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78 Cards in this Set

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(V.4-U.1)
1. Organisms that cause infection and disease are called
Pathogens
(V.4-U.1)
2. Which tem is used to describe the host's abiity to develop a tolerance for the invading organism
Commensalism
(V.4-U.1)
3. which term is used to describe the measurement of the pathogenicity or ability of the organism to invade host tissues, withstand defenses and cause infection?
Virulence
(V.4-U.1)
4. Infectious agents which are primitive one-celled , plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly are called
bacteria
(V.4-U.1)
5. The classifcation of organisms responsible for the disease Rocky Mountain fever is
Rickettsaie
(V.4-U.1)
6. The classification of organisms known to cause the disease malaria is called
Sporozoa
(V.4-U.1)
7. Which infectious agent is considered parasitic
helminths
(V.4-U.1)
8. What orgnism harbors or allows an agent to grow and reproduce
Host
(V.4-U.1)
9. The stage of infection when systemic and localized symptoms appear is called
Illness
(V.4-U.1)
Hepatitis is best defined as inflammation of the
Liver
(V.4-U.1)
What communcable diseases are readily transmitted by casual contact and are difficult to control or prevent
Respiratory
(V.4-U.1)
12. The Air Force uses the Enzyme-Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay(ELISA) and Western Blot tests to detect
The HIV antibodies
(V.4-U.1)
13 Report communicable diseases to which one of the following offices?
Public Health
(V.4-U.1)
14. Which one of the following offices is resonsible for preparing a list of reportable diseases?
Public Health
(V.4-U.1)
15. A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by
completing an AF form 570 "Notification of Patient's Medical Status"
(V.4-U.1)
16. Which medical term means the freedom of infection?
Asepsis
(V.4-U.1)
17. Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all microorganisms?
Surgecial Asepsis
(V.4-U.1)
18. Which substance is used to reduce the number of microorganisms on living tissue?
D???????
(V.4-U.1)
19. Medical Asepstic handwashing is done to
protect patiens, co-workers and self
(V.4-U.1)
20. Surgical aseptic handwashing is done to prevent infecting
Patients
(V.4-U.1)
21. Why were transmission-based precautions developed by the Centers for Disease Control?
Prevent the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organisms known method of production
(V.4-U.1)
22. Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaurtion?
Enteric
(V.4-U.1)
23. Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored negative air pressure?
Airborne
(V.4-U.1)
24. Patients who are highly susceptible to infection are placed in which of the following types of isolation?
Reverse
(V.4-U.1)
25. What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department
Put a gown, mask and gloves on the patient alert personnel transport
(V.4-U.1)
26. Which guideline should you fllow when providing postmortem care to a patient who was in isolation?
Use the same precauations that you used when the patient was alive
(V.4-U.1)
27. An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation is the
isolation cart
(V.4-U.1)
28. When should gloves rather than non-sterile gloves be worn when working with a patient in isolation?
When doing a sterile procedure
(V.4-U.1)
29. Which sterilization classification refers to instruments or objects introduced directyl into the bloodstream?
Critical
(V.4-U.1)
30. Which sterilization classification is applied to equipment used to perform a fiberoptic endescope?
Semicritical
(V.4-U.1)
31. What is the first step when preparing objects fo sterilization
Cleaning
(V.4-U.1)
32. High-level disenfection will destroy all of the following except
spores
(V.4-U.1)
33. Under the time related (traditional) method, which locally sterilized package would have a shelf life of 6 months?
Items in "peel-packed" wrapper
(V.4-U.1)
34. What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?
When packaging integrity is compromised
(V.4-U.1)
35. Which method of sterilization is preferable for items that are delicate?
Ethylene Oxide
(V.4-U.2)
36. For what type of patients are rectal temperatures contraindicated?
Cardiac
(V.4-U.2)
37. When talking the rectal temperature of an adult patient, how far in the rectum should the thermometer be inserted?
1.0 inch
(V.4-U.2)
38. Which pulse point persists when stroke volume is low?
Carotid
(V.4-U.2)
39. What is the anatomical location of the apex of the heart, which is used for ausculating the apical pulse?
Left side of the body, fourth or fifth intercostal space, micclavicular line.
