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184 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is unique about Muscular arteries histologically?
Internal elastic membrane in their intima
well structured wall with less adventitia compared to veins
What is unique about elastic arteries histologically?
Elastic lamellae in their media
What is unique about Large veins histologically?
2-15 layers of smooth muscle in the media
longitudinal smooth muscle in the adventitia
What is unique about medium veins histologically?
internal elastic membrane in their intima
'floppier' wall than an artery with higher amounts of adventitia
What nerves supply the coronary arteries and what do they do?
PNS - Vagus nerve - constrict
SNS - T1-T4 sympathetic trunk - dilate
Name the sulci and arterial contents of the heart.
-Anterior interventricular separates the RV/LV and contains the LAD
-Coronary sulcus separates the LA-RA/RA-RV and contains the RCA
-Posterior interventricular separtes the LV/RV and contains the PDA
Name the coronary venous system components and their associated arteries.
Coronary sinus - RCA
Small cardiac vein - RCA
Middle cardiac vein - PDA
Great cardiac vein - LAD
What are risk factors for atherosclerosis?
Diabetes, hypercholesterolaemia, smoking, hypertension, male sex, increasing age, positive family history, sedentary lifestyle, obesity
t/f... HDL is the primary lipoprotein involved in formation of atherosclerosis
false, LDL is
What modifications to LDL helps initiate atherosclerosis?
oxidation, glycosylation, aggregation
t/f... arterial branch points are predisposed to atherosclerosis
true, due to increased turbulence
How does the endothelium maintain vascular tone?
releases prostacyclin (PGI2 - dilator), endothelin (constrictor), endothelium derived relaxing factor (EDRF - NO)
What molecules cause adherence between endothelial cells and monocytes?
VCAM and integrins
t/f... fibrofatty lesions occur uniformally around the blood vessel lumen
false, they are eccentric
Describe the contents of a fibrofatty lesion.
Thick smooth musle and CT cap overlying a core of lipid and necrotic cells. also contains matrix and CT from SMC and macrophage foam cells. T cells, mast cells, Ig, complement are also present
t/f... coronary artery fibrofatty lesions contain more macrophages than smooth muscle foam cells
false, they contain more SMC, aortic plaques contain more macrophages
What is different about smooth muscle cells within an atherosclerotic plaque?
Upon moving from the media to the intima, they have become synthetic/Matrix secreting instead of contractile, and some also ingest lipids to become foam cells.
t/f... the depth of the fissure in an atherosclerotic plaque does not alter pathological outcomes
false, a deeper fissure is more likely to be associated with vessel occlusion by thrombosis, and to allow necrotic core escape to occlude distal branches
Does lowering cholesterol have any benefit in those with atherosclerosis?
Yes, while it won't decrease stenosis by much and won't cause complete disappearance of the plaques, it induces regression of foam cell rish fatty streaks, and may decrease cellularity and lipid content of advanced plaques.
What % of lumen obstruction is needed to limit coronary flow in exercise?
70%
What % of lumen obstruction is needed to limit coronary flow at rest?
90%
What is supply ischaemia?
a significant fall in coronary blood flow
If slowly occuring, collaterals may develop.
If longer than 30 minutes = infarction
e.g. at rest when an artery has a 90% stenosis from atherosclerosis
What is demand ischaemia?
increase in myocardial O2 demand in excess of the diseased coronary circulation's ability to increase flow e.g will occur with a 70% stenosis during exercise
Briefly outline some of the events in the ischaemic cascade.
metabolism switches to anaerobic, lactic acid is produced and less ATP, leads to failure of contraction = relaxation, resulting in elevated LVEDP and SOB
Less ATP = Na/K pump leaks K out of cells = raised membrane potential, reducing AP size and duration
What characteristic changes will you see in the ECG of a subendocardial ischaemia?
ST depression (relative to TP/PQ lines)
What characteristic changes will you see in the ECG of a transmural ischaemia?
ST elevation (relative to TP/PQ lines)
What is thought to cause pain in ischaemia?
As a late ischaemic event, angina pectoris is though to be caused by adenosine stimulating sympathetic afferents that synapse with C8-T4 segments, produceing reffered pain to retrosternal area
When you get peripheral limb pain at risk in peripheral vascular disease, what is the most likely cause?
peripheral nerve ischaemia
Who is indicated for laboratory tests to define vessel patency at lower levels?
severe claudicant, with rest pain with limb-threatening ischaemia
What investigative procedure would you use to assess peripheral vessel patency?
