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723 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what are the mechanisms of injury for spinal cord injuries
acceleration and deceleration
what are the classifications of spinal cord injuries
hyperflexion, hyperextension, compression, rotational, penetrating
hyperflexion to the cervical spine by cause tearing of what
posterior ligamentous comlex, resulting in anterior dislocation
hyperextension SCI injuries are related to what
falls in which the chin is struck
hyperextension SCI may cause rupture of what
anterior ligaments
hyperflexion injury in the lumbar area can be caused by what
falling on the buttocks
what is torn in a rotational SCI injury
posterior ligamentous complex
what are the types of spinal cord dynddromes
central core, brown sequard, anterior cord, posterior cord
what is central cord syndrome associated with
loss of motor power and sensation in upper extremities, imcomlete loss in thoracic area
what is brown sequard syndrome
loss of pain and temperature sensation on opposite side, loss of voluntary motor control on the same side as the cord damage
what is anterior cord syndrome
loss of motor power, pain and temperature sensation, with preservation of position, vibration, and touch sense in lower extremities
what are the types of shock associated with spinal core injury
spinal shock and nuerogenic shock
what is the management for
SCI
hemodynamic stability, cord decompression/immobilization, pharmacological, nutrition, elimination
what are major complications of SCI
respiratory and temperature control complications, DVT, mobilizatoin/skin care, autonomic dysreflexia
rehabilitation of SCI depends on what
level of injury
what are the 2 layers of the skin
epidermis and dermis
what is the epidermis composed of
dead cells
what does the dpidermis provide
a protective barrier
how ofter does the epidermis regenerate
every 2-3 weeks
how thick is the dermis
1-2 mmthick
what is the dermis composed of
connective tissue and collagenous fiber bundles
what does the dermis contain
blood vessels, sweat and sebaceous glands, nerves, sensory fibers
what are the skin functions
maintain body temperature, barrier to insensible water loss, metabolism, protective barrier agianst microbes, protection through touch, pain, pressure
skin tissue exposure to burn substances (heat chemicals ect) leads to what
enzyme malfunctionand protein breakdown
what does prolonged exposure and extreme temperatures lead to
cell death and protein coagulation
what is the zone of coagulaton
central zone
what is the zone of stasis
middle zone
what is the zone of hyperemia
outer zone
what is the area of greatest exposure
zone of exposure
what happens in the zone of coagulation
irreversible skin death
what happens in teh zone of stasis
impaired circulation with potential loss of blood flow, potentially salvageable but can convert to full thickness wound
What are factors that lead to conversion to a full-thickness wound
inflammation, infection, inappropriate fluid resuscitation or wound care, chronic illness, malnutrition
what happens in teh zone of hyperemia
vasodilation, minimal cell involvement, often early spontaneous recovery
how is the size of burn injuries classified
the rule of nines
how is the depth of a burn injury classified
superficial, partial thickness, full-thickness
superficial burns effect which part of the skin
epidermis
what are the symptoms of superficial burns
erythema, mild discomfort, pain
when does the pain from superficial burns resolve
48-72 hours
what can cause superficial burns
sunburns, mild steam burns
what is the heal time of 1st degree burns
2-7 days
what part of the skin is damaged in partial-thickness burns
epidermis and upper 1/3 of dermis
what is the appearance of a partial thickness burn
light to bright red of mottled appearance, weeping, blisters
healing time of partial thickness burns is dependent on what
depht of burn
what is the range of healing time for partial thickness burns
7-21 days
4-6 weeks
+6 weeks
what is the long term effects for partial thickness burns
minimal scarring to skin grafting
what part of the skin is damaged in a full thickness burn
epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous tissue
what do full thickness burns look like
pale white, charred, red or brown, leathery
what is the pain level of full thickness burns
painless
what is the treatment for full thickness burns
skin grafting
what are complications of full thickness burns
infection, fluid and electrolyte imbalance
what are the types of burns
thermal, chemical, electrical, radiation
what is the most common type of burn
thermal
what are the causes of thermal burns
steam, scalds, direct contact with heat, fire injuries
what are the most severe types of chemical burns
alkalis often more severe than acids
what do chemical burns extent depend on
chemical concentration and length of exposure
what are the causes of chemical burns
household/industrial chemical (cement), tar, asphalt
low-voltage electrial cords lead to what
mouth burns
high voltage and lightening lead to what
entrance wuond and exit wound, possible arcing
electrical burns are produced by what
heat
what do electrical burns do
depolarizes muscles and nerves, initiates abnormal electrical rhythms in heart and brain
radiation burns are usually what
localized, may look like thermal burn
Exposure to what causes radiation burns
industrial or medical therapy
what gets priority admission to burn trauma unit
burns of the hands, face, and genitalia, inhalation injury, chemical or electrical injury, comorbidities, TBSA > 10% partial thickness and all full thickness burns
what is done in the inital ER management for burns
ABCs, accurate history, wet gauze dressings, tetanus injection
what is done on arrival to the BTU
ABCs, wound care, pain management
what is the parkland formula for
fluid resuscitation
what is the parkland formula
4 ml x kg x % TBSA
what is given over the first 24 hours
lactated ringers
how is the fluid distributed over the 24 hour period
1/2 over 1st 8 hours
1/4 over 2nd 8 hours
1/4 over 3rd 8 hours
what are escharotomies performed
performed on all cicumferential burns, often lateral chest
what is a circumferential burn
involves the entire extremity circumference
why is an escharotomy perfored on a lateral chest burn
to improve chest compliance and ventilation
when does burn shock occur
can occurin 35% TBSA
what does capillary dilation lead to
increased capillary permeability which leads to leaking plasma which causes blisters and edema
what does negative interstital hydrostatic pressure lead to
generates edema
what causes arteriolar vasodilation after a burn
histamine, prostaglandins, kinins, oxygen radicals
what are the cardiovascular results of burns
decreased myocardial contractility and cardiac output, increased systemic vascular resistance and increases pulmonary vascular resistance
what can PVR lead to
pulmonary edema
what do you do more fluids after the 1st 24 hours
titrate IV to maintain urine output of 30-50 ml/hr for adults
1 ml/kg/hour for children
how often are urine outputs measured
hourly
what are the GI effects of burns
paralytic illeus, stress ulcers
how do you treat paralytic illeus
rest GI
how do you treat stress ulcers
prophylacticaly
what is given for pain management
opiates, sedatives, anxiolytics
how are pain meds given
no IM or SQ injections
why can carbon monoxide cause hypoxia
it is a by product of carbon combustion and has affinity with hemoglobin 200 X that of oxygen causing hypoxia
what are the early signs of CO poisoning
decreased LOC, increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate
what are the later sings of CO poisoning
N/V, unresponsive, respiratory failure
how do you treat CO poisoning
100% oxygen
what are severe signs of CO poisoning
cherry red mucous membranes, skin and nail beds
when is inhalation injury seen
burns to face, head, and neck
what are the symptoms of inhalation injury
singed facial hair, swollen lips and mouth, burns to the airway can cause swelling that blocking flow of air into the lungs
how is an inhalation injury diagnosed
ABG's, fiberoptic bronchoscopy
how is inhalation injury treated
mechanical ventilation, suctioning, bronchdilators, pulmonary hygiene, tracheostomy
what do you do for chemical burns
remove all clothing, rinse generously with water or saline, alkali burns to eyes require hours of irrigation
how do you treat electrical burns
EKG and baseline cardiac enzymes
titrate IV fluids to urine output of 100-150 ml/hr (2ml/kg/hr in kids) to prevent myoglobulinuria and concurrent renal failure
what is done for wound cleansing in burns
hydrotherapy, topical antibiotics, and dressings
what do you need to watch in topical antibiotics
watch WBC with silvadene, ointments to face
how are dressings applied to burns
lightly as possible, fine mesh gauze to face or open, tube gauze
what are the types of debridement
mechanical, enzymatic, surgical
what is the typical surgical procedure seen with burns
excision of full-thickness burns with split thickness skin graft
what kind of graft is a split-thickness skin graft
autograft
how are grafts left intact
staples
what are donor sites covered with
opsite or xeroform gauze
what is done for graft care
remove staples, dress with fine mesh gauze impregnated with antibiotic ointment
what is a homograft
from live or decreased donor
what is a heterograft
porcine
what are the risks for homo and heterografts
infection and antigenicity
what are the disadvantages of cultured epithelial cells
fragility and contracture development
what is done in rehab for burn patients
physical therapy-contracture prevention
occupational therapy-splinting
nutrition- supplements, tubefeedings, TPN
what do jobst stockings do
reduces scarring
what often form to STSG
blisters
what are the categories of donors
deceased cadaver donor, deceased after cardiac death donor
living, related donor
living, unrelated donor
what is an autograft transplant
self
what is an allograft transplant
same species-homograft
what is an isograft transplant
identical twins
what is a xenograft
another species-heterograft
what is an orthotopic transplant
graft at a natural place or on the proper part of the body
what are the heart indications for transplant
cardiac tumor, congenital heart disease, cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, primary pulmonary hypertension may require heart and lung
what are the kidney indications for transplant
genetic disease-polycystic
primary glomerulonephritis
systemic diseases- diabetic nephropathy, hypertension, SLE
irreversible damage from drug therapy
what are the indications for kidney/pancreas transplants
end-stage diabetic nephropathy, type 1 diabetes with life-threatening hypo/hyperglycemia refractory to medical management, isolated pancreas for brittle type 1 diabetes without advanced nephropathy, no significant secondary complications of diabetes
what are the indications for liver transplant
