set the output at
|
find of how much current/output you need to capture to make the heart depolarize then multiply by 2
|
|
what should you set the sensitivity at
|
1mV
|
|
how are bipolar leads set up
|
negative end touches the heart, positive end is on same catheter little more proximal
|
|
what are unilateral leads set up
|
negative end touches heart, positive is the generator. much greater sensing area
|
|
how are bipolar leads set up
|
negative end touches the heart, positive end is on same catheter little more proximal
|
|
what is the risk of a transveous pacemaker
|
threading anything into the heart, possibility for deadly arrhythmia, bleeding, infection, puncture heart or lung, microshock. failure to pace, capute or sense
|
|
what are unilateral leads set up
|
negative end touches heart, positive is the generator. much greater sensing area
|
|
what are the types of external pacemakers
|
transvenous, epicardial, transthoracic
|
|
what is the risk of a transveous pacemaker
|
threading anything into the heart, possibility for deadly arrhythmia, bleeding, infection, puncture heart or lung, microshock. failure to pace, capute or sense
|
|
where are pacemaker leads placed
|
tip of lead in RA or RV depending on where pacing needed or for biventricular, left ventricular lead through coronary sinus into cardiac vein on surface of LV
|
|
what are the types of external pacemakers
|
transvenous, epicardial, transthoracic
|
|
what does the first letter in the mode represent
|
what the pacemaker is pacing
|
|
where are pacemaker leads placed
|
tip of lead in RA or RV depending on where pacing needed or for biventricular, left ventricular lead through coronary sinus into cardiac vein on surface of LV
|
|
what does the second letter in the mode represent
|
sensing, what the pacemaker is looking at to determine if the pacer should fire
|
|
what does the first letter in the mode represent
|
what the pacemaker is pacing
|
|
what does the third column represent
|
the responsek, what the pacemaker does now, knowing what was sensed
I=inhibit T=trigger |
|
what does the second letter in the mode represent
|
sensing, what the pacemaker is looking at to determine if the pacer should fire
|
|
what is failure to capture
|
see pacer spikes but no contraction/depolarization follows. call
|
|
how are bipolar leads set up
|
negative end touches the heart, positive end is on same catheter little more proximal
|
|
what does the third column represent
|
the responsek, what the pacemaker does now, knowing what was sensed
I=inhibit T=trigger |
|
what are unilateral leads set up
|
negative end touches heart, positive is the generator. much greater sensing area
|
|
what is failure to sense
|
under sensing: see pacer spikes too soon after an intrinsic beat or see with no relation
|
|
what is failure to capture
|
see pacer spikes but no contraction/depolarization follows. call
|
|
what is the risk of a transveous pacemaker
|
threading anything into the heart, possibility for deadly arrhythmia, bleeding, infection, puncture heart or lung, microshock. failure to pace, capute or sense
|
|
what is failure to sense
|
under sensing: see pacer spikes too soon after an intrinsic beat or see with no relation
|
|
what are the types of external pacemakers
|
transvenous, epicardial, transthoracic
|
|
where are pacemaker leads placed
|
tip of lead in RA or RV depending on where pacing needed or for biventricular, left ventricular lead through coronary sinus into cardiac vein on surface of LV
|
|
what does the first letter in the mode represent
|
what the pacemaker is pacing
|
|
what does the second letter in the mode represent
|
sensing, what the pacemaker is looking at to determine if the pacer should fire
|
|
what does the third column represent
|
the responsek, what the pacemaker does now, knowing what was sensed
I=inhibit T=trigger |
|
what is failure to capture
|
see pacer spikes but no contraction/depolarization follows. call
|
|
what is failure to sense
|
under sensing: see pacer spikes too soon after an intrinsic beat or see with no relation
|
|
what is failure to pace
|
pacer isnt working, no spikes
|
|
when should people with a pacemaker call
|
with fever and chills
lightheaded, fainting, lack of energy, rapid pounding heart beat or skipped beat, usually they don't check their pulse, may need telephone monitoring device |
|
what are the requirements for a successful CABG
|
significant lesion, space above and below the lesion, viable dissue distal to the graft
|
|
what are the indications for CABG surgery
|
angina-intractable or unstable
acute myocardia infarction CHF |
|
what are the types of grafts used
|
saphenous veins, internal mammary artery graft, radial artery graft
|
|
what is the preoperative nursing care for a CABG
|
Physical exam-HP, chest x-ray, EKG, possible echo, pulmonary function tests, carotid doppler studies, IV access, Lab work
clip hair instead of shaving placing bactriband into nares to decrease nosicomial infection rates that day before |