Doppler ultrasound, coupled with treadmill exercise
Angiography before surgical intervention
Arterial duplex
What are the 'big five' personality traits?
Openness (inventive/curious vs. consistent/cautious)
Conscientiousness (efficient/organized vs. easy-going/careless)
Extraversion (outgoing/energetic vs. solitary/reserved)
Agreeableness (friendly/compassionate vs. cold/unkind)
Neuroticism
What are the key features of the Type A behaviour pattern?
insecurity, hostility, time urgency, impatience and competetiveness
t/f... Type A personality is a robust predictor of CHD
false
What psychological traits are found in people with a poorer prognosis for CHD?
expressive hostility, particularly in interactions with others, cynical mistrust, suppressed resentment
What is Type D personality?
distress personality - negative affectivity and social inhibition
What type of infarcts are particularly likely to result in a bradyarrhythmia?
transmural infarcts in the posterior wall of the left ventricle
What % of the wall would you think would at least be involved in a transmural infarct to cause pump failure?
40%
Where are three sites where myocardium softening can occur after infarction and cause a pathological effect?
External ventricular wall = haemopericardium
Interventricular septum = L>R shunt
Papillary muscle = mitral regurgitation, acute pulmonary oedema
What is a common occurence within a few days of a transmural myocardial infarction?
acute fibrinous percarditis
t/f... necrosis may extend to adjoining areas weeks following the infarct
true. called infarct extension
t/f... infarct expansion is synonymous with infarct extension
false. Infarct expansion is when an area of infarct dilatates by 'cell slippage', but no extra tissue undergoes necrosis, whereas infarct extension is when the bordering area to an infarct undergoes necrosis
What are the major modifiable risks in preventing vascular disease?
cigarette smoking, poor diet, inactivity
t/f... vascular disease is best treated using a multidisciplinary approach
true
What are the major determinants of myocardial oxygen demand?
HR
Wall stress
contractility
t/f... tachycardia can limit coronary blood flow
true, as diastole as a % of cardiac cycle is shortened with increased HR
What are some the general principles behind treating stable angina?
Treat the ischaemia, not the pain.
Reduce O2 demand by blocking the heart rate increase when exercising, reducing afterload and ventricular volume with a vasodilator.
What is an invasive treatment for stable angina?
balloon angioplasty with stenting
Which drugs reduce the risk of coronary disease?
aspirin, statins, ACEI, fishoil
What are the antianginal drug groups?
Nitrates
Beta blockers
Ca entry blockers
Perhexiline
Ivabradine
How do nitrates treat angina?
Vasodilation (at low doses just venous, at high arterial as well) through cGMP, reducing afterload and ventricular dimension, decreasing the metabolic needs of the heart so that it doesn't get ischaemic
t/f... short acting nitrates produce tolerance
false, long acting nitrates produce tolerance wi 24 hours unless a nitrate -free period of 10 hours/overnight is provided.
What is the main side effect of Nitrates?
headache from vasodilation
How do beta blockers assist in reducing angina?
decrease HR, which decreases myocardial O2 demand, decreasing ischaemia.
What are the side effects of beta blockers?
fatigue, loss of libido, impotence, bad dreams
How do Ca channel blockers assist in angina?
Cause arterial dilation, decreasing BP and afterload (some also slow HR)
What are the side effects of Ca channel blockers?
flushing, hypotension, oedema

(hypotension, brachycadia, heart block and heart failure can occur if used with beta blockers - be wary)
What is a contraindication of Ca channel blockers?
Heart failure
How does perhexiline reduce angina?
reduces myocardial requirement for aerobic metabolism through system effects
What is a side effect of perhexiline?
A significant proportion or the population are slow metabolisers who get hepatotoxic and neurotoxic side effects.
How does Ivabradine reduce angina?
Blocks the If channel in the sinus node that helps produce the spontaneously depolarisint current. This delays the next AP and heart beat, decreasing the energy/O2 demand of the heart and preventing ischaemia
How many people die prematurely every year around the world from air pollution?
2 million, according to WHO estimates
What % of deaths is air pollution thought to be a factor in, in Australia?
