3N0X2 Cdcs - Unit Review Exercises Volume 1

Front 1

1. (001) Which of the following is an example of how the Air Force applies the principles of
information?

a. Through its policy that all information is made available, whether cleared for release or not.
b. Through its policy that a free flow of information is made available without censorship.
c. By providing sufficient information to commanders.
d. By providing sufficient information to the public.

Back 1

b. Through its policy that a free flow of information is made available without censorship.

Front 2

2. (002) All of the following are different major command (MAJCOM), field operating agency
(FOA), and direct reporting unit (DRU) Public Affairs’ (PA) functions except

a. they directly supervise operations.
b. their missions are varied and specialized.
c. they monitor and evaluate PA programs.
d. their typical duties include internal information, media, and community relations.

Back 2

a. they directly supervise operations.

Front 3

3. (002) Who establishes and directs the Air Force Public Affairs program at the wing level?

a. Installation public affairs officer (PAO).
b. Installation commander.
c. Group commander.
d. Group PAO.

Back 3

b. Installation commander.

Front 4

4. (002) What is the most visible product produced by a wing-level Public Affairs shop?

a. Security reviews.
b. Plans and resources.
c. Commanders’ Access Channel.
d. Base newspaper and/or website.

Back 4

d. Base newspaper and/or website.

Front 5

5. (003) What are the parts that make up the Air Force Public Affairs Triad?

a. Photojournalists, bands, and broadcasters.
b. Internal, security review, and community relations.
c. Internal, community relations, and media relations.
d. Public Affairs, Air Force News, and American Forces Radio and Television Service.

Back 5

a. Photojournalists, bands, and broadcasters.

Front 6

6. (003) How many major programs do Air Force Public Affairs activities generally fall into to
accomplish its objective of expanding awareness and support?

a. Two.
b. Three.
c. Four.
d. Five.

Back 6

c. Four.

Front 7

7. (003) Which Air Force Public Affairs program allows the public to talk directly with Air Force
people and observe our readiness?

a. Media relations.
b. Security review.
c. Internal information.
d. Community relations.

Back 7

d. Community relations.

Front 8

8. (003) Who establishes management policies for the Air Force band program as the functional
manager?

a. Secretary of the Air Force Public Affairs (SAF/PA).
b. Major command Public Affairs (MAJCOM/PA).
c. Unit commanders.
d. Band commander.

Back 8

a. Secretary of the Air Force Public Affairs (SAF/PA).

Front 9

9. (003) How many days in advance of an event must civilian sponsors submit DD Form 2536,
Request for Armed Forces Participation in Public Events (non-Aviation), to the band?

a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 75.
d. 90.

Back 9

d. 90.

Front 10

10. (003) What organization manages the American Forces Radio and Television Service outlets?

a. Department of Defense (DOD).
b. Secretary of the Air Force Public Affairs (SAF/PA).
c. Air Force News (AFNEWS).
d. Air Force Broadcasting Service (AFBS).

Back 10

d. Air Force Broadcasting Service (AFBS).

Front 11

11. (004) Which core competency allows Public Affairs (PA) professionals to prepare Airmen for
worldwide operations and develop them into frontline ambassadors?

a. Public trust and support.
b. PA readiness.
c. Trusted counsel to leaders.
d. Global influence and deterrence.

Back 11

d. Global influence and deterrence.

Front 12

12. (004) Which core competency allows Public Affairs (PA) to execute its other four core
competencies effectively?

a. Public trust and support.
b. PA readiness.
c. Trusted counsel to leaders.
d. Global influence and deterrence.

Back 12

b. PA readiness.

Front 13

13. (005) In Air Force Public Affairs, which enlisted personnel determine requirements and
recommend approaches to meet mission objectives?

a. Superintendents.
b. Craftsmen.
c. Journeymen.
d. Apprentices.

Back 13

a. Superintendents.