|
what meds are held before a CABG
|
those that contribute to bleeding
|
|
what med is often ordered before a CABG
|
antibiotic
|
|
what do you do with an ICD before a CABG surgery
|
call physician, usually turned off
|
|
where are the cannulas inserted in a cardiopulmonary bypass
|
into the rt atrium and inferior VC
|
|
what is the purpose of a cariopulmonary bypass
|
oxygenate and circulate blood during the procedure
|
|
how does a cardiopulnonary bypass work
|
drains blood from the heart and perfuses tissues during cardiac arrest
|
|
how does the cardiopulmonary bypass have myocardial preservation
|
aortic cross clamping, systemic hypothermia, cardioplegia
|
|
how do you wean the patient off a cardiopulmonary bypass
|
rewarm core temperature to 37.0, wean cardiopulmonary blood flow, prophylactic antibiotics, reverse with protamine
|
|
what are the effects of cariopulmonary bypass
|
third spacing, hypertension, coagulopathy, immune system, hyperthermia, electrolyte imbalance, cardiac effects, pulmonary effects, renal effects
|
|
when are renal effects seen in a cardiopulmonary bypass
|
if aorta clamped too long
|
|
how is an off pump cardiovascular surgery done
|
thoracotomy approach or small midsternal incision
|
|
what is a thorascope used for
|
to visualize the vessels
|
|
what is harvested and where are tehy attached in off poump cardio surgery
|
arterial conduits are harvested and attached to the myocardium
|
|
what do you do in initial trasfer to icu post op
|
extubate as soon as possible, aggressive ambulation, continue with prophylactic antibiotics, continuous gtt tight control on glucose, chest tube management
|
|
what is chest tube management
|
assess drainage hourly, do not strip the chest tubes, avoid dependent loops of tubing, assess the patient for cardiac tamponade
|
|
what do you do more managing heart rate
|
epicardial pacing, digoxin, amiodarone
|
|
what do you do to manage prelaod
|
volume, diuretics
|
|
what do you do to manage afterload
|
pressors (norepinephrine, neosynephrine, nirtoprusside, IABP, rewarming
|
|
what do you do the manage contractility
|
inotropes (dopamine, dobtuamine, milrinone
|
|
what are teh causes of low cardiac output
|
decreased contractility- stunned myocardium, intra-op infarct, cononary artery spasm, air emboli, graft dysfunction, cardiac tamonade
inadequate fluid status (preload) increased systemic vascular resistance (afterload) |
|
what are teh sympotoms of low cardiac output syndrome
|
decreased BP
decrease in urine output decreased peripheral perfusion decreased SVO2/mixed venous |
|
how do you treat low prelaod
|
administer volume
|
|
how do you treat high preload
|
venodilators and diuretics
|
|
how do you treat high afterload
|
nipride, Ace-inhibitors, morphine
|
|
how do you treat low afterload
|
phenylephrine, norephinephrine
|
|
how do you treat decreased contractility
|
vasopressors, dogoxin, michanical assist devices:IABP
|
|
what are the causes of bleeding post-op
|
coagulopathy, surgical bleeding
|
|
what are the interventions for post-op bleeding
|
assess chest tube drainage, correct coagulation defects
|
|
how do you correct coagulatioin defects post-op
|
protamine sulfate (25mg increments IV very slowly)
FFP, platelets rewarm the patient replace volume: PRBCs, autotransfusion |
|
how do you prevent cardiac dysrhythmias post-op
|
prevent hypoxia, hypercarbia, monitor and replace electrolytes, administer drugs
|
|
what is the treatment for cardiac dysrhythmias post-op
|
pharmacologic
pacing |
|
how does kidney dysfunction occur post-op
|
hymolysis of RBCs in CPB results in hemoglobinuria, which damages renal tubules-resulting in kidney dysfunction
|
|
what is the drug of choice to prevent renal involement post-op
|
lasix
|
|
why is lasix given most op
|
to maintain minimum urine output of at least 25-35 ml/hr
|
|
why doyou have to worry about hypothermia post-op
|
physiologic effects of rewarming-shivering, afterdrop, rewarming shock, acidosis
|
|
what is the nursing management for hypothermia
|
assess for shivering, restore heat loss, modify the rate of heat loss, prevent shivering through drug administration
|
|
what are you concerned with about the neurologic status post-op
|
hypoxia
|
|
what are the signs of hypoxia
|
restlessness, confusion, headache
|
|
what is given for pain management post-op
|
opioids
|
|
what are the goals for post-op care
|
maintain adequate tissue perfuison, maintain adequte gas exchange, maintain fluid and electrolyte balance, pain relief, maintain normal termperature, promote adequate rest, encourage self care activites
|
|
what is important after a cabg
|
lifestyle changes-smoking cessation, cardiac rehabilitation, psychosocial management
|
|
how do you diagnosis valvular disease
|
physical assessment, EKG for dysrhythimias (AFIB), Echo, doppler ultrasound, transesophageal echo
|
|
what is the patho of mitral stenosis
|
