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148 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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(001) What is the most rigorous stage of development? |
Amn and A1C |
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(001) Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty? |
Squad leader |
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(001) Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is available in certain locations? |
Flight Sergeant |
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(001) What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership? |
SMSgt |
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(001) What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands? |
Tactical control |
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(001) Which commander exercises operational control? |
Joint Force commander |
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(001) Supervisors must ensure their troops |
possess required qualifications and certifications |
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(001) Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule? |
Squadron commander |
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(001) Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the |
Post priority listing |
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(001) All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other that routine law enforcement and security duties, except the |
Installation Commander |
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(001) How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there? |
3
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(001) What drives a post priority chart? |
Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment. |
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(001) Post priority charts are used to |
allocate manpower |
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(001) Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person’s right to bear a firearm? |
Commander |
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(001) Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned? |
Defense force commander |
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(001) The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in |
Peacetime and wartime |
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(001) When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain |
proficiency |
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(001) What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high? |
Post rotations. |
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(001) As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates? |
Work ethic |
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(001) What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance? |
Investigate to determine the cause. |
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(002) The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is |
Report
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(002) After the command "Open rank, MARCH," which of the following action does the flight take? |
The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress. |
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(002) After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement? |
3
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(002) When does the second element leader give the command, "Second Element, ATTENTION"? |
As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands "Second Element, ATTENTION" |
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(002) When do you give the command, "Close Ranks, MARCH!"? |
Upon departure of the inspecting official |
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(002) Where can you find information about current fitness standards and assessments? |
AFI 36−2905 |
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(002) Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment? |
Flight member |
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(002) A post check generally includes all of these items except |
weapons inspection |
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(002) What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else’s writing? |
Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337 |
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(002) When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is |
irrelevant |
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(002) The primary function of reviewing is to ensure |
ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across. |
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(003) Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program? |
Air Force Security Forces Center. |
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(003) Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools? |
Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs) |
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(003) What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips? |
Feedback
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(003) The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to |
measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. |
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(004) The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to |
deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources |
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(004) Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is |
gunfire or escape |
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(004) When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage? |
At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. |
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(004) A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous |
psychological deterrent to potential violators. |
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(004) During peaceful confrontations, the Military Working Dog (MWD) team should be positioned |
in reserve, out of sight of the crowd |
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(005) All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel,MAJCOMrequirements, and as required by the |
Integrated Base Defense Council. |
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(005) All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked" means that they |
must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system. |
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(005) Which radio type can talk over great distances? |
Mobile two-way radio. |
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(005) The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to |
ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year. |
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(005) Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year? |
Major commands (MAJCOMs) |
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(005) What is not a category for the status of funds? |
End of Year
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(005) Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas? |
Major command (MAJCOM) functional |
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(005) What provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units? |
Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP) |
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(005) When are manpower numbers reviewed? |
Annually |
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(005) Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document? |
Report No Later than Date |
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(005) Where does the installations’ labor relations specialist work? |
Civilian Personnel Office. |
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(005) All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit except |
employees in non-dedicated positions. |
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(005) Which statue protects an alleged violation of a right? |
Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statue (5 U.S.C. Chapter 71) |
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(005) Who controls the depth, scope and frequency of internal inspections? |
Commanders |
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(005) Which of these is not a type of nuclear weapons technical inspections? |
Controlled Nuclear Surety Inspection (CNSI) |
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(006) Which of the following is not an alarm response code? |
Code 4 |
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(006) Which is not a designated PL1 resource? |
Aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States. |
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(006) Which Protection Level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security? |
PL4 |
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(007) How many team configurations are there for use in a tactical situation? |
3
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(007) Which team movement allows for more coverage to the front? |
Three-person team movement. |
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(007) The T-formation is best suited for what environment? |
Wider hallways |
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(007) Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry when using a shotgun? |
Center mass of the door
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(007) When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the |
unknown
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(007) When securing a closed stairwell, which person pulls long security to the next bend or landing? |
#2
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(008) When responding to a residence, when you first reach the door you should not |
stand directly in front of the door. |
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(008) What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute? |
The responding patrol’s attitude. |
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(008) Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm? |
Bloody nose
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(008) Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated? |
Rape |
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(008) What is not considered an objective of the Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) program? |
Prosecute the accused
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(008) Who notifies the victim that the accused escaped, was released, or died? |
Defense Force Commander. |
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(009) What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene? |
It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. |
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(009) What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected? |
It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found. |
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(009) Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene? |
It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects. |
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(009) Your key actions during the preliminary investigation are to |
observe and record. |
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(010) Who assumes overall command and control at a major accident site? |
Disaster Control Group. |
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(010) During which major accident response phase is the estimated number of casualties reported? |
Notification phase. |
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(010) Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time consuming? |
Recovery phase |
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(010) What zone established at a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident site is also referred to as a restricted zone? |
Hot zone
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(010) Once the President has declared a major disaster requiring federal emergency assistance, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) requests help through the |
United States Army |
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(010) During which phase of a natural disaster, should the installation commander reassess the situation? |
Sustained emergency phase |
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(010) Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation? |
Public Affairs |
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(011) What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews? |
There is no time limit
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(011) When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner? |
Seek Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) advice |
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(011) Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you prior to questioning? |
Income
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(011) An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a |
habitual offender |
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(012) During what step of the guidelines of conducting a follow-up investigation, should a determination be made that the initial incident scene was thoroughly processed? |
Collecting physical evidence. |
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(012) The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension |
in a private dwelling. |
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(012) To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas the installation commander must coordinate with the |
Major command (MAJCOM) Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). |
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(013) Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case? |
Arranging and reviewing original notes |
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(013) Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are essential when testifying? |
Skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence |
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(001) What group of individuals is considered our backbone?