alcoholic liver disease, cholestatic liver disease-primary bilary cirrhosis, sclerosing cholangitis
chronic hepatitis- viral, autoimmune
genetic disorder
hepatocellular carcinoma
what are the single lung indications for transplant
COPD-emphysema
Interstitial lung disease- idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, carcoidosis
primary pulmonary hypertension- may require double lung transplant
what can't a patient have before transplant
an infection-active infection can lead to sepsis and clinical instability
what are the common key aspects for candidacy for all organs
estimation of patient's risk or developing disease recurrence in allograft, estimation of patient's risk for undergoing transplant surgery, evaluation of patient's ability to tolerate immunosuppression therapy, evaluation of any psychological pathology, assessment of social support, evaluation of resources
what are the lab studies for all candidates
histocompatability- blood types, tissue type (HLA)
Panel reactive antibody screen
Serologies/infectious disease- CMV, EBV, hepatitis, HIV, HSV, VZV
Blood chemistries
liver function tests
prothrombin and partial thromboplastin time
urinalysis
24-hour urine for creatinine clearance and protein
what are additional tests needed for liver transplant
abdominal ultrasound and CT scan
Alpha fetoprotein levels
what are additional tests needed for lung transplant
CT of chest, echocardiogram, exercise capacity tests
what are additional tests needed for heart transplant
echocardiogram, metabolic exercise training, hemodynamic measurements
what are additional tests needed for kidney transplant
noninvasive cardiac testing, coronary angiography
long term success of transplants depends on what
immune system
what are the three phases of the primary immune response
recognition of non-self
proliferation of immunocompetent cells
action against the foreign substance
what is the secondary immune response
immunologic memory
what are the class 1 HLA antigens
present on almost all body cells "self"
what are class II HLA antigens
on B lymphocytes-induce immune response
what are class III HLA antigens
on some RBCs and complement
where are immune cells produced
bone marrow as stem cells
what do stem cells become
lymphocytes or phagocytes
what do B cell lymphocytes mature
in the bone marrow
where do T cell lymphocytes mature
in thymus- develop ability to recognize self from non-self
what is humoral immunity mediated by
b cells
what does humoral immunity do
produces antibodies/immunoglobulins and mark the antigens for destruction by antibodies
what is cell-mediated immunity determined by
T cells
what do cytotoxic T cells do
kill invading cells
what do helper T cells do
stimulate B cells for antibody production, identified by T4 or CD4 markers
what do suppressor T cells do
suppress the immune response
what are natural killer cells
another types of lymphocyte; attack and destroy non-self cells
what are phagocytes
macrophages present antigen to help T cells and cytotoxic T cells; produce interleukins that stimulate maturation of helper and cytotoxic T cells
what are complements
series of 25 proteins; activation coverts to enzymes that promote lysis of cells
what happens in graft rejection
transplanted tissue recognized as non-self by immune system
cell-mediated- HLA class II antigens on donor cells activate helper T cells
Natural kiler cells attack any HLA class I antigens
transplanted organ infiltrated with cells that destroy the grafted tissue
humoral-mediated rejection also occurs at the same time with antigen-antibody
complement promotes tissue destroying cells at the transplant site
what is a hyperacute rejection
within hours; humoral mediated
what is an acute rejection
weeks to months; cellular mediated
what is chronic rejection
varying times; progesses for years until destruction of transplanted organ; humoral and cell mediated
what is graft vs. host disease
donor cells perceive recipient tissue as "non-self"- cell mediated
how is graft vs host disease treated
with immunosuppression and supportive therapy
what are the skin symptoms of GVHD
micropapular rash on soles, palms, earlobes
what are the liver symptoms of GVHD
elevation of all liver labs; degeneration small bile ducts
what are the small bowel symptoms of GVHD
liters of diarrhea watery or bloody
what tests do you run for surveillance for rejection in the pancreas
C peptide or glucose
what tests do you run for surveillance for rejection in the liver
LFT
what tests do you run for surveillance for rejection in the kidney
BUN/creatinine
what tests do you run for surveillance for rejection in the heart
echocardiogram
what tests do you run for surveillance for rejection in the lungs
pulmonary function test
what is the only organ in which biopsy is only definitive diagnosis of rejection
heart
what can be done for prevention of rejection
pre-transplant studies for histocompatability and immunosuppressant regimes
what are the pre-transplant studies for histocompatability
degree of shared antigens between two or more individuals, panel reactive antibody, human leukocyte antigens- antigens determined by major genes within the major histocompatibility complex
what medication therapies are done in immunosupressant regimes
combination medication therapies
what is the initial immunosuppression
higher dose immediately after transplant, maintenance dose defined over time
what is the induction therapy of immunosuppressant therapy
usually administered prior to transplant, used for patients with higher risk of rejection, used for protocols to induce chimerism
what are the drugs used in immunosuppressive therapy
corticosteroids, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, azathioprine, mycophenolate mofetil
what do corticosteroids do in immunosuppression
used in maintenance and acute rejection, multiple adverse effects
what does cyclosporine do
inhibits cytotoxic T cells
impairs secretion of interleukins
what does tacrolimus do
approved for liver transplants, inhibition of interleukin 2, fewer adverse effects
what does azathioprine do
interferes with antibody production, suppresses WBC production
what does mycophenolate mofetil do
inhibits response of T and B cells without global bone marrow suppression
what are the sources of infections in transplant patients
exogenous sources- allograft, blood transfusion, environment
endogenous sources- latent virus, normal flora
opportunistic-most common, hospital acquired infections, organisms that produce significant morbidity under condition of depressed host resistance
what are microbial factors for infection
endogenous sources- skin and GI tract with gram negative bacteria
transmission via donated blood
transfusion of blood and blood products
transmission from environment- human, water system, air
what are some ways to prevent infection
minimize risk factors in environment, prophylactic medications, vaccinations, educate patients and family regarding sources, hand washing
what are some prophylactic medications for infections
bactrim, acyclovir
what is done in the care of transplant recipients
stabilizze immunosuppressant regime, wound care, assessment of organ function, observe for complications, infection surveillance and prophylaxis, strength/mobility/stamina, education
what education needs to be done on medications for organ recipients
immunosuppression, prophylactic meds, wound and tube care
what education needs to be done on infection surveillance for organ recipients
fever, change in mental status/mentation, skin changes/change in wound, new cough or congestion, GI symptoms, change in urine
what education needs to be done on infection prevention for organ recipients
environmental exposures-soil, pets
exposure to others-influenza, vaccinated kids
what are late/long term complications of transplant
acute rejection, chronic rejection, infection, medication side effects
what are some common medication side effects
osteoporosis, renal impairment, malignancy, hyperlipidemia, hypertension
what is blunt trauma
injuries are produced by a rapid decrease in velocity over a short distance; deceleration
what does the severity of injury of blunt trauma depend on
energy that is transferred during deceleration that occurs in a crash or fall
what is acceleration
applied to a body when a stationary/slow moving object is stuck by a faster moving object- energy from faster moving object is transferred to the slower object
what is penetrating trauma
object penetrates the body lacerate, disrupt destroy or contuse tissue
what are the contributing factors of a gun shot wound
bullet's trajectory, extent of cavitation, degree of combustion involved
what is the bullet's trajectory
pathway projectile takes as it travels thru body
what is the extent of cavitation
kinetic energy from impact-blast effect
what is important when evaluating the extent of stab wounds
position of patient
what is impalement
usually occurs secondary to fall onto object or sustained by machinery
what is important to remember for impalement
object could be providing tamonade of major vessels; never remove an impaled object
what is done from trauma resuscitation
primary secondary and tertiary surveys
what is a primary survey
lasts 15 seconds:
A- airway with c-spine stabilization
B-breathing
C-circulation
D-disability
E-exposure
what is done in a secondary survey
head to toe exam-foley, NGT
AMPLE-allergies, meds, past illness, last meal, events
imaging
definitive care-includes surgery, splinting, meds, consults or transfers
F-full set of vitals
G-give comfort measures
H-history; head to toe assessment
I-inspect posterior surfaces
what is a tertiary survey
involves repeating the primary and secondary survey within 24 hours for missed injuries
what is done on the chest assessment
inspect, palpate, auscultate, percuss
what does the chest inspection look at
determine the respiratory rate/depth, look for chest wall asymmetry, look for paradoxical chest wall motion, look for ecchymosis, seat belt of steering wheel marks, penetrating wounds
what does chest palpation examine
feel the trachea for deviation, assess for adequate and equal chest wall movement, feel for chest wall tenderness or rib crunching indicating rib fracture, feel for sub-q emphysema
what does chest auscultation examine
listen for normal, equal breath sounds bilaterally
listen especially in teh apices and axillae and at the back of the chest
what does chest percussion examine
percuss both sides of the chest looking for dullness or resonance
what are the lethal six life threatening injuries of chest trauma
airway obstruction, tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, open pneumothorax, massive hemothorax, flail chest
what are the hidden six immediate life threatening injuries of chest trauma
traumatic rupture of the aorta, major tracheobronchial disruption, blunt cardiac injury, diaphragmatic tear, esophageal perforation, pulmonary contusion
what are the causes of an airway obstruction
tounge-most common cause in unconscious pt.