Front 14

14. (005) What do the last two digits represent in the Air Force specialty code 3N05X?

a. Job category and skill level.
b. Skill level and specific Air Force specialty (AFS).
c. Specific AFS and job category.
d. AFS and specific career field area.

Back 14

b. Skill level and specific Air Force specialty (AFS).

Front 15

15. (006) In the Air Force, a radio and television broadcast craftsman would most likely be assigned
duties as a

a. radio news announcer.
b. television director.
c. videotape editor.
d. camera operator.

Back 15

c. videotape editor.

Front 16

16. (007) What does the specialty training standard (STS) identify in a career field education and
training plan (CFETP)?

a. Training to achieve 3-, 5-, and 7-skill levels.
b. Deployed tasks for journeymen to reach.
c. Training deficiencies of 3-skill levels.
d. Formal training requirements.

Back 16

a. Training to achieve 3-, 5-, and 7-skill levels.

Front 17

17. (007) Completing hands-on task performance training is also known as performing

a. craftsman upgrade training.
b. qualification training.
c. certification training.
d. formal training.

Back 17

b. qualification training.

Front 18

18. (008) What are three Public Affairs training elements?

a. Planning, scheduling, and conducting.
b. Planning, attaining, and maintaining.
c. Scheduling, receiving, and processing.
d. Scheduling, qualifying, and certifying.

Back 18

a. Planning, scheduling, and conducting.

Front 19

19. (008) What does a supervisor determine before planning Public Affairs training?

a. Off-duty education.
b. Professional development.
c. Education and training requirements.
d. Formal and informal school requirements.

Back 19

c. Education and training requirements.

Front 20

20. (008) If there is a lack of on-the-job training (OJT) capability in a Public Affairs office the

a. trainee can decide if additional training is really needed.
b. supervisor or trainer can schedule OJT to train several trainees.
c. trainee will be required to attend additional formal education or training.
d. career field manager can decide if additional training is needed and schedule it.

Back 20

c. trainee will be required to attend additional formal education or training.

Front 21

21. (009) Which cause is associated with the majority of electrical accidents?
a. Overloaded circuits.
b. Grounding faults.
c. Short circuits.
d. Human error.

Back 21

d. Human error.

Front 22

22. (009) When considering accidental grounding, an electric current passes through any available
conductor if given the opportunity to

a. bypass ground.
b. reduce capacitance.
c. generate an electric arc or heat.
d. follow a less resistant path to ground.

Back 22

d. follow a less resistant path to ground.

Front 23

23. (010) Motion-media recording in the vicinity of an explosive hazard concerns
a. electricity-grounding provisions.
b. tripping over obstacles.
c. excessive noise levels.
d. corrosive fumes.

Back 23

a. electricity-grounding provisions.

Front 24

24. (011) What comprehensive and aggressive program was initiated to protect Air Force personnel
from work-related deaths, injuries and occupational illnesses?

a. Air Force Safety.
b. Air Force Occupational Safety and Health.
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
d. Air Force Occupational Safety and Health Agency.

Back 24

b. Air Force Occupational Safety and Health. (AFOSH)

Front 25

25. (011) What activities can provide Air Force broadcasters information on battery storage and
disposal requirements?

a. Original manufacturer or the Environmental Protection Agency.
b. Base supply or the civil engineering environmental flight.
c. Civil engineering environmental flight only.
d. Original manufacturer only.

Back 25

b. Base supply or the civil engineering environmental flight.

Front 26

26. (012) You should interpret a radiation warning sign or symbol posted in an area to mean that

a. it is safe to enter the area.
b. magnetic materials will be damaged.
c. all visits must first be coordinated with Security Forces.
d. it is an active hazard area to be avoided unless otherwise directed.

Back 26

d. it is an active hazard area to be avoided unless otherwise directed.

Front 27

27. (012) Who is best qualified to advise you on all safety considerations when working within areas
containing radiological safety hazards?

a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration personnel.
b. The local area supervisory personnel.
c. Your supervisor.
d. Security Forces.