2.3%
What air pollutants are most likely to cause CVS impacts?
particles, carbon monoxide, lead
How do particles taken into the body from the environment cause CVS pathology?
triggering system infalmmation and altering clotting/stability of atheromatous plaues
neural reflex effects leading to arrythmias
What are the adverse effects of lead exposure?
Hypertension
Neurodevelopment effects in children
What are the resistance vessels of the systemic circulation?
arterioles (pressure drops from 90 - 40 over the arterioles)
What is the ~ pressure of the venules?
15 >10 mmHg (from distal to proximal circulation to the heart)
What is the ~ pressure of the veins?
10>5 mmHg (from distal to proximal circulation to the heart)
What is the ~ pressure of the capillaries?
40>15 mmHg (from proximal to distal circulation to the heart)
What is the pressure drop from the beginning to the end of the arteries (start of the arterioles)?
10mmHg (from 100 - > 90)
t/f... pressures in the pulmonary system are 10 times lower than systemic
false, 4 times lower
What keeps arterial BP constant?
baroreceptor/SNS
t/f...in vessels in parallel, flow is inversely related to resistance
true
t/f... sympathetic nerves always cause vasodilation
false, vasoconstrictor nerves are tonically active and induce vasoconstriction in arterioles. vasodilation can be caused by both sympathetic dilator nerves to muscle and PNS nerves
What organs have the lowest density of sympathetic vasoconstrictor nerves?
heart brain they have local regulators of blood flow
What receptor and transmitter are used in vasoconstriction?
NA, alpha adrenergeic receptors
What tissue in the body has Beta1 adrenergic receptors?
coronary arterioles (vasodilation)
Where is adrenaline released from?
Adrenal medulla by SNS activity
What does Angiotensin do to bv?
vasoconstricts
What does ADH do to bv?
vasoconstrictor, promotes water retention in the kidneys
How does histamine effect bv?
vasodilator, increase capillary permeability
What is the basal vascular tone?
a degree of intrinsic tone in blood vessels, caused by spontaneous vascular smooth muscle activity and induced by stress/high blood pressure.
What local factors are used to increase local blood flow to a tissue? How are they removed?
hypoxia, increase CO2, lactic acid and adenosine accumulate in metabolising tissue, cause vasodilation, which then increases blood flow and washes away these metabolites
What are some endothelial derived blood flow factors?
NO - relax
endothelin - constrictor
PGL
EDHRF
When is NO produced by endothelial cells?
in response to shear stress
What is the main mechanism for matching local blood flow to local tissue needs?
Intrinsic regulation/local factors
What causes reactive hyperaemia after a cuff placement?
accumulation of local tissue metabolites, which cause vasodilation etc and are washed away when blood flow returns
t/f... sympathectomy is an effective treatment of local atheromatous blockage
false
What causes smooth muscle contraction triggered?
transmitter (adrenaline) binds to receptor (alpha), activates G protein which increases channel allowing positive ions in = depolarisation = VOCC open = Ca in and contraction
OR
activated receptor causes G protein to activate PLC, which activates IP3, which causes SR Ca release (no depolarisation)
How does smooth muscle contract?
Phosphorylated Myosin light chain and actin produce force. Myosin light chain is phosphorylated by Calcium, calmodulin and MLCK.
What is the MOA of nitrates in causing vasodilation?
increases cGMP, which activates PK, which phosphorylates to deactivate MLCK. This prevents MLCK, Calcium and calmodulin from phosphorylating MLC, which with actin would otherwise induce contraction
How does viagra work?
It inhibits a phosphodiesterase which breaks down cGMP. This allows it to activate PK, which phosphorylates to deactivate MLCK, disallowing MLC phosphorylation and susequent contraction. The blood in the penis is then allowed to pool in the corpus cavernosa to induce erection.
t/f... hydrophobic sterol rings stabilise intracellular plasma membranes
true, found within cholesterol and cholesterol ester
How are lipids able to be dispersed in blood?
amphipathic apolipoproteins attach, and act like detergents, forming a sphere called a lipoprotein
What are the contents of a lipoprotein?
hydrophobic core - triglyceride and chloesterol ester, surrounded by a more hydrophilic coat of phospholipd and apoliprotein (can act as a receptor ligand)
What are the triglyceride rich lipoproteins?
chylomicrons (dietary triglycerides) and very low density lipoproteins (VLDL - endogenous triglycerides)
t/f... chylomicrons transport mainly endogenous triglycerides
false, VLDL transport mainly endogenous triglycerides. chylomicrons transport dietary triglycerides
What is an IDL?