incomplete opening of the valve during diastole, LA enlargement and impaired filling of LV, see elevation of LA pressure, as disease progresses see symptoms of of decreased CO during exertion and with tachycardia
|
|
what are the manifestations of mitral stenosis
|
dyspnea on exertion, fatigue and weakness, palpitations, chest pain, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, mild hemoptysis, increased risk of getting pulmonary infections
|
|
what are the physical findings of mitral stenosis
|
pulmonary congestion on Chest x-ray, AFIB, diastolic murmur heard after S2, increase in pulmonary artery pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure and low cardiac output
|
|
what are the indications to relieve the stenosis
|
uncontrolled pulmonary edema, limiting dyspnea and intermittent pulmonary edema, pulonary hypertension with RVH, limited activity despite medical management and rate control of A fib, recurrent systemic emboli despite anticoagulation
|
|
what is the patho of mitral valve regurgitation
|
incomplete closure of mitral valve, retrograde flow with each contraction, increase volume load of LV, left atrial dilation and hypertrophy, left ventricular dilation and hypertrophy
|
|
what are the manifestations of mitral valve regurgitation
|
weakness and fatigue, exertional dyspnea, palpitations, signs of left ventricular failure
|
|
what are the physical signs of mitral valve regurgitaion
|
enlarged left atrium and ventricle with pulmonary congestion on Chest x-ray
on EKG-left ventricular hypertrophy and AFIB murmur throughout systole elevated pulmonary artery pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure S3 |
|
what is the patho of aortic stenosis
|
increased resistance of ejectio nof blood from the LV, LV hypertrophy due to inability of ventricle to empty, decrease in CO, pulmonary congestion, Rt. sided failure, sudden cardiac death
|
|
what are the manifestations of aortic stenosis
|
exertional dyspnea, exercise intolerance, marked fatigue, syncope, angina, lt, sided heart failure, slower hr
|
|
how do you diagnosis valvular disease
|
physical assessment, EKG for dysrhythimias (AFIB), Echo, doppler ultrasound, transesophageal echo
|
|
what is the patho of mitral stenosis
|
incomplete opening of the valve during diastole, LA enlargement and impaired filling of LV, see elevation of LA pressure, as disease progresses see symptoms of of decreased CO during exertion and with tachycardia
|
|
what are the manifestations of mitral stenosis
|
dyspnea on exertion, fatigue and weakness, palpitations, chest pain, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, mild hemoptysis, increased risk of getting pulmonary infections
|
|
what are the physical findings of mitral stenosis
|
pulmonary congestion on Chest x-ray, AFIB, diastolic murmur heard after S2, increase in pulmonary artery pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure and low cardiac output
|
|
what are the indications to relieve the stenosis
|
uncontrolled pulmonary edema, limiting dyspnea and intermittent pulmonary edema, pulonary hypertension with RVH, limited activity despite medical management and rate control of A fib, recurrent systemic emboli despite anticoagulation
|
|
what is the patho of mitral valve regurgitation
|
incomplete closure of mitral valve, retrograde flow with each contraction, increase volume load of LV, left atrial dilation and hypertrophy, left ventricular dilation and hypertrophy
|
|
what are the manifestations of mitral valve regurgitation
|
weakness and fatigue, exertional dyspnea, palpitations, signs of left ventricular failure
|
|
what are the physical signs of mitral valve regurgitaion
|
enlarged left atrium and ventricle with pulmonary congestion on Chest x-ray
on EKG-left ventricular hypertrophy and AFIB murmur throughout systole elevated pulmonary artery pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure S3 |
|
what is the patho of aortic stenosis
|
increased resistance of ejectio nof blood from the LV, LV hypertrophy due to inability of ventricle to empty, decrease in CO, pulmonary congestion, Rt. sided failure, sudden cardiac death
|
|
what are the manifestations of aortic stenosis
|
exertional dyspnea, exercise intolerance, marked fatigue, syncope, angina, lt, sided heart failure, slower hr
|
|
what are the physical signs of aortic stenosis
|
chest xray shows calcification of aortic valve,
left ventricular hypertrophy of EKG systolic ejection murmur, palpable LV heave or thrill, increase pulmonary capillary wedge pressures, increase in LVEDP |
|
what is the patho of aortic valve regurgitation
|
incompetent valve allows blood flow back into LV during diastole, increase volume in LV, LV dilation and hypertrophy, LV failure
|
|
what are the manifestations of aortic valve regurgitaion
|
fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, tachycardia, palpitations, aroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, pulmonary edema, angina
|
|
what are the physical signs of aortic valve regurgitation