Back 27

b. The local area supervisory personnel.

Front 28

28. (013) Extension booms and dollies may become unstable on the set if they are

a. inadequately counterbalanced.
b. used to obtain an overall shot.
c. inadequately weighted.
d. used on closed sets.

Back 28

a. inadequately counterbalanced.

Front 29

29. (014) Who can authorize the release of unclassified material to the public that was previously
cleared through Air Force security channels?

a. Legal office.
b. Senior commander.
c. Public Affairs officer.
d. Security review officials.

Back 29

b. Senior commander.

Front 30

30. (014) What is the second most important thing, after security, to look for in Public Affairs
correspondence?

a. Policy.
b. Propriety.
c. Accuracy.
d. Attribution.

Back 30

c. Accuracy.

Front 31

31. (015) This publication provides guidance on processing Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
materials.

a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 35–101, Public Affairs Responsibilities and Management.
b. AFI 35–102, Security and Policy Review Process.
c. Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD) 35–1, Public Affairs Management.
d. Department of Defense (DOD) Regulation 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program.

Back 31

d. Department of Defense (DOD) Regulation 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program.

Front 32

32. (015) Within how many days must a requester receive a response after making a Freedom of
Information Act (FOIA) request?

a. 7.
b. 10.
c. 15.
d. 20.

Back 32

d. 20.

Front 33

33. (015) Allowing a media representative’s request for information to be handled under the Freedom
of Information Act (FOIA)

a. is the best way to handle the request.
b. is recommended by the records manager.
c. should be the last resort for Public Affairs.
d. provides the quickest way to process the request.

Back 33

c. should be the last resort for Public Affairs.

Front 34

34. (016) What publication provides information on citizens’ right to review their records kept by the
government?

a. AFI 33–101, Commanders Guidance and Responsibilities.
b. AFI 33–332, Air Force Privacy Program.
c. AFI 35–101, Public Affairs Responsibilities and Management.
d. AFI 35–105, Community Relations.

Back 34

b. AFI 33–332, Air Force Privacy Program.

Front 35

35. (016) The Privacy Act statement (PAS) is needed whenever individuals

a. are asked to provide personal information that is not going into a system of records.
b. are asked to provide personal information that is going into a system of records.
c. request it be included with personal accounting data.
d. request it be included over their signature.

Back 35

b. are asked to provide personal information that is going into a system of records.

Front 36

36. (017) Libel is more serious than slander because it is

a. defamatory and intentional.
b. widespread and intentional.
c. defamatory and unintentional.
d. widespread and unintentional.

Back 36

b. widespread and intentional.

Front 37

37. (018) A published statement that may not be defamatory in and of itself, but may become
defamatory in light of other facts, is considered

a. libel per se.
b. libel per quod.
c. slander per se.
d. slander per quod.

Back 37

b. libel per quod.

Front 38

38. (018) If the United States Air Force is involved in a libel suit, the best defense is

a. proof of the truth.
b. proof of intentions.
c. good note taking.
d. a digital recorder during interviews.

Back 38

d. a digital recorder during interviews.

Front 39

39. (019) What are two defenses against charges of violating the right of privacy called?

a. Newsworthiness and disclosure.
b. Disclosure and consent.
c. Consent and newsworthiness.
d. Newsworthiness and appropriation.

Back 39

c. Consent and newsworthiness.

Front 40

40. (020) What publication best defines the term “copyright” as an exclusive right under Title 17,
United States Code?

a. AFI 35–101, Public Affairs Responsibilities and Management.
b. AFI 51–303, Intellectual Property—Patents, Patent Related Matters, Trademarks and Copyrights.
c. AFMAN 37–104, Managing Information to Support the Air Force Mission.
d. AFPD 35–1, Public Affairs Management.

Back 40

b. AFI 51–303, Intellectual Property—Patents, Patent Related Matters, Trademarks and Copyrights.