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Amn to A1C |
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(001) As a MSgt what are you expected to do in addition to leading members in their daily activities?
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Lead teams effectively and efficiently through processes and mission functions |
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(001) Which control authority does not provide organizational authority or authoritative direction for administrative and logistic support or discipline? |
TACON
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(001) Operational control is the authority to perform what functions of command?
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Organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission assigned to the command |
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(001) As a supervisor, why is it important to be familiar with and qualified to perform the duties of immediate subordinates?
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It allows you to accurately assess the requirements of the duty position and to compare them with the skills and abilities of your subordinates |
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(001) What are some of the basic requirements to follow when developing flight schedules?
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Flight schedules must require, as a minimum, the normal 8-hour working period and not exceed 12-hour shift; schedules should provide for completion of proficiency and recurring training requirements; flight schedules should provide an uninterrupted sleep schedule; posts and patrols will be manned according to the post priority listing. Tours of duty and time off should be commensurate with effective employment of security forces personnel |
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(001) Who authorizes Security Forces personnel to bear and use firearms openly and in a concealed carry?
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The Security Forces Commander or equivalent |
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(001) Who, when authorized, may bear and use firearms?
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Security Force personnel with a valid arming requirement |
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(001) Who takes appropriate action to ensure a weapon is not issued to a person whose authority has been withdrawn?
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Servicing armories |
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(001) List the causes for immediate withdrawal of individual arming authority.
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Identified substance abusers; emotionally unstable or behavior suggests they are incapable of using firearms with care; determined by medical authority to be suffering from alcohol abuse or dependence; taking prescription medication that impairs their ability to use firearms; relieved of duty for disciplinary reasons |
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(001) What drives the post priority chart?
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The IDRMP assessment |
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(001) What do you use a post priority chart for?
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To allocate manpower |
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(001) How does encouraging personnel to obtain as many qualifications as possible, assist the flight sergeant?
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In assigning personnel to duty positions |
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(001) Why is adequate and fair post rotation important to a flight?
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It can assist you in keeping flight morale high |
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(001) What should you discuss when you regularly meet with your subordinates?
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Any issues involving their performance |
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(001) What is the hands-on task performance training designed to qualify an Airman in a specific duty position?
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Qualification Training |
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(002) What are the initial actions taken after the flight sergeant gives the order to "Fall in?"
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The flight falls in six paces in front of the flight sergeant, forming one to four elements, depending on the size of the flight. The element leaders are positioned at the right flank of each element |
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(002) Explain "Close Ranks, MARCH." |
At this command, the first element stands fast, the second element takes one pace forward and halts, the third element takes two paces forward and halts, and the fourth element takes three paces forward and halts. The elements automatically cover and remain at attention |
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(002) As the flight sergeant, what three things should you look for during your inspection of the flight? |
(1) Fitness for duty, (2) appearance complies with directives and (3) possession of all required equipment and ensure that all equipment is in good working condition |
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(002) What are flight members ultimately responsible for? |
Maintaining their own equipment |
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(002) What should you question your personnel about during post check visits? |
About security forces basic duties, responsibilities, SSIs, and post procedures |
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(002) List what a post check generally includes. |
Inspecting facilities; contact with posted sentries and patrols; area inspection; inspection of classified material (if any); inspection of funds activities (if any); and inspection of weapons storage areas |
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(002) What is the primary function of reviewing paperwork? |
To ensure ideas being communicated are stated logically in acceptable, consistent English usage (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across in the fewest words |
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(002) What is a "nitpicker"?