dentures, teeth, secretions, blood
bilateral mandibular fracture, laryngeal trauma
what are the physical findings of an airway obstruction
stridor, hoarseness,, sub-q emphysema, ALOC, use of accessory muscles, apnea
what is the management of an airway obstruction
when in doubt, just intubate, maintain c-spine immobilization
what is a pneumothorax
collection of air in the pleural cavity causing loss of the normal negative intrapleural pressure resultingin compression of the injured lung forcing it to collapse
what are the signs and symptoms of a pneumothorax
respiratory distress-SOB, decreased O2 sats, cyanosis
decreased breath sounds on affected side-muffled
hyperresonance when percussed on affected side
unequal chest movement-tracheal deviation
how can a pneumothorax cause the lung to collapse
air leaks from inside of the lung to the space between the lung and the chest wall which leads to collapse
on an x-ray, what does the dark portion represent
dark side of the cest is filled with air that is outside of the lung tissue
when does an open pneumothorax occur
usually results from a penetrating injury; impalement or GSW
what do you do first for an open pneumothorax
emergently cover wound with a sterile dressing-taped on three sides to allow the intra pleural air to escape
what treatments are done for an open pneumothorax
place chest tube (not near wound), intubate if breathing remains compromised
when does a tension pneumothorax occur
occurs with a disruption involving viceral or parietal pleura, or tracheobraonchial tree
what forms in a tension pneumothorax
a one way valve forms allowing air inflow into pleural space and prohibiting air outflow
why is their increased pressure in a tension pneumothorax
volume of air aincreases with each inspiration
what happens when the pressure increases in a tension pneumothorax
the ipsilateral lung collapses which leads to hypoxia
what does pressure build up cause in a pneumothorax
causes mediastinum to shift toward the contralateral side and impinge on both contralaterlung lung and vasculature entering rt atrium which leads to worsening hypoxia dn cmpromised venous return
what are the types of injuries that may result in a tension pneumothorax
penetrating chest injury, blunt trauma with parenchymal lung injury, mechanical ventilation with high airway pressures
what are the signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax
severe respiratory distress, hypotension, JVD, diminished or absent breath sounds on affected side, hyperresonance, tracheal shift to unaffected side
what is the treatment for tension pneumothorax
life threatening emergency-must immediately decompress the collapse lung by inserting a 14 gauge angiocath through 2nd intercostal space in the mid clavicular line. This will turn the tension into a simple pneumothorax
what is a hemothorax
collection of blood within the pleura
what is a hemothorax often result of
a penetrating injury
where is damage often seen when a hemothorax appears
intercostal vessels, pulmonary parenchyma, pulmonary and great vessels
what is an exsanguinating hemmorage
massive blood loss from severe lung laceration or injury to the hear (2-4L of blood)
what are the causes of a hemothorax
pulmonary parenchymal laceration, intercostal artery laceration, or disruption of a major pulmonary or bronchial vessel
what is a moderate hemothorax and what can is result in
500-1500ml and can result in symptoms
what is a massive hemothorax and what does it require
1500-2000ml and requires immediate chest tube insertion, autotransfusion and possible thoracotomy
what are the signs and syptoms of a hemothorax
signs of both respiratory and cardiovascular distress, severey compromised lung vital capacity, dyspnea and hypoxemia related to massive collections of blood in thel ung tissue.
what is heard when percussion is done over a hemothorax
dullness over injured lung fields
what should you beware of in a hemothorax
potential of hypovolemic shock
what is the treatment for a hemothorax
chest tube-drainage is imperative
IV-be prepared for volume replacement-immediate resuscitation occurs while blood is being evacuated
open thoracotomy
when is further surgical exploration required in a patient with a hemothorax
if blood loss is greater than 500ml/hr for 2 hours
if hemodynamic instability continues despite adequte fluid resuscitation
serial HCT values decline to severely low levels
what is cardiac tamponade
compression of the heart due to fluid accumulation within the pericardium
what causes cardiac tamponade
bleeding or air in the pericardial sac increasing pericardial pressure
what does cardiac tamponade prevent
prevents ventricles from adequately filling or pumping blood
what are the signs and symtoms of cardaic tamponade
hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds, tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, elevated CVP, PCWP
when is beck's triad seen
in cardiac tamponade
what is becks triad
fall in the systolic blood pressure, rising jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds
what is the treatment of cardiac tamponade
pericardiocentesis, pericardial window
what is flail chest
multiple rib or sternal fracture, which isolates part of the chest wall allowing the chest to move independently of the thorax
what is flail chest a marker of
severe trauma
what is seen if flail chest is not corrected
respiratory distress, sub-q emphysema
what is flail chest mangement
if the patient is in severe distress or shock-intubate
stabilize the flail segment
pain control-opioids, PCA, intercostal nerve block
aggressive pulmonary toilet
early mobilization
surgical stabilization
what does an aortic rupture usually result from
blunt chest trauma-vertical or horizontal deceleration injury or crushing chest injury
aortic rupture in teh leading cause of immediate death from what
blunt trauma in pts involved in MVC and falls
what is the most common area for aortic ruptue
descending aorta, can be a partial or complete tear
what do you need to assess for in an aortic rupture
other injury-1st or 2nd rib, high sternal fracture, or left clavicular fracture
what are the signs and symptoms of aortic rupture
severe CP radiates from midscapular region to back, shock, harsh precordial systolic murmur, left hemothorax, widened mediastinum on CXR-aorta gram
loss of pulses in lower extremities
what is the treatment for ruptured aorta
fluid resuscitation-may need vasoactive drugs
emergency surgery to repair the tear-be prepared for an emergency thoractomy in the ED
what is essential in a ruptured aorta
if the aorta is cross clamped, know how long the aorta was cross clamped,
comtniured hemodynamic monitoring is essential
what is the assessment focused on in an aortic rupture
CV system
what difference may you seen in an aortic rupture
may see differences in teh presence or quality of pulses between upper and lower extremities or between arms
what may you see in the upper extremities in an aortic rupture
hypertension, precordial or intrascapular systolic murmurs
when and where does a diaphragmatic rupture occur
usually occurs on teh lt side after severe blunt thoracoabdominal trauma
Can occur from penetrating injury to diaphragm
when is there a high index of suspicion in a diaphragmatic ruptuer
with a rapid deceleration injury, direct crush to upper abdomen, severe chest trauma with lower rib fracture, penetrating injury to chest or upper abdomen
what are the major symtoms of diaphragmatic rupture
pain and dyspnea
what is the treatment of diaphragmatic rupture
surgical repair; laparotomy
what causes a myocardial cntusion
caused by high speed deceleration injuries or kicking injuries from animals
when is a myocardial contusion suspected
when trauma is severe enough to produce rib/sternal fracutre, pulmonary contusion or patient reccives severe anterior blunt trauma
what are the signs and symptoms of a myocardial contusion
anginal type CP refractory to nitrate therapy
non-specific ST segment or T wave change, possible dysrhythmias
elevated CPK_MB isoenzymes
observe the patient and treat dysrhythmias
what do you do if enzymes are elevated and there are ischemic changes
treat as AMI
what is teh treatment for myocardial contusion
bedrest to decrease myocardial oxygen demands
when is a pulmonary contusion seen
serious injury to lung parenchyma
what does a pulmonary contusion result in
interstitial hemorrhage with resulting alveolar collapse
atelectasis
consolidation of the uninjured areas of lung
ventilation perfusion mismatch from shunting of blood
what are the signs and symptoms of a pulmonary contusion
hemoptysis, fever, wheezing and rales, decreased breath sounds, signs of hypoxemia
what si the treatment for pulmonary contusion
oxygen therapy, pain mangement, careful fluid mangement, meticulous pulmonary care, if severe-intubate/mechanically ventilate
antibiotics are only used if a documented infection exists
what do you use on the patient if they need to be intubated