Intermittent density lipoprotein, the remnant of a triglyceride depleted VLDL, which is used as a precursor for LDL
What is LDL?
Low density lipoprotein, transports cholesterol to periphery
What is HDL?
one of the smallest lipoproteins, cholesterol and phospholipid rich High Density Lipoprotein used to transport cholesterol away from the periphery.
What apolipoprotein is most involved in atherosclerosis, and what lipoproteins is it found in?
Apolipoprotein B, found in LDL, IDL, VLDL
How do bile acid sequestrants lower cholesterol?
inhibit bile salt reabsoprtion in ileum by inhibiting Intestinal Bile Acid Transporter (this induces synthesis of new bile acid instead of usual recycling, increasing LDL clearance by the liver)
How do plant sterols lower cholesterol?
displace cholesterol from micelles in the GIT lumen, preventing GIT absorption (this reduces cholesterol that is transported to liver, increasing LDL clearance by the liver)
How does Ezetimibe reduce cholesterol?
inhibits uptake of micellar cholesterol in GIT by inhibiting NPC1L1 (this reduces cholesterol that is transported to liver, increasing LDL clearance by the liver)
What form is cholesterol in as it travels from an enterocyte to the liver?
found within chylomicron lipoprotein, travels in lymph
What does DHA (22:6) do in cholesterol up take?
inhibits cholesterol trafficking to the ER by suppressing NPC1L1, which normally transports chloesterol into the cell
Where is the highest absorption of cholesterol in the GIT?
Proximal small intestine, the duodenum and jejunum, where NPCL1L1 transporter expression is highest
What 2 things can happen to cholesterol after it is taken up by an enterocyte?
some is exported back by ABC, remaining is esterified and packaged into chylomicron lipoproteins
What happens to chylomicrons that reach the liver?
they are used to synthesis bile salts
What does orlistate do with regards to cholesterol metabolism?
It is an intestinal lipase inhibitor which blocks dietary fat digestion
What in the circulation stops/binds to chylomicrons?
lipoprotein lipase on endothelial surfaces in tissues that require fatty acids (muscle and adipose tissue)
What happens to a chylomicron after the triglycerides have been depleted from within it?
It becomes a chylomicron remnant which contains apoB and apo E that bind to LDL receptors and LRP receptors in the liver for uptake.
t/f... Apo C always enhances LipoProtein Lipase activity on endothelial surface membranes
false. there are different types of ApoC, Apo C-II enhances, but Apo C-III inhibits activity of LPL
What do LDL-receptors do?
bind to apo B and E in LDL, IDL, LDL and chylomicron remnants to uptake in the liver
What are SREBPs?
TF released by hepatocytes in low cholesterol levels. Cause increase in LDL uptake by increasing LDL-R expression, while also increasing the degradation of LDL-R, leading to limited LDL clearance from the blood
How do statins reduce cholesterol?
They inhibit HMGCoA Reductase, needed to synthesise cholesterol. This stimulates SREBP, which upregulates LDL-R, which removes more LDL from the circulation.
Name three effects in the hepatocyte after its uptake of cholesterol via LDL-R?
reduces cholesterol synthesis via HMGCoA, reduces LDL-R synthesis, increases cholesterol storage as esters, increases STREBP
What are membrane lipid rafts?
areas in the cell membrane which accumulate excess free cholesterol
What substance in the blood do lipid rafts interact with to form HDL?
Apo A1 (lipid poor apoprotein derived from liver, intestine and catabolised lipoproteins)
What causes HDL to mature into spherical, cholesterol ester enriched particles?
LCAT (lecithin)
What causes macrophages to give up their cholesterol to nascent HDL particles?
ABCA1
How does the HDL get cholesterol to the liver?