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A person who can’t resist making minute and unjustified criticism and changes to someone’s work just for the sake of changing it |
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(003) Define individual skills training.
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Individual skills training teaches individuals tasks for a specific duty position tailored to MAJCOM and local requirements |
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(003) At a minimum, how often does the Stan/Eval section conduct an inspection of each functional area or work center? |
At least once a year |
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(004) When using MWD in security operations, what must you consider prior to posting? |
You need to consider wind direction, location of priority resources, and likely avenues of approach when deciding best location for dog posts |
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(004) Who certifies a dog team’s "reliability" to detect the presence of illegal substances and explosives?
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The commanding officer having search-granting authority over the installation |
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(005) List basic equipment issued to SF personnel. |
Whistle, flashlight, cold and foul weather gear, web gear, handcuffs, restricted area badge, ID card, and Security Forces shield |
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(005) All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked. What does that mean? |
They all must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system |
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(005) How is the Per-Troop-allocation used? |
To estimate baseline requirements |
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(005) In the corporate process, what does the Financial Management Analysis officer manage? |
The budget, cost, and accounting functions for the base |
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(005) Where does the process to allot our manning begin? |
Headquarters Air Force |
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(005) The UMD is the primary document that reflects what? |
The manpower required to accomplish the unit mission |
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(005) For supervisors, what is the most confusing aspect of the labor relations program? |
The actions that must be taken to comply with the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute |
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(005) What is the definition of a bargaining unit? |
A group of civilian employees who have a common interest and are represented by a labor organization in dealings with management |
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(005) What serves as the foundation for the Air Force Inspection System? |
Internal Inspections |
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(005) What are the two purposes for an external inspection? |
Provides an independent, transparent and accountable assessment of readiness, economy, efficiency and state of discipline. Can be used to validate and verify the internal inspections process |
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(006) When does the response to a cantonment alarm activation start? |
With the dispatch |
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(006) List the resources designated as PL1. |
Nuclear Weapons; Command, Control, Communications, and Computer (C4) Systems critical to the success of active nuclear missions; designated critical space and launch resources; aircraft designated to transport the President of the United States; and Senior Executive Mission (SENEX) aircraft |
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(007) What formation is best suited for a team moving rapidly toward an objective? |
The Diamond formation |
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(007) Which technique is used to search most of a room prior to entering it? |
Threshold Evaluation (Slicing the Pie) |
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(008) What is your primary role when responding to a domestic situation? |
Take immediate actions to restore order and protect lives |
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(008) What questions should be included when making contact with the residents? |
Ages and relationship of children; Whether security forces have responded before; How long they’ve been at that address and base; Sponsor’s rank, social security number, and unit; Whether the family has been to the Family Advocacy Office; Names and whereabouts of the sponsor, all dependents, and residents; Relationship of residents (nephew, uncle, mother, boyfriend, spouse) |
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(009) If you are going to release a crime scene to Security Forces Investigations/AFOSI when is it appropriate to advise a suspect of his/her Article 31/5th Amendment rights? |
When the subject wants to talk and Security Forces Investigations/AFOSI have not arrived on-scene |
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(009) What three actions should personnel conducting a crime scene search do when they find an item of possible evidentiary value? |
Refrain from touching or moving the item, immediately tell the person leading the search, they must protect the item until the person leading the investigation or an investigator arrives |
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(010) According to base’s the initial response policy, who is responsible for accomplishing the initial accident response? |
The nearest military installation, regardless of size, to an accident |
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(010) This type of hostage taker is motivated by personal revenge. |
Wronged person
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(010) This type of hostage taker conducts over half of the hostage-taking incidents. |
Mentally disturbed
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(010) This type of hostage taker is acting on impulse to avoid immediate apprehension |
Fleeing criminal
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(010) This type of hostage taker operates within a military type structure and operations are well planned. |
Political extremist
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(010) This type of hostage taker requires time, patience, and sensitivity. |
Religious extremist
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(011) What do you do if a suspect does not understand her/his rights after the second rights advisement? |
Seek advice from the staff judge advocate (SJA) office |
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(011) What form must be used when releasing a suspect? |
DD Form 2708, Receipt for Inmate or Detained Person |
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(012) What are the four steps you should use as a guide when conducting a follow-up investigation? |
Review and analyze all previous reports prepared in the preliminary investigation, conduct additional interviews, collect physical evidence, and identify and apprehend suspects |
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(012) Who must the installation commander coordinate with at an overseas location to use off-base patrols? |
MAJCOM SJA office |
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(013) What is your ultimate goal when testifying at a court-martial? |
To see justice done and the truth revealed |
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(013) From what source(s) do you present the facts of a case? |
Personal knowledge, notes, or memorandum |