neuromuscular blocking agent
what do intraabdominal injuries result from
compression causing crush injury
abrupt shearing force causing tears of organs or vascular pedicles
sudden rise in intraabdominal pressure causing rupture of an intraabdominal viscus
what are teh 3 collisions involved in a MV crash
MV impacts another object
victim stikes internal parts of the car
soft tissues vs. supporting structures of body- shearing injury-transection of thoracic or abdominal aorta
what is penetrating trauma
injury as a result of a penetrating object which lacerates, disrupts, destroys or contuses tissue
what is penetrating trauma the result of
GSW, stab wound, or impalement
what is penetrating trauma management dependent on
wound and location, trajectory, degree of tissue injury and complete understanding of anatomy
what are the 3 abdominal cavities
peritonem, retroperitoneum, pelvis
what is in the upper peritoneum
liver, spleen, diaphragm, stomach and transverse colon
what is in the lower peritoneum
small bowel and sigmoid colon
what is in the retroperitoneum
abdominal aorta, IVC, duodenum, pancreas, kidneys, ureter, ascend/decend colon
what is in the pelvis
rectum, bladder, iliac vessels and genitalia
what are the 4 components of an abdominal assessment
inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
how is an abdominal inspection done
remove all clothing, do not remove any protruding or impaled objects
what is done in an abdominal inspection
inspect for asymmetry, ecchymosis (seat belt sign), abrasions, lacerations, or penetrating injury. Do not forget to inspect the flank and back
what is cullen's sign
blue discoloration in the periumbilical area
what does cullen's sign suggest
hemoperitoneum
what is grey-turner's sign
ecchymosis in the flank region
what is grey-turner's sign associated with
retroperitoneal hemorrhage
what is kehr's sign
injury to the spleen can cause irritation ot the diaphragm (phrenic nerve) resulting in referred pain to the left shoulder
when is an abominal auscultation done
always done before percussion and palpation
what does auscultation begin with
assessment of bowel sounds
what are normal bowel sounds
high pitched; every 5-10 seconds
what is a bruits
vascular sounds due to turbulent blood flow
what does a bruits signal
arterial injury or aneurysm
what is peritoneal friction rub an indication of
inflammation
when is a peritoneal friction rub heard
during respiratory cycle in upper quad in presence of hepatic or splenic disorder
what is a percussion done
determine areas of pain, if pina is severe skip percussion and palpation
what does percussion determine
organ location and size
what does tympany show
air/gas filled
when is dullness heard
with solid organs or fluid filled structures
what is light palpation
fingers pressed about 1cm in depth
what does a light palpation detect
detects areas of tenderness or rigidity
what is a deep palpation
finger pressed about 1cm in depth
what does a deep palpatioin determine
determine organ size and presence of masses
guarding or rebound tenderness
what are the diagnostics for abdominal trauma
x-rays, labs, focused abdominal sonography for trauma, diagnositc peritoneal lavage, compute tomography, cystogram, laparotomy
what may plain radiographs show
peritoneal gas
findings of plain radiographs are associated with what
abdominal injuries
what do plain radiographs assist in determining
trajectory with penetrating injury
what are the laboratory evaluations for abdominal trauma
CBC, electrolytes, PT/PTT, ABG, types and screen, UA, ETOH or drug screen, amylase/lipase
what do labs not provide
inital evidence of injury
what does a FAST asses for
free fluid in teh peritoneal cavity
how is a FAST done on
hemodynamically unstable
what is a FAST floowed up with
a CT
what are the disadvantages of FAST
unable to identify or grade retroperitoneal injuries, unable to identify injuries to the bowel or solid organs, cannot distinguish between blood and ascites, findings may be difficult to inerpret in the obsese or patient with pervious abdominal surgeries
when is a dianostic peritoneal lavage done
blunt abdominal trauma with an equivocal or unreliable abdominal examination, unexplained BP drop or blood loss, hemodynamically unstable; unable to transport to CT
what are the contraindications of a DPL
pregnancy and if laparotomy is alrady indicated
what must a patient have before getting a DPL
foley and NGT
how is a DPL done
catheter is blindly inserted through the peritoneal fat and peritoneum into the peritoneal space
when are teh DPL results positive
gross blood is present on aspiration
greater than 100,000 RBC
greater than 500 WBC
if bile, bacteria, or food particles returned
what does a CT scan evaluate
solid organ injury, intraabdominal blood, fluid or air
what is a systogram used for
to rule out bladder injury/rupture
what are the indications of a cystogram
gross hematuria with a seat belt sign or pelvic fracture
when should a cystogram be don
before DPL
what are the normal results of a cystogram
complete bladder emptying without bladder emptying without reflux or obstruction to flow of urine
what are the indications for a laparotomy
obvious peritoneal signs, decreased BP with distended abdomen, GSW with peritoneal penetration, stab wound with evisceration, peritonitis or decreased BP, postive DPL, any diagnostic suggestive of intraabdominal injury
what is the laparotomy procedure
incision, control bleeding, contamination control, systemic exploration, closure
what is damage control surgery
abbreviated laparotomy with containment of bleeding a contamination; intra abdominal packing for inital injury control
what is phase 1 of damage control
immediate exploratory lap to control hemorrhage and contamination; definitive reconstruction is delayed
what is phase II of damge control
secondary and continuous resuscitation in ICU, optimizing O2 comsumption and delivery, lactate clearance, core rewarming, correction of coagulapathy, ventilatory support
what is phase III of damage control
return to OR for packing removal, definitive injury repair and possible closure
where is the liver located
RUQ
what are the hepatic functions
assists in intestinal digestion with bile secretion, destroys aged RBC, stores a large volume of blood, synthesis of clotting factors, metabolism of fats, proteins, and carbs, metabolic detoxification
what is the most commonly injury intra-abdominal organ
liver
when does hepatic injury most often occur
with penetrating trauma
what is grade one of the hepatic injury
subcapsular hematoma less than 1 cm in maximal thickness, capsular avulsion, superficial parenchymal laceration less than 1cm deep, and isolated periportal blood tracking
what is grade 2 of the hepatic injury scale
parenchymal laceration 1-3 cm deep and parenchymal/subcapsular hematomas 1-3cm thick
what is grade 3 of the hepatic injury scale
parenchymal laceration more than 3cm deep and parenchymal or subcapusular hematoma more than 3cm in diameter
what is grade 4 of the hepatic injury scale
parenchymal/subscapular hematoma more than 10 cm in diameter, lobar destruction, or devascularization
what is grade 5 of the hepatic injury scale
global destruction or devascularization of the liver
what is the operative management of hepatic injury
resuscitation, damage control, laparotomy/celiotomy for repair
what is the nonoperative management of hepatic injury
blunt injury; without other intraabdominal injury requiring laparotomy, hemodynamically stable, lack of continued need for transfusion, without peritoneal signs, can be done regardless of grade of injury
where int he spleen located
LUQ
what are the splenic functions
blood filtering, removal/destruction of aged and defored RBCs, platelet and RBC storage, phagocytosis of bacteria, production of antibodies
splenic injury most often is the result of what
blunt trauma; compression or deceleration force
what is grade 1 of teh splenic injury scale
laceration: less than 1 cm in depth
hematoma: subcapsular less than 10% of surface
what is grade 2 of the splenic injury scale
laceration: 1-3 cm in depth not involving a trabecular vessel
hematoma: subcapsular 10-50% of surface area or 5cm in diameter
what is stage 3 of teh splenic injury scale
greater than 3 cm depth or any depth involving a trabecular vessel
Hematoma: subcapsular greater than 50% of surface are or intraparenchymal
what is stage 4 of the splenic injury scale
segmental or hilar vessel involvement
what is stage 5 of the splenic injury scale
shattered splled or hilar bessel disruption
what is the operative management of splenic injury indicated for
an emergent splenectomy is indicated with significant accumulation of intraperitoneal blood (greater than 1000ccs)
blood transfusion greater than 2 units
progressive decrease in H/H
hemodynamic instability
what happens after a splenectomy
lifelong risk for a variety of serious infections; Strep. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and Neisseria meningitis.