Front 41

41. (020) Under what circumstances does a government agency have the right to use copyrighted material?

a. Immediately after the copyright owner dies.
b. Only with permission of the copyright owner.
c. If such use is approved by the base legal office.
d. Anytime, with or without the copyright owner’s permission.

Back 41

b. Only with permission of the copyright owner.

Front 42

42. (021) What should you ensure when using copyrighted material in your newspaper or website?

a. Acknowledge the base legal office’s permission with the copyright material.
b. Give prominent and appropriate credit to the copyright owner.
c. Do not give credit for the material as it could be viewed as government endorsement.
d. List the name of the copyright owner in the article.

Back 42

b. Give prominent and appropriate credit to the copyright owner.

Front 43

43. (021) All of the following are requirements for obtaining permission to use copyrighted material
except the request must

a. be for greater rights than actually needed.
b. fully identify the material for which permission is being obtained.
c. explain the proposed use and state the conditions of use, so that the copyright proprietor or agent need only give affirmative consent to the proposed use.
d. be submitted in two copies to the copyright proprietor so that the proprietor may retain one copy and return the other signed to show assent to the request.

Back 43

a. be for greater rights than actually needed.

Front 44

44. (022) Who is the approving authority if an organization on your installation wants to establish a
public Air Force website?
a. Public Affairs office.
b. Major command or equivalent.
c. Wing commander or equivalent.
d. Unit seeking to establish a website.

Back 44

a. Public Affairs office.

Front 45

45. (022) What is the concern you face in Public Affairs (PA) with the growth of Internet and Intranet
sites?

a. Training on the Web will be required.
b. Funding will not keep pace with growth.
c. Designing the Web will take too much time.
d. Maintaining websites distracts from PA programs.

Back 45

d. Maintaining websites distracts from PA programs.

Front 46

46. (023) The average Air Force installation uses its website as a means of

a. publicizing base fund-raising activities.
b. ensuring quick release of unclassified information.
c. providing free courses offered by technical schools and universities.
d. informing Airmen and community members of the unit’s news and activities.

Back 46

d. informing Airmen and community members of the unit’s news and activities.

Front 47

47. (023) What section of the Department of Defense (DOD) Website Administration Policies and
Procedures must you adhere to when posting base newspapers on the web?

a. Part III.
b. Part IV.
c. Part V.
d. Part VI.

Back 47

c. Part V.

Front 48

48. (024) What is the basic design principle for a base website?

a. Making it a one-stop-shopping experience with links to important sites.
b. Keeping it filled with local stories, photos and video.
c. Making special banners to draw the public to the site.
d. Keeping it simple.

Back 48

d. Keeping it simple.

Front 49

49. (025) Who approves transportation provided to a congressional representative on a base visit?

a. Secretary of the Air Force.
b. Air Force Chief of Staff.
c. Major command commander.
d. Wing commander.

Back 49

a. Secretary of the Air Force.

Front 50

50. (026) As a Public Affairs representative, which directive must you comply with on a deployment
to support a war effort?

a. Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD) 35–1, Public Affairs Management.
b. AFPD 51–4, Compliance with the Law of Armed Conflict.
c. AFPD 51–5, Military Legal Affairs.
d. AFPD 51–7, International Law.

Back 50

b. AFPD 51–4, Compliance with the Law of Armed Conflict.

Front 51

51. (026) Which Air Force publication would you reference to determine the limitations of gifts for
United States government employees?

a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 51–601, Gifts to the Department of the Air Force.
b. AFI 51–901, Gifts from Foreign Governments.
c. Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD) 51–4, Compliance with the Law of Armed Conflict.
d. AFPD, 51–5, Military Legal Affairs.

Back 51

a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 51–601, Gifts to the Department of the Air Force.

Front 52

52. (027) The ultimate goal of the information protection program is to protect vital information’s

a. credibility, confidentiality, and availability.
b. availability, integrity, and confidentiality.
c. confidentiality, integrity, and credibility.
d. integrity, credibility, and availability.

