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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. How many general parts does a cell have?
three
2. The tubular system within the cell that transports molecules is the
endoplasmic reticulum
3. What cytoplasm components are responsible for cell contraction?
microfilaments
4. The first stage of mitosis is
prophase
5. What is "interphase"?
continuation of cell growth
6. The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as
cell differentiation
7. What type of tissue is the major component of glands?
epithelial
8. What type of tissue can change its shape?
muscle
9. The third layer of the epidermis is the
stratum spinosum
10. Sebaceous glands are located in the
dermis
11. Lower external temperatures result in
blood vessel constriction
12. A localized skin elevation that lasts less than 24 hours is a
wheal
13. Lichenification is
thickening of the skin
14. Moles are classified as
benign tumors
15. Which one of the following conditions is caused by a parasite?
pediculosis corporis
16. What percentage of body surface area is affected if an adult has burns on the chest and abdomen?
18%
17. Bone ends contain
very little compact bone
18. The term used to describe the joining of two or more bones is
articulate
19. The epimysium is located beneath the
fascia
20. The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the
perimysium
21. What type of joint joins the sternum and first rib?
synchondrosis
22. Osteoarthritis is commonly seen in patients who are
over 50 years old
23. A break that extends straight across a bone is classified as what type of fracture?
tranverse
24. Which area is most likely to be affected by tendinitis?
feet
25. The valve that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle is the
tricuspid valve
26. What are the characteristics of type O+ blood?
Absence of antigen A and antigen B. Rh factor D is present
27. The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the
diastolic blood pressure
28. Oxygenated blood travels from the lungs back to the heart through the
pulmonary vein
29. Vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called
efferent lyphatic vessels
30. The largest lymphatic organ is the
spleen
31. Lymph is transported through the lymphatic trunk directly to
a collecting duct
32. What are the two infection-fighting organisms associated with the lymph nodes?
lymphocytes and macrophages
33. A blood clot that breaks free and travels through the circulatory system until it becomes lodged in a smaller vessel is called
an emboulus
34. The pain associated with angina pectoris normally lasts
3 to 5 minutes
35. Which of the following is a symptom of cardiac tamponade?
weak pulse
36. The seriousness of a puncture wound or laceration to the heart or blood vessels is dependent upon the
size and extent of injury
37. The superior portion of the pharynx that contains the eustachian tubes is the
nasopharynx
38. The larynx is composed of
three single and three paired cartilages
39. During inhalation, the intercostal muscular contraction permits the ribs to move
forward and slightly upward
40. The amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs with each natural respiration is known as
tidal air
41. Aspiration of fluid into the lungs is most likely to cause
pneumonia
42. A flail chest is characterized by
three or more ribs fractured in at least two places
43. Tracheal deviation to the uninjured side of the chest is most likely a sign of
tension pneumothorax
44. The small spaces between neurons are called the
synapes
45. What type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other
bipolar
46. The primary functions of the cerebellum are to coordinate muscular movements and
control activity of the brain itself
47. The "fight-or-flight" reaction is controlled by the
sympathetic nervous system
48. The parasympathetic nervous system is designed to
prevent extensive overworking of the body
49. Grand mal seizures are also known as
tonic-clonic seizures
50. Meningitis primarily affects
infants and children
51. Temporary loss of memory is most likely a sign of a brain
concussion
52. The sigmoid colon is located in the
left lower quadrant (LLQ) of the abdominal cavity
53. The layer of the alimentary canal that is responsible for movement of substances through the canal is the
muscular layer
54. What part of the alimentary canal is between the pharynx and the stomach?
esophagus
55. The ileocecal valve in the small intestine connects to the
cecum
56. Undigested chyme passes from the ileum to the
cecum
57. Beneficial water is absorbed for use by the body by the
colon
59. A patient who complains of having the sensation of incomplete bowel movements is exhibiting a symptom of
hemorrhoids
59. If organs of the abdomen are protruding outside of the body, the patient has
an abdominal evisceration
60. What is a common symptom of an esophageal perforation?
Dysphagia
61. Kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extend from the
thoracic to the lumbar spinal region
62. Approximately how many nephrons are within each kidney?
1 million
63. The length of a ureter in an adult is approximately
10 inches
64. Backflow of urine into the ureters is prevented by
a flap of mucous membrane
65. The urge to urinate is usually first experienced when the bladder contains approximately how much urine?
250 milliliters
66. An increased production of urine is known as
diuresis
67. The presence of stones in a kidney is known as
nephrolithiasis
68. What is a common symptom of renal failure?
weight loss
69. The testes are two oval-shaped structures that are made of
connective tissue
70. The coiled tubule located on the top and to the side of each testis is the
epididymis
71. Fluid is secreted from the seminal vesicles to help carry sperm through the
ejaculatory duct
72. Growth of body hair on a male is a
secondary sex characteristic
73. How many main parts does each ovary have?
two
74. The lower third of the uterus is called the
cervix
75. The second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when
an ovum is released from one of the ovaries
76. Secondary syphilis usually occurs
6 weeks to 6 months after infection
77. Which untreated sexually transmitted disease can result in infections of the prostate and/or epidiymis?
chlamydia
78. An infection that usually spreads from the urinary tract or prostate gland to the epididymis is
epididymitis
79. Painful menstruation is known as
dysmenorrhea
80. Abnormal growth of uterine tissue outside of the uterus in indicative of
endometriosis
81. Aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the
lens
82. What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images?
rods
83. The auditory ossicles is located in the
middle ear
84. Movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the
cochlea
85. Odors are described as one of the
seven primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them
86. Which condition is an infection of an eyelash follicle?
hordeolum
87. What condition results from increased pressure within the eye?
glaucoma
88. Twenty-five percent of all foreign body eye injuries affect the
cornea
89. Presbycusis is the loss of hearing attributed primarily to
aging
90. Rhinitis is best described as
an inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane
91. What nasal condition is considered to be a resulting complication of an upper respiratory tract infection?
sinusitis
92. The pituitary gland is divided into two sections called the
anterior lobe and the posterior lobe
93. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is secreted by the
anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
94. Which gland is shaped like a pyramid?
adrenal
95. Which hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla has little effect on blood sugar level?
norepinephrine
96. The Islets of Langerhans is the
portion of the pancreas that has an endocrine function
97. Pituitary tumors often directly affect
target cells
98. Which of the following is a symptom of hypothyroidism?
slow pulse
99. Hyperparathyroidism is most common in
women over 50 years old
100. Kussmaul's repirations are a sign of
diabetic ketoacidosis