what is the most severe infection post-splenectomy
overwheliming post-splenectomy infection
what must be done for the patient post splenectomy
must be vaccinated
what is OPSI symptoms
fever, malaise, myalgias, headache, N/V/D
what does OPSI rapidy progress to
bacteremic septic shock accompanied by a decrease in BP, decrease in blood sugar, anuria, and DIC
what is the mangement post splenectomy
immunoprophylaxis, antibiotic prophylaxis, antibiotic prophylaxis, and patient education
what does immunoprophlaxis consist of
a series of vaccinations; pneumococcal, meningococcal, and haemophilus influenzae B and annual influenza
what does antibiotic prophlaxis consist of
2 year prophylaxis, or standby antibiotic therpay; the patient retains a personal supply of antibiotics and takes them upon the first sign of even mild respiratory infections
what is teh key in post splenectomy management
preventing serious infection and pt education
what pt education should be done post splenectomy
even a common cold can be serious, should contact their physician immediately when not feeling well, wearing a medic alert tag and carrying a wallet card is important
when is there nonoperative management of splenic injury
hemodynamically stable, grade 1 or II
what is the nonoperative management of splenic injury
serial abdominal exams, serial vital signs, serial H/H, monitored unit with immediate access to CT, surgeon and OR
Risk of failure of non-operative managment correlates with what
grade of injury
small bowel injury is primarily from what
penetrating injury
CT of a small bowel injury has a significant what
false negative test
what is teh management of a small bowel injury
surgical-repair small perforations, bowel resection for large wounds, ileostomy
what are large bowel injuries often result of
penetrating injury
what is the mangement of large bowel injury
surgical- primary repair, resection and anastamosis, colostomy
renal injury occurs most often with what
blunt trauma
what is teh mangement for renal injury
bedrest with serial H/H
angiography/embolization
nephrectomy
when to most bladder injuries occur
pelvic fracture
what is an intraperitoneal rupture associated with
seat belt injury with rupture to dome of the bladder
what is the appearance seen iwth an intraperitoneal rupture
appearance of free dye outlining the loops of the bowel
what is the mangement of an intraperitoneal rupture
surgical
what is an extraperitoneal rupture associated with
fracture to superior and inferior pubic rami
what is the appearance of an extraperitoneal rupture
sunburst appearance
what is the management of an extraperitoneal rupture
foley or suprapubic catheter and follow up cystogram
what is abdominal compartment syndrome the result of
result of increased intraabdominal pressure
what does abdominal compartment syndrome involve
all organ system of the body and if untreated it can be fatal
what are the contributing factors to abdominal compartment syndrome
bowel edema from injury and resuscitation
perihepatic packing
blood accumulation in the mesentery
persistent hemorrhage
what are the cardiovascular changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
IAP increases resulting in decreased venous return
decrease CO
decreased BP
increased SVR
what are the pulmonary changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
upward pressure on diaphragm,
decrease in chest wall expansion
decreased tidal volume
decreased compliance
increased peak pressures
what are the renal changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
decreased renal blood flow
decreased urine output
renal failure
what are the contributing factors to abdominal compartment syndrome
bowel edema from injury and resuscitation
perihepatic packing
blood accumulation in the mesentery
persistent hemorrhage
what is teh monitoring done for abdominal compartment syndrome
bladder pressure moniotring-insert foley; instill 60-100ml NSS and measure the pressures by water manometer or transducer/monitor q
what are the cardiovascular changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
IAP increases resulting in decreased venous return
decrease CO
decreased BP
increased SVR
what is normal bladder pressure
0
what are the pulmonary changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
upward pressure on diaphragm,
decrease in chest wall expansion
decreased tidal volume
decreased compliance
increased peak pressures
what happens if bladder pressure is greater than 25
requires urgent intervention
what are the renal changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
decreased renal blood flow
decreased urine output
renal failure
what is the management of abdoinal compartment syndrome
decompression- surgical
what is teh monitoring done for abdominal compartment syndrome
bladder pressure moniotring-insert foley; instill 60-100ml NSS and measure the pressures by water manometer or transducer/monitor q
what is orthopedic trauma
fractures
what is normal bladder pressure
0
what are the complications of orthopedic trauma
PE
Fat emboli
what happens if bladder pressure is greater than 25
requires urgent intervention
what is the management of abdoinal compartment syndrome
decompression- surgical
what is orthopedic trauma
fractures
what are the complications of orthopedic trauma
PE
Fat emboli
what are the contributing factors to abdominal compartment syndrome
bowel edema from injury and resuscitation
perihepatic packing
blood accumulation in the mesentery
persistent hemorrhage
what are the cardiovascular changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
IAP increases resulting in decreased venous return
decrease CO
decreased BP
increased SVR
what are the pulmonary changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
upward pressure on diaphragm,
decrease in chest wall expansion
decreased tidal volume
decreased compliance
increased peak pressures
what are the renal changes seen with abdominal compartment syndrome
decreased renal blood flow
decreased urine output
renal failure
what is teh monitoring done for abdominal compartment syndrome
bladder pressure moniotring-insert foley; instill 60-100ml NSS and measure the pressures by water manometer or transducer/monitor q
what is normal bladder pressure
0
what happens if bladder pressure is greater than 25
requires urgent intervention
what is the management of abdoinal compartment syndrome
decompression- surgical
what is orthopedic trauma
fractures
what are the complications of orthopedic trauma
PE
Fat emboli
what is seen on the insepction of orthopedic trauma
comparison- both sides of body for symmetry, contour, size and alignment
skin and soft tissue-edema, ecchymosis, gross deformity
joints-deformity, edema, erythema, ROM, rotation
what is examined on the palpation of orthopedic trauma
temperature, quality of pulses, capillary refill, muscle strength, DTR
long bone or pelvic fractures can lead to what
fat emboli
what is the best way to prevent emboli
immoblize the fractured extremity
how can the fractured extermity be immobilized
MAST trousers in the field
pelvic fractures may cause what
serious intraabdominal injury
what are the signs of a PE
local swelling, tenderness, deformity, unusual pelic movement and eccymosis
what do you assess in a pelic fracture
neurovascular status of the lower extremities
how are pelvic fractures usually diagnosed
x ray
what is the treatment for a stable pelvic fractures
bedrest for a stable fracture- up to 6 weeks
upper extremity fractures may affect what
ability to do ADLs
fractures of the upper extremities may require what
casting, percutaneous pins
upper extremity fractures may affect what
ability to do ADLs
what do you monitor in an upper extremity fracture
neurovascular status
pain
fractures of the upper extremities may require what
casting, percutaneous pins
what helps mortality and morbidity of lower extremity fractures
early internal fixation
what do you monitor in an upper extremity fracture
neurovascular status
pain
lower extremity fractures may require what
plates and pinning
what helps mortality and morbidity of lower extremity fractures
early internal fixation
what do you monitor in lower extremity fractures
NVS
Pain
lower extremity fractures may require what
plates and pinning
what is important in extremity trauma
important to splint until bone can be reset
what do you monitor in lower extremity fractures
NVS
Pain
what does splinting do
immobilizes the bone, aids in control of hemorrhage, reduce pain and prevent furthur injury
what is important in extremity trauma
important to splint until bone can be reset
what are the complications of extemity trauma
compartment syndrome, pulmonary embolism, fat embolism
what does splinting do
immobilizes the bone, aids in control of hemorrhage, reduce pain and prevent furthur injury
what is compartment syndrome
extremities havemultiple compartments that encase muscle, nerves, and blood vessels and enveloped by fascia that is tough and non-elastic: when pressure rised the vascular and neuro structures become compressed and compromised
what are the complications of extemity trauma
compartment syndrome, pulmonary embolism, fat embolism
what is compartment syndrome
extremities havemultiple compartments that encase muscle, nerves, and blood vessels and enveloped by fascia that is tough and non-elastic: when pressure rised the vascular and neuro structures become compressed and compromised
upper extremity fractures may affect what
ability to do ADLs
fractures of the upper extremities may require what
casting, percutaneous pins
what do you monitor in an upper extremity fracture
neurovascular status
pain
what helps mortality and morbidity of lower extremity fractures
early internal fixation
lower extremity fractures may require what
plates and pinning
what do you monitor in lower extremity fractures
NVS
Pain
what is important in extremity trauma
important to splint until bone can be reset
what does splinting do
immobilizes the bone, aids in control of hemorrhage, reduce pain and prevent furthur injury
what are the complications of extemity trauma
compartment syndrome, pulmonary embolism, fat embolism
what is compartment syndrome
extremities havemultiple compartments that encase muscle, nerves, and blood vessels and enveloped by fascia that is tough and non-elastic: when pressure rised the vascular and neuro structures become compressed and compromised
upper extremity fractures may affect what
ability to do ADLs
fractures of the upper extremities may require what
casting, percutaneous pins
what do you monitor in an upper extremity fracture
neurovascular status
pain
what helps mortality and morbidity of lower extremity fractures
early internal fixation
lower extremity fractures may require what
plates and pinning
what do you monitor in lower extremity fractures
NVS
Pain
what is important in extremity trauma
important to splint until bone can be reset
what does splinting do
immobilizes the bone, aids in control of hemorrhage, reduce pain and prevent furthur injury
what are the complications of extemity trauma
compartment syndrome, pulmonary embolism, fat embolism
what is compartment syndrome