|
cardiomegaly, left ventricular hypertrophy on EKG, diastolic murmur, hyperdynamic heart, bounding pulses, wide arterial pulse pressure
|
|
what is mitral valve prolapse
|
failure of one or both leaflets to fit together resulting in displacement of leaflet edge toward the atrium during systole
|
|
what is the patho of mitral valve prolapse
|
mitral valve leaflets become enlarged and floppy so prolapse back into the LA during systole
|
|
what are the manifestations of mitral valve prolapse
|
non specific chest pain, dyspnea, fatigue, palpitations, lightheadedness
|
|
what are teh physical signs of mitral valve prolapse
|
characteristic mid systolic click
may have late or pansystolic murmur |
|
what is the treatment of mitral valve prolapse
|
focused on relief of symptoms and prevention of complications: beta blockers for palpitations of chest pain, avoid caffeine, alcohol, and cigs
antibiotic prophylaxis |
|
what are the three types of mechanical valves
|
caged-ball, tilting-disk, bi-leaflet
|
|
what is the selection of replacement valve dependent on
|
patients age, patients size, medical history, ability to comply with a medical regime
|
|
what are the complications associated with prosthetic valves
|
thrombus formation, leaking around valve, endocarditis, degenerative changes in tissue valves, complications associated with prolonged anticoagulation therapy
|
|
what is the medical management for valve disease
|
low sodium diet, pharmacology to treat heart failure-increase contractility, reduce preload and afterload, antiarrhythmics, anticoagulation and antiplatelet, prophylaxis for dental procedures with antibiotics
|
|
what is the nursing management for vale disease
|
maintain adequate cardiac output-assess cardiac output, monitor for signs of low cardiac output
optimize fluid balance-auscultate breath sounds, monitor I&O; daily weights, assess for JVD, hepatomegaly |
|
when is an ICD indicated
|
for patients experiencing cardiac arrest caused by VF or VT
spontaneus sustained VT not responsive to drug therapy syncope with hemodynamically compromising VT or VF during EP study |
|
what is the first line of treatment on an ICD
|
tachycardia pacing
|
|
what are some potential complications post-procedure
|
bleeding or severe bruising, pneumothorax, myocardial puncture, infection
|
|
what should a patient do if shock occurs
|
call MD within 24 hours
Call MD for second chock |
|
when should the patient call the doctor
|
fever greater than 100, three or more shocks, tenderness over site, SOB
|
|
what are thrombolytics
|
stimulate lysis of a clot by converting inactive plasminogen to plasmin, an enzyme responsible for the degradation of fibrin
|
|
what is the selection criteria for therapy
|
less than 75, no more than 12 hours from onset of chest pain
St segment elevation on AKG ischemic chest pain of 30 minutes or longer chest pain unresponsive SL nitroglycerin |
|
what is the exlusion criteria for throbolytic therapy
|
condition that may predispose the patient to bleeding
|
|
what do thrombolytics do
|
stimulate the lysis of a clot by converting inactive plasminogen to plasmin, an enzyme responsible for the degradation of fibrin.
|
|
what is the selection criteria for therapy
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age less than 75, no more than 12 hours from onset of chest pain, ST segment elevation of EKG, ischemic chest pian of 30 minutes or longer, chest pain unresponsive to SL nitroglycerin
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what is the exclusion criteria for thrombolytic therapy
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- recent surgery/trauma, stroke or cerebrovascular event, uncontrolled hypertension, pregnancy, active internal bleeding
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when do you want to administer a thrombolytic
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within 30 minutes of presentation or during transport
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what is the dosage of t-PA (alteplase)
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100mg over 90 minutes with the first 15 mg given as a bolus followed by 50mg over the next 30 minutes and 35mg over the next hour
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what is the action of t-PA (alteplase)
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binds to fibrin at the clot and promotes activation of plasminogen to plasma
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what is the special considerations of t-PA (alteplase)
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short half life, bloused with heparin and infusion started at 1000u/hr to maintain PTT at 1.5-2X control for at least 24 hours
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what is the dosage of r-PA (reteplase)
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10 units given as a bolus over 2 minutes then repeated in 30 minutes