Directly - through SR-BI scavengers
Indirectly - transferring to VLDL and LDL via CETP
What drives the movement of LDL into arterial intima at the very beginning of fatty streak formation?
gradient - high lumenal LDL goes to area of low LDL in the intima
What keeps LDLs in arterial intima once there?
binding to proteoglycans which oxidise and modify them
What draws LDLs into arterial intima, even when their is already a high concentration found in the intima?
modified/oxidised LDLs are inflammatory and attract circulating LDLs
How are macrophages involved in atherosclerotic plaque formation?
oxidised LDLs are inflammatory, and attract monocytes via induction of adhesion molecules on the endothelium. Monocytes differentiate into macophages which via scavenger receptors uptake the ox-LDL to form foam cells. These foam cells then attract T-cells which secrete IFN-gamma to further stimulate macrophage activity.
How does obesity and insulin resistance cause atheroma?
overproduction of triglyceride rich VLDL, which have enhanced CETP activity, promoting triglyceride exchange with LDL and HDL. This causes small dense LDL, whilst making small unstable HDL which are catabolised. This imbalance favours atherosclerosis
What are the predisposing factors in the atheroma to causing plaque rupture?
lipid accumulation, increase in lipid laden macrophages, disruption in reparative smooth muscle proliferation in the cap
What are treatable classical risk factors in atherosclerosis development?
smoking, hypertension, diabeties, dyslipidaemia
How do you assess lipids and lipoproteins in the laboratory?
Measure total cholesterol (VLDL, LDL, HDL), HDL and fasting TG, measure LDL level
What are some secondary causes of dyslipidaemia?
Cholesterol - hypothyroidism, nephrotic syndrome, cholestasis. Triglyceride - diabetes, obesity, renal impairment, alcohol, drugs
What are the goals in lipoprotein levels in treating people with atherosclerosis?
LDL <2.5 mmol/L, HDL >1 mmol/L, TG <2.0 mmo/L
What is familial hypercholesterolaemia?
mutation of the LDL-R gene, causing increased LDL and reduced clearance of remnants. This leads to CHD, CVD, aortic stenosis, xanthomas, corneal arcus etc
What is the therapy for hypercholesterolaemia? (High LDL)
Diet, manage secondary causes, statins***, ezetimibe, niacin, bile acid resins
What is the therapy for hypertriglyceridaemia? (High triglycerides)
lifestyle modification and management of 2* causes, fibrates, statins, fish oil, Niacin
What is the effect of statins in hypertriglyceridaemia?
statins (mildly decreases TG, increases HDL)
What is the effect of fish oil in hypertriglyceridaemia?
fish oil (decreases TG, no effect on HDL)
What is the effect of Niacin in hypertriglyceridaemia?
Niacin (mildly decreases TG, increases HDL, side effect is that it incresases glucose and insulin resistance)
What type of hypertriglyceridaemia are fibrates effect in treating?
fibrates are effective in High TG, low HDL. They increase HDL, decrease VLDL production and increase its clearance, and decrease TG levels
t/f... bile acid resins are 2nd line treatment for hypertriglyceraemia.
false. bile acids resins are used in hypercholesteraemia, but are contraindicated in hypertriglyceridaemia as they increase TG
What causes the ST elevation in the ECG of someone with transmural ischaemia?
actually a T-Q depression. The ischaemic zone is more + so current flows out of it into a scattered but backward direction, (away from electrode) especially in diastole. This leads to a TQ depression, which makes ST appear elevated
What causes the ST depression in the ECG of someone with subendocardial ischaemia?
Actually a T-Q elevation. the ischamic inner wall zone is more positive, so current flows out of it towards the outer of the wall and towards the electrode, especially in diastole. This elevates TQ, making ST appear depressed.
t/f... you can localise the area of ischaemia from what leads show ST depression in a stress test
false. ST depression is endocardial ischaemia. You can only localise transmural ischaemia from which leads show ST elevation.
If an ECG is showing ST elevation in V1-V5, what does this indicate?
Transmural ischaemia of the anterior wall, most likely due to LAD issue
If an ECG is showing ST elevation in V6 or aVL, what does this indicate?
Transmural ischaemia of the lateral wall, most likely due to circumflex coronary artery issue
If an ECG is showing ST elevation in II, III or aVF, what does this indicate?
Transmural ischaemia of the inferior wall, most likely due to a right coronary artery issue
What results would you need to establish a diagnosis of CAD in an exercise stress test?