extremities havemultiple compartments that encase muscle, nerves, and blood vessels and enveloped by fascia that is tough and non-elastic: when pressure rised the vascular and neuro structures become compressed and compromised
where does compartment syndrome most commonly occur
in hand, lower arm, lower leg and foot
what are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome
6 p's
pain
pallor
pulse
polar
paresthesia
paralysis
compartment syndrome may require what
fasciotomy
how does a pulmonary embolism form
blood clots form in peripheral veins of lower extremities and pelvis. sudden blood flow changes and an increase in pressure dislodge the clost intro the peripheral circulation. the clot travels through circulation and lodges in the pulmonary artery or one of the smaller branches- obstructing distal blood flow
what causes vasoactive substances to be released in a pulmonary embolism
tissue typoxia
what happens when vasoactive substances are released
increase pulmonary resistance, right ventricular strain/failure, shock
what are the signs and symptoms of a pulmonary embolism
new onset of dyspnea, sudden onset of chest pain, pale, dusky, cyanotic skin, hemoptysis, fever, increased anxiety, decreased level of consciousness, pleuritic pain, bronchial breath sounds, hypoxemia
what are the diagnositcs for PE
EKG-may see changes
CXR-WNL initally but later will show s/s of atelectasis of infarction
d-dimer-specific test for fibrin split products; positive if greater than 500
V/Q scan-WNL or show a perfusion deficit
spiral chest CT
pulmonary angiogram
what does a normal VQ scan show
equal distribution of gas (darker spots)
what does a PE V/Q scan show
gas is not taken into the perfused area (no picture or very light/cold spots
how do you ensure an adequate interpretaton of a V/Q scan
read in conjunction with CXR
what is the most definitve diagnostic tool for diagnosing a PE
pulmonary angiogram
what is the goal of PE treatment
improve gas exchange and pulmonary tissue perfusion
what is the treatment of PE
high fowlers postion, supplemental oxygen, mechanical ventilation, pain management, heparin therapy, low molecular weight heparin, fibrinolytics, hemodynamically unstable, filter
what does high fowlers postion do
faciitates breathing; increases diaphragmatic excursion
what do you have to monitor when giving heparin therapy
PTT-keep at 2-2.5xnormal
what does a fat embolism usually occur from
traumatic injury to long bones, pelvis, and multiple skeletal fractures
when are fat embolisms usually seen
24-48 hours post injury
wht are the signs and symptoms of a fat embolism
tachycardia, tachypnea, alkolosis, low grade fever, new onset dyspnea, hypocarbia, increased respiratory rate and effort, CXR with new pulmonary inflitrates
what is the treatment for a fat emboli aimed at
preserving pulmonary function and maintaining hemodynamic stability
what is the treatment for fat emboli
immobilize injuries to prevent emboli from occurring, supplemental oxygen, possible intubation/mechanical ventilation, monitor hemodynamic status, monitor for cardiac dysrhythmias
what do arterial, central venous, and pulmonary artery catheters measure
pressure
what are the serious risks of inserting a catheter
infection and bleeding
where are central venous pressure lines seen
on the floor
where are arterial lines and pulmonary artery catheters seen
in critical care units
when are catherters inserted
with MI's, trauma, septic, burns, there is a real potential for ineffective tissue/cellular perfusion
what are the components to all pressure monitoring systems
invasive catheter, high pressure tubing, transducer, flush system
bedside monitor
what does high pressure tubing do
firm do reflect high pressure transducer, not to surrounding air
what does the tranducer do
converts mechanical energy to electrical energy
what is the vent/stopcock for
opening to atmosphere for zeroing
what is zeroing for
to accouint for descrepancy in atomospheric pressures
what is dynamic pressure
the kinetic energy of the moving fluid (BP)
what is the residual or static pressure
the static pressure within the vessel (BP)
what is the hydrostatic pressure
weight of teh fluid in a fluid filled column
where is the transducer supposed to be
level with the heart- 4th intercostal space and midaxillary line
what happens if the transducer is lower than the heart
pressure increases
what do A-lines do
direct and continuous monitoring of systolic and diastolic BP
assessf fluid volume status
monitor effects of vasoactive drugs
obtain ABGs and other blood samples
intra aortic balloon pump
mean arterial pressure
what is a mean aterial pressure
average driving force of teh movement of blood in arterial system throughout systole and diastole
what is the equation for a mean BP
(sbp+2(DBP))/3
what is a normal MAP
70-90
what happens when a map is less than 60
jeopardizes coronary artery perfusion in brain and kidneys and other vital organ perfusion
what happens if the MAP is greater than 105
indicates hypertension or vasocontrictive disease
what are the a line sites
radial and femoral arteries
what are the complications of a lines
infection, accidental blood loss, imparied circulation, embolus, hematoma, electrical hazards
what factors can cause inaccurate readings on an A line
transducer is to high or low, transducer is not zeroed, waveform is underdamped, mean arterial pressure reads falsely high, you start nitroprusside, calibration is off, system underreads by 10, MAP flasely low, you give fluid or start dopamine
what can new A lines give
MAP, CO, continous systolic and diastolic BP
what is cardiac output
heart rate per minute times stroke volume
what is the normal cardiac output
4-6L/m
what is preload
amount of pressure or stretch exerted on the walls of the ventricle by the volume of blood filling the ventricle at the end of diastole
volume of blood within the ventricle at the end of diastole
what does too much prelaod do
overstretches ventricles
what does too little preload do
doesn't stretch enough
how is preload on teh right side measured
CVP catheter
prelaod on the right side is what
RT atrial pressure
how is preload on the left side measured
pulmonary artery catheter
what is the afterload
resistance against which the Right and Left ventricles ahve to contract; sum of all teh forces of all the loads against which the ventricle must shorten to eject blood out into the circulation
what happens in the afterload is too high
the heart works harder to get the valve open, uses more oxygen, the ventricle does't empty well, cardiac output decreases
what is seen if the afterload is too low
the ventricle generates very little pressure to open
weak contraction
cardiac output decreases
what is contractility
force and velocity of myocardial fiber shortening-it is independent of preload and afterload
how is contractility measured
LVSWI
what is the LVSWI
work involved in moving blood against the resistance
how is lvswi measured
Pap catheters
what are the normal levels of cardiac index
2.4-4.0
what is cvp
central venous pressure
what does the CVP measure
pressure on right side of heart
what is the levels of CVP
2.8 cm water or 2-6 mmhg
what does low CVP indicate
inadequate venous return because of fluid deficit or hypovolemia, too much vasodilating drug
what does a high CVP indicate
inadequate right ventricular emptying because of fluid overload, rt ventriculat failure or pulmonary disorders
where is a CVP inserted
IJ or subclavian
where is the tip of theCVP
superior vena cava
what is the difference in pulse between overload and rt. sided failure
weak in rt failure, bounding in overload
tachy in failurem, normal in overload
what is teh difference in urine output between overload and rt sided failure
urine output high in overload
what is the difference in JVD between overload and Rt. sided failure
seen in both
what is the difference in edema between overload and Rt. sided failure
seen in rt failure
what measures the pressure on the left side of the heart
pulmonary artery catheters
where are pulmonary artery catheters inserted
internal jugular or subclavian
what shows pressurese on the left side of the heart
PA diastolic pressure
what are the normal levels of PA diastolic pressure
8-15
what does PA diastolic estimate
the left ventricular prelaod status; amount of stretch in myocardium at end of diastole;volume of blood within left ventricle at end of diastole
what does pulmonary artery wedge pressure measure
left ventricular end diastolic pressure or left ventricular preload
what is the normal PA wedge pressure
4-12
what do you do if you see al ow PAWP or PAD
fluid or blood replacement, vasoconstrictors
what do you do if there is a high PAP and PAWP
diuretics, fluid restriction, NTG, enhancing contractility decreasing afterlaod with arteriole vasodilators
how is afterlaod calculated
SVR
how is contractility calculated
LVSWI
what is a pacemaker
a device that generates an electrical impulse.
what is the purpose of a pacemaker
to deliver an electrical impulse to the heart at needed.
what are the types of pacemakers
transcutaneous, temporary, permanent
when to you use a transcutaneous pacemaker
when evern the patients rhythm strip/ekg shows that the hearts normal pacemaker and the hearts back up pacemakers aren't kicking to save the heart
what are the implications for a transcutaneous pacemaker
very painful, adjust output and rate, valium-mophine, stop gap until other pacemaker can be implanted
what does an impulse to the heart from a pacemaker do
depolarizes the heart resulting in a contraction
what do you need to set when putting in a pacemaker
rate, output and sensitivity
what do you set the rate at with a pacemaker
60-80 unless overdrive pacing
what do you set the output at
find of how much current/output you need to capture to make the heart depolarize then multiply by 2
what should you set the sensitivity at
1mV
how are bipolar leads set up
negative end touches the heart, positive end is on same catheter little more proximal
what are unilateral leads set up
negative end touches heart, positive is the generator. much greater sensing area
how are bipolar leads set up
negative end touches the heart, positive end is on same catheter little more proximal
what is the risk of a transveous pacemaker
threading anything into the heart, possibility for deadly arrhythmia, bleeding, infection, puncture heart or lung, microshock. failure to pace, capute or sense
what are unilateral leads set up
negative end touches heart, positive is the generator. much greater sensing area
what are the types of external pacemakers
transvenous, epicardial, transthoracic
what is the risk of a transveous pacemaker
threading anything into the heart, possibility for deadly arrhythmia, bleeding, infection, puncture heart or lung, microshock. failure to pace, capute or sense
where are pacemaker leads placed
tip of lead in RA or RV depending on where pacing needed or for biventricular, left ventricular lead through coronary sinus into cardiac vein on surface of LV
what are the types of external pacemakers
transvenous, epicardial, transthoracic
what does the first letter in the mode represent
what the pacemaker is pacing
where are pacemaker leads placed
tip of lead in RA or RV depending on where pacing needed or for biventricular, left ventricular lead through coronary sinus into cardiac vein on surface of LV