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what is the action of r-PA (reteplase)
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binds to fibrin at the clot and promotes activation of plasminogen to plasma
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what is the special considerations of r-PA (reteplase)
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15 minutes half life, bloused with heparin, asa administered
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what is the dosage of TNKase (tenecteplase
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30-50 mg based on body weight, given as single bolus
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what is the action of TNKase
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binds to fibrin at the clot and promotes activation of plasminogen to plasma
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what are the special considerations for TNKase
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half life-20 minutes, heparin and infusion stated with administration of drug, asa administered
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what is the dosage of SK
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1.5 million units, 750,000u over 20 minutes followed by 750000 over 40 minutes
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what is the action of SK
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wcatalyzed the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin which results in lysis of fibrin
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what are the special considerations for SK
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may cause allergic reaction and hypotension, asa administered
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what are the possible allergic manifestations related to SK therapy
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anaphylaxis, uticaria, itching, nausea, flushing, fever, chills
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what is the dosage of APSAC (anistreplase)
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30 units via slow bolus over 2-5 minutes
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what is the action of APSAC (anistreplase)
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a molecular combination of streptokinase and plasminogen with action similar to streptokinase
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what is the special considerations of APSAC (anistreplase)
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may cause allergic reaction and hypotension, long half life, so heparin is usually started 6 hours after APSAC and only used for 24-72 hours, asa administered
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what is TIMI 3
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normal or brisk flow through the coronary artery
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what is TIMI 2
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partial flow, slower than in normal vessels
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what is TIMI 1
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sluggish flow with incomplete distal filling
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what is TIMI 0
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no flow
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what is the evidence of reperfusion
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reperfusion dysrhythmias, abrupt cessation of chest pain, rapid return of ST segment to baseline, early and marked peaking of creatine kinase
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how is reocclusion noted
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reoccurrence of chest pain, ST segment elevation
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what is administered prophlyaxtically in thrombolytic therapy
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antacids and H2 blocker
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what are the indications for ICD
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patients experiencing cardiac arrest caused by VF or VT, spontaneous sustained VT not responsive to drug therapy, syncope with hemodynamically compromising VT or VF during EP study
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what is the first line of treatment in an ICD
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tachycardia pacing
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when will the ICD generator cardiovert VT or defibrillate VF
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if programmed bursts of pacing are unsuccessful
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what are the potential complications post ICD procedure
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bleeding of severe bruising, pneumothorax, myocardial puncture, infection.