Back 52

b. availability, integrity, and confidentiality.

Front 53

53. (028) Which is not an operations security practice?

a. Reducing vulnerabilities to critical friendly information.
b. Eliminating vulnerabilities to critical friendly information.
c. Observing indicators an adversary can collect and analyze.
d. Using your own code to discuss sensitive data over an unsecured phone.

Back 53

d. Using your own code to discuss sensitive data over an unsecured phone.

Front 54

54. (028) The introduction of the first Air Force Operations Security Program in Southeast Asia, in
1966, was directed by the

a. Chief of Staff of the Air Force.
b. Secretary of the Air Force.
c. Secretary of Defense.
d. Joint Chiefs of Staff.

Back 54

d. Joint Chiefs of Staff.

Front 55

55. (028) Which is not a step in the operations security process?

a. Risk assessment.
b. Logistics buildup.
c. Application of appropriate measures.
d. Identification of critical information and indicators.

Back 55

b. Logistics buildup.

Front 56

56. (028) Which action is a category of operations security measures we apply?

a. Identifying and mitigating a vulnerability.
b. Estimating an adversary’s capability to exploit a weakness.
c. Verifying an adversary’s intention to collect and use critical information.
d. Giving the enemy false interpretations of critical information and indicators.

Back 56

d. Giving the enemy false interpretations of critical information and indicators.

Front 57

57. (029) Which is an example of an operations security communications indicator?

a. A drastic increase or decrease in message traffic volume.
b. Distinctive emblems on vehicles, buildings, or aircraft.
c. Special briefings, meetings, or religious services.
d. Rehearsals of operations or exercises.

Back 57

a. A drastic increase or decrease in message traffic volume.

Front 58

58. (029) What is not a guideline for telephone usage to help eliminate operations security
vulnerabilities?

a. Talk around a classified topic.
b. Do not allow yourself to be pressured by time.
c. Never discuss classified information over the telephone.
d. Do not be tempted to use the telephone because it is convenient.

Back 58

a. Talk around a classified topic.

Front 59

59. (029) All of the following are methods that minimize operations security vulnerabilities except

a. protecting information systems against unauthorized disclosure of data.
b. understanding how misuse of information can harm national security.
c. finding any inherent strengths in an information system.
d. keeping informed of threats to information systems.

Back 59

c. finding any inherent strengths in an information system.

Front 60

60. (030) What is the communications security program specifically designed to do?

a. Identify friendly information observable to enemies.
b. Protect the integrity and data of computer systems.
c. Teach all workers to interpret a threat analysis.
d. Detect and correct procedural weaknesses.

Back 60

d. Detect and correct procedural weaknesses.

Front 61

61. (030) This organization is accountable for each encryption device in the Air Force.

a. Air Force Office of Special Investigations.
b. Wing Information Protection Office.
c. Cryptologic Support Group.
d. Security Forces.

Back 61

c. Cryptologic Support Group.

Front 62

62. (030) Which is not a responsibility of all communications security (COMSEC) users?

a. Attack an enemy’s cryptographic information collection system.
b. Safeguard and control material locally, until it is destroyed or turned in.
c. Be familiar with the procedures for operating cryptographic equipment.
d. Return material to the appropriate communications security responsible officer (CRO) on
request.

Back 62

a. Attack an enemy’s cryptographic information collection system.

Front 63

63. (030) If you discover a known or suspected compromise of communications security (COMSEC)
material, immediately report the incident to the

a. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) or the COMSEC manager.
b. AFOSI or the communications security responsible officer (CRO).
c. CRO or the COMSEC manager.
d. CRO or your unit commander.

Back 63

c. CRO or the COMSEC manager.

Front 64

64. (030) The two-person integrity system is used to handle, store, issue, transport, or destroy

a. Top Secret administrative material.
b. Secret administrative material.
c. Top Secret keying material.
d. Secret keying material.

Back 64

c. Top Secret keying material.