what does the second letter in the mode represent
sensing, what the pacemaker is looking at to determine if the pacer should fire
what does the first letter in the mode represent
what the pacemaker is pacing
what does the third column represent
the responsek, what the pacemaker does now, knowing what was sensed
I=inhibit
T=trigger
what does the second letter in the mode represent
sensing, what the pacemaker is looking at to determine if the pacer should fire
what is failure to capture
see pacer spikes but no contraction/depolarization follows. call
how are bipolar leads set up
negative end touches the heart, positive end is on same catheter little more proximal
what does the third column represent
the responsek, what the pacemaker does now, knowing what was sensed
I=inhibit
T=trigger
what are unilateral leads set up
negative end touches heart, positive is the generator. much greater sensing area
what is failure to sense
under sensing: see pacer spikes too soon after an intrinsic beat or see with no relation
what is failure to capture
see pacer spikes but no contraction/depolarization follows. call
what is the risk of a transveous pacemaker
threading anything into the heart, possibility for deadly arrhythmia, bleeding, infection, puncture heart or lung, microshock. failure to pace, capute or sense
what is failure to sense
under sensing: see pacer spikes too soon after an intrinsic beat or see with no relation
what are the types of external pacemakers
transvenous, epicardial, transthoracic
where are pacemaker leads placed
tip of lead in RA or RV depending on where pacing needed or for biventricular, left ventricular lead through coronary sinus into cardiac vein on surface of LV
what does the first letter in the mode represent
what the pacemaker is pacing
what does the second letter in the mode represent
sensing, what the pacemaker is looking at to determine if the pacer should fire
what does the third column represent
the responsek, what the pacemaker does now, knowing what was sensed
I=inhibit
T=trigger
what is failure to capture
see pacer spikes but no contraction/depolarization follows. call
what is failure to sense
under sensing: see pacer spikes too soon after an intrinsic beat or see with no relation
what is failure to pace
pacer isnt working, no spikes
when should people with a pacemaker call
with fever and chills
lightheaded, fainting, lack of energy, rapid pounding heart beat or skipped beat, usually they don't check their pulse, may need telephone monitoring device
what are the requirements for a successful CABG
significant lesion, space above and below the lesion, viable dissue distal to the graft
what are the indications for CABG surgery
angina-intractable or unstable
acute myocardia infarction
CHF
what are the types of grafts used
saphenous veins, internal mammary artery graft, radial artery graft
what is the preoperative nursing care for a CABG
Physical exam-HP, chest x-ray, EKG, possible echo, pulmonary function tests, carotid doppler studies, IV access, Lab work
clip hair instead of shaving
placing bactriband into nares to decrease nosicomial infection rates that day before
what meds are held before a CABG
those that contribute to bleeding
what med is often ordered before a CABG
antibiotic
what do you do with an ICD before a CABG surgery
call physician, usually turned off
where are the cannulas inserted in a cardiopulmonary bypass
into the rt atrium and inferior VC
what is the purpose of a cariopulmonary bypass
oxygenate and circulate blood during the procedure
how does a cardiopulnonary bypass work
drains blood from the heart and perfuses tissues during cardiac arrest
how does the cardiopulmonary bypass have myocardial preservation
aortic cross clamping, systemic hypothermia, cardioplegia
how do you wean the patient off a cardiopulmonary bypass
rewarm core temperature to 37.0, wean cardiopulmonary blood flow, prophylactic antibiotics, reverse with protamine
what are the effects of cariopulmonary bypass
third spacing, hypertension, coagulopathy, immune system, hyperthermia, electrolyte imbalance, cardiac effects, pulmonary effects, renal effects
when are renal effects seen in a cardiopulmonary bypass
if aorta clamped too long
how is an off pump cardiovascular surgery done
thoracotomy approach or small midsternal incision
what is a thorascope used for
to visualize the vessels
what is harvested and where are tehy attached in off poump cardio surgery
arterial conduits are harvested and attached to the myocardium
what do you do in initial trasfer to icu post op
extubate as soon as possible, aggressive ambulation, continue with prophylactic antibiotics, continuous gtt tight control on glucose, chest tube management
what is chest tube management
assess drainage hourly, do not strip the chest tubes, avoid dependent loops of tubing, assess the patient for cardiac tamponade
what do you do more managing heart rate
epicardial pacing, digoxin, amiodarone
what do you do to manage prelaod
volume, diuretics
what do you do to manage afterload
pressors (norepinephrine, neosynephrine, nirtoprusside, IABP, rewarming
what do you do the manage contractility
inotropes (dopamine, dobtuamine, milrinone
what are teh causes of low cardiac output
decreased contractility- stunned myocardium, intra-op infarct, cononary artery spasm, air emboli, graft dysfunction, cardiac tamonade
inadequate fluid status (preload)
increased systemic vascular resistance (afterload)
what are teh sympotoms of low cardiac output syndrome
decreased BP
decrease in urine output
decreased peripheral perfusion
decreased SVO2/mixed venous
how do you treat low prelaod
administer volume
how do you treat high preload
venodilators and diuretics
how do you treat high afterload
nipride, Ace-inhibitors, morphine
how do you treat low afterload
phenylephrine, norephinephrine
how do you treat decreased contractility
vasopressors, dogoxin, michanical assist devices:IABP
what are the causes of bleeding post-op
coagulopathy, surgical bleeding
what are the interventions for post-op bleeding
assess chest tube drainage, correct coagulation defects
how do you correct coagulatioin defects post-op
protamine sulfate (25mg increments IV very slowly)
FFP, platelets
rewarm the patient
replace volume: PRBCs, autotransfusion
how do you prevent cardiac dysrhythmias post-op
prevent hypoxia, hypercarbia, monitor and replace electrolytes, administer drugs
what is the treatment for cardiac dysrhythmias post-op
pharmacologic
pacing
how does kidney dysfunction occur post-op
hymolysis of RBCs in CPB results in hemoglobinuria, which damages renal tubules-resulting in kidney dysfunction
what is the drug of choice to prevent renal involement post-op
lasix
why is lasix given most op
to maintain minimum urine output of at least 25-35 ml/hr
why doyou have to worry about hypothermia post-op
physiologic effects of rewarming-shivering, afterdrop, rewarming shock, acidosis
what is the nursing management for hypothermia
assess for shivering, restore heat loss, modify the rate of heat loss, prevent shivering through drug administration
what are you concerned with about the neurologic status post-op
hypoxia
what are the signs of hypoxia
restlessness, confusion, headache
what is given for pain management post-op
opioids
what are the goals for post-op care
maintain adequate tissue perfuison, maintain adequte gas exchange, maintain fluid and electrolyte balance, pain relief, maintain normal termperature, promote adequate rest, encourage self care activites
what is important after a cabg
lifestyle changes-smoking cessation, cardiac rehabilitation, psychosocial management
how do you diagnosis valvular disease
physical assessment, EKG for dysrhythimias (AFIB), Echo, doppler ultrasound, transesophageal echo
what is the patho of mitral stenosis
incomplete opening of the valve during diastole, LA enlargement and impaired filling of LV, see elevation of LA pressure, as disease progresses see symptoms of of decreased CO during exertion and with tachycardia
what are the manifestations of mitral stenosis
dyspnea on exertion, fatigue and weakness, palpitations, chest pain, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, mild hemoptysis, increased risk of getting pulmonary infections
what are the physical findings of mitral stenosis
pulmonary congestion on Chest x-ray, AFIB, diastolic murmur heard after S2, increase in pulmonary artery pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure and low cardiac output
what are the indications to relieve the stenosis
uncontrolled pulmonary edema, limiting dyspnea and intermittent pulmonary edema, pulonary hypertension with RVH, limited activity despite medical management and rate control of A fib, recurrent systemic emboli despite anticoagulation
what is the patho of mitral valve regurgitation
incomplete closure of mitral valve, retrograde flow with each contraction, increase volume load of LV, left atrial dilation and hypertrophy, left ventricular dilation and hypertrophy
what are the manifestations of mitral valve regurgitation
weakness and fatigue, exertional dyspnea, palpitations, signs of left ventricular failure
what are the physical signs of mitral valve regurgitaion
enlarged left atrium and ventricle with pulmonary congestion on Chest x-ray
on EKG-left ventricular hypertrophy and AFIB
murmur throughout systole
elevated pulmonary artery pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
S3
what is the patho of aortic stenosis
increased resistance of ejectio nof blood from the LV, LV hypertrophy due to inability of ventricle to empty, decrease in CO, pulmonary congestion, Rt. sided failure, sudden cardiac death
what are the manifestations of aortic stenosis
exertional dyspnea, exercise intolerance, marked fatigue, syncope, angina, lt, sided heart failure, slower hr
how do you diagnosis valvular disease
physical assessment, EKG for dysrhythimias (AFIB), Echo, doppler ultrasound, transesophageal echo
what is the patho of mitral stenosis
incomplete opening of the valve during diastole, LA enlargement and impaired filling of LV, see elevation of LA pressure, as disease progresses see symptoms of of decreased CO during exertion and with tachycardia
what are the manifestations of mitral stenosis
dyspnea on exertion, fatigue and weakness, palpitations, chest pain, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, mild hemoptysis, increased risk of getting pulmonary infections
what are the physical findings of mitral stenosis
pulmonary congestion on Chest x-ray, AFIB, diastolic murmur heard after S2, increase in pulmonary artery pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure and low cardiac output
what are the indications to relieve the stenosis
uncontrolled pulmonary edema, limiting dyspnea and intermittent pulmonary edema, pulonary hypertension with RVH, limited activity despite medical management and rate control of A fib, recurrent systemic emboli despite anticoagulation
what is the patho of mitral valve regurgitation
incomplete closure of mitral valve, retrograde flow with each contraction, increase volume load of LV, left atrial dilation and hypertrophy, left ventricular dilation and hypertrophy