(V.4-U.2)
40. Which term is used to define difficult or painful breathing?
Dyspnea
(V.4-U.2)
41. Slow or irregular shallow respiration called hypoventilation can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, which can result in a condition called
Respiratory Acidosis
(V.4-U.2)
42. Rapid, deep breathing, referred to as hyperventilation, depletes the carbon dioxide level in the blood and can result in a condition called
Respiratory Alkilosis
(V.4-U.2)
43. Which breathing pattern is characterized by an increase in both depth and rate of respiration and is associated with metabolic acidosis and renal failure?
Kussmauls
(V.4-U.2)
44. Which sign, associated with the respiratory system , wold be an indication of pulmonary edema?
Thick, green, purulent sputum
(V.4-U.2)
45. When performing a health history, which factor would you suspect did not contribute to a patient's hypertension?
Regular exercise
(V.4-U.2)
46. Which blood pressure reading would be noticeable if a patient has suffered trauma to the head?
Decreasing systolic, rising diastolic
(V.4-U.2)
47. What is another term for orthostatic hypotension?
Postural Hypotension
(V.4-U.2)
48. Neurological checks should be performed on a patient with suspected
increased intracranial pressure
(V.4-U.2)
49. A pulse oximetry machine can give false high reading when a patient being tested is suffering from
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
(V.4-U.2)
50. Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygenation saturations fall below
80 percent
(V.4-U.2)
51. The amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs during normal breathing is called
tidal volume
(V.4-U.2)
52. When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, what is the minimum percentage standard for the predicted FEV1 or FVC?
80
(V.4-U.2)
53. When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, what is the minimum percentage standard for the FEV/FVC ratio?
70
(V.4-U.2)
54. Before administering the pulmonary function test, ensure the patient has not
eaten within the past hour
(V.4-U.2)
55. During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are
2;3
(V.4-U.2)
56. Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart musce initiate?
Sinoatrial (SA) node
(V.4-U.2)
57. Where do the electrical impulses terminate within the heart?
Purkinje fibers
(V.4-U.2)
58. Where is the Purkinje fiber networkd the most elaborate?
left ventricle
(V.4-U.2)
59. Any artificial products or features which appear on an electroardiogram tracing are called?
artifacts
(V.4-U.2)
60. What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings?
Arrythmia
(V.4-U.2)
61. When you do an electocardiogram, where do you place the V2 chest lead on the individual
Left side of sternum, fourth intercostas space
62. If you are performing an electocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the
USAF Central electrocardiographic library
(V.4-U.2)
63. When converting pounds to kilograms, one kilogram is equal to how many pounds?
2.2 lbs
(V.4-U.2)
64. When taking an individual's measurements, standing height is recorded to the nearest
quarter inch
(V.4-U.2)
65. A sitting height measurement is required on all
flying training physicals
(V.4-U.2)
66. An individual's sitting height measurement si recorded to the nearest
quarter inch
(V.4-U.2)
67. An individual's weight measurement is recorded to the nearest
quarter pound
(V.4-U.2)
68. What is a girth measuremtent?
Distance around a body part
(V.4-U.2)
69. Which symbol is used when recording a pulse on SF511, vital record?
O
(V.4-U.2)
70. Which symbol is used when recoding a temperature on SF511, vital sign record?
. solid filled in dot
(V.4-U.3)
71. When performing a urine test, a sample with a specific gravity of 1.030 suggests that a patient is experiencing
Dehydration
(V.4-U.3)
72. How much fecal material is required to send to laboratory for a stool specimen?
2 tablespoons
(V.4-U.3)
73. Which site is not recommended for sking puncture to obtain a blood sample?
Elbow
(V.4-U.3)
74. During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away?
It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test result
(V.4-U.3)
75. The normal fasting blood glucose level is
70 to 115 mg/dl
(V.4-U.3)
76 What is the purpose of perfoming th Allen Test before performing an arterial blood gas (ABG) test?
Ensure the ulnar artery can maintain blood supply to the hand
(V.4-U.3)
77. What should you instruct a patient to do before coughing up a sputum culture?
Rinse mouth with hot water
(V.4-U.3)
78. The rapid strep test can only detect the presence of
"Group A" strep