Front 65

65. (030) What is the first thing you look for before opening a communications security (COMSEC)
package?

a. Evidence of tampering or forced entry.
b. Proof the package was sent to the correct unit.
c. Ensure the Two-Person Integrity rule is enforced.
d. A Standard Form 153, COMSEC Material Report.

Back 65

a. Evidence of tampering or forced entry.

Front 66

66. (031) To employ the emanations security (EMSEC) program, there must be a partnership between
the

a. security forces and the Air Force Office of Special Investigation (AFOSI).
b. security forces and the wing Information Protection Office.
c. wing Information Protection Office and you as the user.
d. AFOSI and you as the user.

Back 66

c. wing Information Protection Office and you as the user.

Front 67

67. (032) What protection level (PL) is given to any United States Air Force resource whose loss,
theft, destruction, or compromise would do great harm to the strategic capability of the United
States?

a. PL1.
b. PL2.
c. PL3.
d. PL4.

Back 67

a. PL1.

Front 68

68. (032) Which resources frequently receive security at Protection Level 3 (PL3)?

a. Nuclear weapons.
b. Expensive, few in number or one-of-a kind systems.
c. Areas where large volumes of classified material are processed.
d. Intelligence gathering systems not critical to the United States’ operational capability.

Back 68

d. Intelligence gathering systems not critical to the United States’ operational capability.

Front 69

69. (032) The AF Form 2586, Unescorted Entry Authorization Certificate, when approved, provides
authority for accessing

a. restricted areas.
b. protected resources.
c. security forces facilities.
d. major command facilities.

Back 69

a. restricted areas.

Front 70

70. (033) Which statement about the force protection condition (FPCON) alert system is not true?

a. Only higher headquarters can start the alerting process.
b. Specific measures vary according to the security requirements of the facility.
c. After notification, all personnel are required to employ specific security measures.
d. At the work center level, personnel might have to accomplish an FPCON checklist.

Back 70

a. Only higher headquarters can start the alerting process.

Front 71

71. (033) What is an unclassified message that is sent by security forces to the base command post,
regarding an unusual incident affecting priority resources called?

a. Helping Hand.
b. Covered Wagon.
c. Protection Level 1 alert.
d. Protection Level 2 alert.

Back 71

a. Helping Hand.

Front 72

72. (034) What is the security classification for information that could reasonably be expected to
cause serious damage to national security if there is unauthorized disclosure?

a. For official use only.
b. Confidential.
c. Top Secret.
d. Secret.

Back 72

d. Secret.

Front 73

73. (034) What is the security classification for information that could reasonably be expected to
cause identifiable damage to national security if there is unauthorized disclosure?

a. For official use only.
b. Confidential.
c. Top Secret.
d. Secret.

Back 73

b. Confidential.

Front 74

74. (034) What type of statement is used when someone is asked to give personal information that is
put into a system of records?

a. Confidential.
b. Privacy Act.
c. Top Secret.
d. Secret.

Back 74

b. Privacy Act.

Front 75

75. (034) What type of information requires protection under the Privacy Act of 1974?

a. Sensitive but unclassified.
b. For official use only.
c. Confidential.
d. Secret.

Back 75

a. Sensitive but unclassified.

Front 76

76. (035) Any classified material not under the personal control or observation of an authorized
individual must be

a. guarded or stored in an approved locked security container, vault, or room.
b. stored in an approved locked security container or vault only.
c. covered with any cover sheet regardless of classification.
d. guarded in an approved locked room only.

Back 76

a. guarded or stored in an approved locked security container, vault, or room.

Front 77

77. (035) What is a possible supplementary control if Top Secret material is stored in a Government
Services Administration-approved container?

a. Authorized personnel inspect the container weekly.
b. An alarm of any kind can be installed on the container.
c. Guards or duty personnel continuously protect the area.
d. Place a single layer of security controls to deter unauthorized entry.

Back 77

c. Guards or duty personnel continuously protect the area.