what are the manifestations of mitral valve regurgitation
weakness and fatigue, exertional dyspnea, palpitations, signs of left ventricular failure
what are the physical signs of mitral valve regurgitaion
enlarged left atrium and ventricle with pulmonary congestion on Chest x-ray
on EKG-left ventricular hypertrophy and AFIB
murmur throughout systole
elevated pulmonary artery pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
S3
what is the patho of aortic stenosis
increased resistance of ejectio nof blood from the LV, LV hypertrophy due to inability of ventricle to empty, decrease in CO, pulmonary congestion, Rt. sided failure, sudden cardiac death
what are the manifestations of aortic stenosis
exertional dyspnea, exercise intolerance, marked fatigue, syncope, angina, lt, sided heart failure, slower hr
what are the physical signs of aortic stenosis
chest xray shows calcification of aortic valve,
left ventricular hypertrophy of EKG
systolic ejection murmur, palpable LV heave or thrill, increase pulmonary capillary wedge pressures, increase in LVEDP
what is the patho of aortic valve regurgitation
incompetent valve allows blood flow back into LV during diastole, increase volume in LV, LV dilation and hypertrophy, LV failure
what are the manifestations of aortic valve regurgitaion
fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, tachycardia, palpitations, aroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, pulmonary edema, angina
what are the physical signs of aortic valve regurgitation
cardiomegaly, left ventricular hypertrophy on EKG, diastolic murmur, hyperdynamic heart, bounding pulses, wide arterial pulse pressure
what is mitral valve prolapse
failure of one or both leaflets to fit together resulting in displacement of leaflet edge toward the atrium during systole
what is the patho of mitral valve prolapse
mitral valve leaflets become enlarged and floppy so prolapse back into the LA during systole
what are the manifestations of mitral valve prolapse
non specific chest pain, dyspnea, fatigue, palpitations, lightheadedness
what are teh physical signs of mitral valve prolapse
characteristic mid systolic click
may have late or pansystolic murmur
what is the treatment of mitral valve prolapse
focused on relief of symptoms and prevention of complications: beta blockers for palpitations of chest pain, avoid caffeine, alcohol, and cigs
antibiotic prophylaxis
what are the three types of mechanical valves
caged-ball, tilting-disk, bi-leaflet
what is the selection of replacement valve dependent on
patients age, patients size, medical history, ability to comply with a medical regime
what are the complications associated with prosthetic valves
thrombus formation, leaking around valve, endocarditis, degenerative changes in tissue valves, complications associated with prolonged anticoagulation therapy
what is the medical management for valve disease
low sodium diet, pharmacology to treat heart failure-increase contractility, reduce preload and afterload, antiarrhythmics, anticoagulation and antiplatelet, prophylaxis for dental procedures with antibiotics
what is the nursing management for vale disease
maintain adequate cardiac output-assess cardiac output, monitor for signs of low cardiac output
optimize fluid balance-auscultate breath sounds, monitor I&O; daily weights, assess for JVD, hepatomegaly
when is an ICD indicated
for patients experiencing cardiac arrest caused by VF or VT
spontaneus sustained VT not responsive to drug therapy
syncope with hemodynamically compromising VT or VF during EP study
what is the first line of treatment on an ICD
tachycardia pacing
what are some potential complications post-procedure
bleeding or severe bruising, pneumothorax, myocardial puncture, infection
what should a patient do if shock occurs
call MD within 24 hours
Call MD for second chock
when should the patient call the doctor
fever greater than 100, three or more shocks, tenderness over site, SOB
what are thrombolytics
stimulate lysis of a clot by converting inactive plasminogen to plasmin, an enzyme responsible for the degradation of fibrin
what is the selection criteria for therapy
less than 75, no more than 12 hours from onset of chest pain
St segment elevation on AKG
ischemic chest pain of 30 minutes or longer
chest pain unresponsive SL nitroglycerin
what is the exlusion criteria for throbolytic therapy
condition that may predispose the patient to bleeding
what do thrombolytics do
stimulate the lysis of a clot by converting inactive plasminogen to plasmin, an enzyme responsible for the degradation of fibrin.
what is the selection criteria for therapy
age less than 75, no more than 12 hours from onset of chest pain, ST segment elevation of EKG, ischemic chest pian of 30 minutes or longer, chest pain unresponsive to SL nitroglycerin
what is the exclusion criteria for thrombolytic therapy
- recent surgery/trauma, stroke or cerebrovascular event, uncontrolled hypertension, pregnancy, active internal bleeding
when do you want to administer a thrombolytic
within 30 minutes of presentation or during transport
what is the dosage of t-PA (alteplase)
100mg over 90 minutes with the first 15 mg given as a bolus followed by 50mg over the next 30 minutes and 35mg over the next hour
what is the action of t-PA (alteplase)
binds to fibrin at the clot and promotes activation of plasminogen to plasma
what is the special considerations of t-PA (alteplase)
short half life, bloused with heparin and infusion started at 1000u/hr to maintain PTT at 1.5-2X control for at least 24 hours
what is the dosage of r-PA (reteplase)
10 units given as a bolus over 2 minutes then repeated in 30 minutes
what is the action of r-PA (reteplase)
binds to fibrin at the clot and promotes activation of plasminogen to plasma
what is the special considerations of r-PA (reteplase)
15 minutes half life, bloused with heparin, asa administered
what is the dosage of TNKase (tenecteplase
30-50 mg based on body weight, given as single bolus
what is the action of TNKase
binds to fibrin at the clot and promotes activation of plasminogen to plasma
what are the special considerations for TNKase
half life-20 minutes, heparin and infusion stated with administration of drug, asa administered
what is the dosage of SK
1.5 million units, 750,000u over 20 minutes followed by 750000 over 40 minutes
what is the action of SK
wcatalyzed the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin which results in lysis of fibrin
what are the special considerations for SK
may cause allergic reaction and hypotension, asa administered
what are the possible allergic manifestations related to SK therapy
anaphylaxis, uticaria, itching, nausea, flushing, fever, chills
what is the dosage of APSAC (anistreplase)
30 units via slow bolus over 2-5 minutes
what is the action of APSAC (anistreplase)
a molecular combination of streptokinase and plasminogen with action similar to streptokinase
what is the special considerations of APSAC (anistreplase)
may cause allergic reaction and hypotension, long half life, so heparin is usually started 6 hours after APSAC and only used for 24-72 hours, asa administered
what is TIMI 3
normal or brisk flow through the coronary artery
what is TIMI 2
partial flow, slower than in normal vessels
what is TIMI 1
sluggish flow with incomplete distal filling
what is TIMI 0
no flow
what is the evidence of reperfusion
reperfusion dysrhythmias, abrupt cessation of chest pain, rapid return of ST segment to baseline, early and marked peaking of creatine kinase
how is reocclusion noted
reoccurrence of chest pain, ST segment elevation
what is administered prophlyaxtically in thrombolytic therapy
antacids and H2 blocker
what are the indications for ICD
patients experiencing cardiac arrest caused by VF or VT, spontaneous sustained VT not responsive to drug therapy, syncope with hemodynamically compromising VT or VF during EP study
what is the first line of treatment in an ICD
tachycardia pacing
when will the ICD generator cardiovert VT or defibrillate VF
if programmed bursts of pacing are unsuccessful
what are the potential complications post ICD procedure
bleeding of severe bruising, pneumothorax, myocardial puncture, infection.
what does the patient do if shock occurs
call MD within 24 hours of shock, call MD for second shock
what does a patient with an ICD avoid
stay 6 inches away from magnetic fields
when should the patient call the MD
fever greater than 100, three of more shocks, tenderness over site, SOB
what is an IABP
volume displacement device which provides assistance to the LV by the inflation and deflation of a balloon which is synchronized with the cardiac cycle
how does an IABP work
by rapidly shuttling helium gas or CO2 in and out of the double lumen balloon chamber
what are the indications for an IABP
acute MI, ischemic heart disease, cardiogenic shock, ventricular aneurysm, aortic stenosis, mitral insufficiency, ventricular septal defect, adjunct to thrombolytics, prophylaxis during angioplasty/surgery, post cardiopulmonary bypass failure, bridge to transplant
what are the contraindications for an IABP
aortic valve insufficiency, aortic aneurysm, end stage disease, peripheral vascular disease
when does inflation occur
during the diastolic phase of the cardiac cycle
what does the inflated balloon do
augments diastolic pressure by pushing blood in the aorta back toward the coronary arteries thus increasing myocardial oxygen supply
when does deflation occur
prior to thenext systole during the isovolmetric contraction phase during the isovolmetric contraction where 90% of myocardial O2 consumption takes place
what do you see when deflation occurs
increase in stroke volume related to decreased afterload
what is the most reliable trigger
R wave
how is the IABP timed
use arterial pressure waveform
can be placed in 1:1, 1:2, 1:3 or 1:4 augmentation
where does inflation occur and what do you want to see
inflation occurs at the dicrotic notch, want to see a sharp V
what are the 3 general rules from timing
peak diastolic augmented pressure should be greater than patient systolic pressure, balloon-assisted aortic end diastolic pressure should be lower than patient aortic end diastolic pressure
what are the side effects and complications of an IABP
limb ischemia, excessive bleeding at insertion site, thrombocytopenia, immobility of balloon catheter, balloon leak, infection, aortic dissection, compartment syndrome
what are the nursing implications of an IABP
monitor vital signs, assess timing Q1H, document quality of peripheral pulses and neurological status prior to balloon insertion, assess radial and pedal pulse Q1h, monitor urine output, avoid hip flexion, auscultate lung and heart sounds, assess tissue perfusion, monitor for signs of low CO, monitor sign integrity, maintain adequate nutrition, organize care to allow for rest periods, sedate patient as necessary, medicate for pain
what is the time required to wean patient from therapy
hours to days
what may you see when weaning the patient from therapy
dependence signs: chest pain, dysrhythmias, and other symptoms of deteriorating condition
what is done post removal of IABP
hold pressure for 45 minutes or an hour or clamp, check pulses, lay flat for 6 hours