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what does the patient do if shock occurs
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call MD within 24 hours of shock, call MD for second shock
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what does a patient with an ICD avoid
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stay 6 inches away from magnetic fields
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when should the patient call the MD
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fever greater than 100, three of more shocks, tenderness over site, SOB
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what is an IABP
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volume displacement device which provides assistance to the LV by the inflation and deflation of a balloon which is synchronized with the cardiac cycle
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how does an IABP work
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by rapidly shuttling helium gas or CO2 in and out of the double lumen balloon chamber
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what are the indications for an IABP
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acute MI, ischemic heart disease, cardiogenic shock, ventricular aneurysm, aortic stenosis, mitral insufficiency, ventricular septal defect, adjunct to thrombolytics, prophylaxis during angioplasty/surgery, post cardiopulmonary bypass failure, bridge to transplant
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what are the contraindications for an IABP
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aortic valve insufficiency, aortic aneurysm, end stage disease, peripheral vascular disease
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when does inflation occur
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during the diastolic phase of the cardiac cycle
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what does the inflated balloon do
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augments diastolic pressure by pushing blood in the aorta back toward the coronary arteries thus increasing myocardial oxygen supply
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when does deflation occur
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prior to thenext systole during the isovolmetric contraction phase during the isovolmetric contraction where 90% of myocardial O2 consumption takes place
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what do you see when deflation occurs
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increase in stroke volume related to decreased afterload
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what is the most reliable trigger
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R wave
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how is the IABP timed
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use arterial pressure waveform
can be placed in 1:1, 1:2, 1:3 or 1:4 augmentation |
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where does inflation occur and what do you want to see
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inflation occurs at the dicrotic notch, want to see a sharp V
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what are the 3 general rules from timing
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peak diastolic augmented pressure should be greater than patient systolic pressure, balloon-assisted aortic end diastolic pressure should be lower than patient aortic end diastolic pressure
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what are the side effects and complications of an IABP
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limb ischemia, excessive bleeding at insertion site, thrombocytopenia, immobility of balloon catheter, balloon leak, infection, aortic dissection, compartment syndrome
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what are the nursing implications of an IABP
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monitor vital signs, assess timing Q1H, document quality of peripheral pulses and neurological status prior to balloon insertion, assess radial and pedal pulse Q1h, monitor urine output, avoid hip flexion, auscultate lung and heart sounds, assess tissue perfusion, monitor for signs of low CO, monitor sign integrity, maintain adequate nutrition, organize care to allow for rest periods, sedate patient as necessary, medicate for pain
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what is the time required to wean patient from therapy
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hours to days
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what may you see when weaning the patient from therapy
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dependence signs: chest pain, dysrhythmias, and other symptoms of deteriorating condition
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what is done post removal of IABP
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hold pressure for 45 minutes or an hour or clamp, check pulses, lay flat for 6 hours
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