1+ angina chest pain, ST segment depression, fall in BP, or failure to rise
What are the indications for exercise stress testing for CAD?
diagnosis of chest pain, assess prognosis of CAD, assess efficacy of therapy, screen high risk asympto pts, aid in cardiac rehab
What do you do to induce stress in a nuclear perfusion scanning test for CAD?
exercise, give dipyridamole/dobutamine for those who can't exercise (increases HR)
What finding in a test is the most powerful predictor of cardiac events in asymptomatic population?
a High Coronary Calcium score in an electron beam CT scan.
What are some disadvantages of CT scanning of coronary arteries?
cannot assess stent stenosis, requires a slow/even pulse
What are the advantages of a coronary angiography in investigating CAD?
direct visualisation, guides appropriate therapy
What are the disadvantages of a coronary angiography in investigating CAD?
Invasive, complication risk e.g. stroke, local bruising, MI, arrhythmia, death, allergy to contrast
What is sensitivity?
capability of a test to detect an abnormality (i.e. proportion of pts with disease correctly identified as abnormal)
What is specificity?
ability of a test to recognise a normal subject (i.e. % of pts without disease correctly identified as normal)
What is accuracy?
ability of a test to yield true results
What is predictive value?
clinical significance of a positive test result
How do you investigate LV function?
Echocardiography, Gated Blood Pool Scanning, Left ventricular angiograms
How do you assess myocardial viability?
PET (FDG takeup?), Delayed Thallium (gated blood pool scan?), cardiac MRI
What risk factors are addressed in the first line strategy of IHD treatment?
cholesterol, smoking, diabetes, obesity, hypertension
What drugs are used to improve the prognosis, or decrease the mortality, of IHD?
Aspirin, beta blocker, statin, ACE-I
What drugs are used purely to improve the symptoms, or decrease the morbidity, of IHD? (but don't decrease mortality)
Nitrates, Beta blockers, Ca Antagonist
What are the adverse effects of aspirin?
GIT upset/ulcer, sensitivity, asthma
When is Aspirin indicated, wrt IHD?
Primary prevention of high risk pts, Secondary prevention in those with disease, those with acute coronary syndromes
What is clopidogrel?
Antagonist of ADP receptor on platelets to prevent aggregation
When is clopidogrel indicated?
coronary stent placement (at least for 12 months with drug-eluting stent), 2nd prevention in the aspirin intolerant (those with recurrent acute attakes, cerebro ischamia)
What are the adverse effects from statins?
muscle pain, increasing CK levels (indicator of muscle injury) , hepatic dysfunction
What is the aetiology of obstructive vascular disease?
atherosclerosis, diabetes, thrombosis, congenital, trauma
What can be the pathophysiological consequences of vascular disease?
ulcer, gangrene, infarct, pain on when exercising or at rest, stroke, TIA, ruptured aneurysm
What is the clinical presentation of lower limb ischaemia?
Pulslessness, Perishingly cold, Painful, Paralysis, Parasthesia, Pale; skin ulcers, gangrene, impotence
What does the body do to compensate for stenosis or obstruction to flow in peripheral vascular disease?
By developing a collateral blood supply
What is intermittent claudication?
In the limb, when circulation is adequate at rest, but on exercise, arterial occlusion prevents increased flow, allowing the build up of anaerobic metabolites that produce pain
How many people with intermittent claudication die?
20%
How many people need amputations related to their intermittent claudication?
5%
t/f... most people with intermittent claudication manage without an operation
true, it is generally benign and 85% manage without operation by responding to an exercise program
What is the treatment for claudication?
Exercise program *******, arterial bypass(using saphenous/upper limb vein, synthetic artery as last resort), balloon angioplasty and stenting
What is the commonest cause of stroke and Transient Ischaemic Attack?
thromboembolic disease, arising from extra cranial vessels (internal carotid, carotid bifurcation, vertebral artery, subclavian, aortic arch)
What % of people are dead within 1 year of having a stroke?
33%
What is a way to prevent embolus when doing a carotid stent?
while doing the procedure, have in place a protectve device which traps embolic material
How should patients with symptomatic carotid stenosis of >60% be treated?
endarterectomy = lower rates of stroke or death than stenting (which does however decrease chance of MI)
What % of untreated lower limb ischaemia will need amputation?
50%
What does motor neuopathy in a diabetic foot cause?
calluses, corns, pressure ulcers, deep seated tissue necrosis
What is the mortality rate associated with an abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture?
<50%
What is the treatment for AAA?
endoluminal tube graft through the aneurysm, usually with bifurcation