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324 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Two hormones that act in negative feedback to pituitary in female
|
- Estrogen
- Progesterone |
|
5 alterations that NSAIDs are useful in treating
|
- Inflammation
- Endotoxemia - Pain - Fever - Hypercoagulability |
|
What stimulates the release of FSH and LH?
|
GnRH
|
|
MoA of Cyclophosphamide
|
Cytotoxic alkylating agent
|
|
What does FSH and LH act on?
|
Ovaries
|
|
How do NSAIDs reduce fever?
|
Reduce production of PGE2, which acts on hypothalamus to induce fever
|
|
What does FSH and LH cause the release of?
|
- Estrogen
- Progesterone |
|
3 general classes of growth promoters
|
- Feed additives
- Injectable hormones - Anabolic implants |
|
Indication of GnRH and Gonadotropins (2)
|
- Ovulation induction
- Infertility therapy |
|
How do NSAIDs reduce coagulability?
|
Reduces production of thromboxane
|
|
4 gonadotropins
|
- GnRH
- FSH - hCG - eCG |
|
MoA of Dapsone
|
It's a mystery
|
|
What is FSH used for?
|
Follicle development for embryo transfer
|
|
3 toxicities common to NSAIDs
|
- GI
- Renal - Hematopoietic |
|
What group of reproductive hormones is used for labor induction?
|
Oxytocics
|
|
Three functions of glucocorticoids
|
- Metabolism of COH, CNH, Fats
- Maintenance of microcirculation - Development of fetal pulmonary surfactant |
|
What are progestins used for?
|
Synchronization of estrus
|
|
NSAID CI in cats
|
Aceteminophen
|
|
What is used to synchronize estrus in mares? (2)
|
- Altrenogest
- Progesterone (CIDR) |
|
MoA of Glucocorticoids in Immunosuppressant capacity (3)
|
- Affect neutrophil trafficking
- Decrease MP function - Decrease lymphocyte activity |
|
What is used to synchronize estrus in pigs?
|
Altrenogest
|
|
2 NSAIDs that are CI in dogs
|
- Ibuprofen
- Phenylbutazone |
|
What is used to synchronize estrus in cattle? (2)
|
- Melengestrol acetate (MGA)
- Progesterone (CIDR) |
|
3 classes of feed additives
|
- Beta agonists
- Ionophore antimicrobials - Non-ionophore antimicrobials |
|
What is used to synchronize estrus in goats and sheep?
|
Progesterone (CIDR)
|
|
COX affects of Aspirin
|
COX - 1: ++++
COX - 2: - |
|
Two androgens
|
- Nandrolone
- Stanzalol |
|
MoA of methotrexate
|
Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
|
|
What are androgens used for?
|
Tx catabolic disease states in horses and dogs
|
|
COX affects of Phenylbutazone
|
COX - 1: ++++
COX - 2: - |
|
Two species that PGF2a can induce parturition in
|
- Goat
- Pig |
|
MoA of Beta Agonists in regards to growth implants
|
- Up regulation of transcription factors associated with muscle fiber size
- Decreased rate of protein degradation in muscle fibers |
|
Adverse Effect of PG600
|
AB formation
|
|
COX effects of Flunixin
|
COX - 1: +++
COX - 2: + |
|
Adverse Effect of Metoclopramide (2)
|
- Antagonism of dopamine
- Tardive dyskinesia in humans |
|
MoA of Azathioprine
|
Purine antagonist
- Anti-metabolite |
|
Adverse Effect of Domperidone
|
- Premature lactation
|
|
COX affects of Ketoprofen
|
COX - 1: +++
COX - 2: + |
|
Adverse Effect of Dinoprost (2)
|
- Abortion
- SM contraction |
|
AE of beta agonists
|
Non-target species that consume the feed
- Especially a problem in horses |
|
Adverse Effect of Cloprostenol (2)
|
- Abortion
- SM contraction |
|
COX affects of Diclofenac
|
COX - 1: ++
COX - 2: ++ |
|
Adverse Effect of Estradiol (2)
|
- Bone marrow suppression
- Pyometra (dogs) |
|
MoA of mycophenolate
|
Purine antagonist
- Anti-metabolite |
|
Adverse Effect of Altrenogest
|
At high doses: teratogen
|
|
COX effects of Carprofen
|
COX - 1: +
COX - 2: +++ |
|
Adverse Effect of testosterone
|
Negative feedback
|
|
6 receptors that activation of leads to nausea/vomiting
|
- D2 (dopamine)
- 5-HT3 (serotonin) - M1 - H1 (histamine - Opioid - NK1 |
|
Adverse Effect of Stanzolol (4)
|
- Hepatotoxicity (cats)
- Weight gain - Na+ retention - Androgenic effects |
|
COX effects of Meloxicam
|
COX - 1: +
COX - 2: +++ |
|
Adverse Effect of finasteride
|
Impotence
|
|
MoA of Cyclosporine
|
Calcineurin inhibitor
|
|
What danger do animal reproductive drugs present to humans?
|
Abuse or inadvertent exposure
|
|
What's the only NSAID approved for cats?
|
Meloxicam
|
|
2 examples of beta agonist food additives
|
- Ractopamine
- Zilpaterol |
|
MoA of Tacrolimus
|
Calcineurin inhibitor
|
|
4 physiologic alterations that fluid therapy tries to correct
|
- Water imbalances
- Electrolyte imbalances - Acid-base imbalances - Hypoproteinemia |
|
Toxicity of Tacrolimus (2)
|
- Gingival HS
- GI effects |
|
MoA of Ionophore antimicrobials
|
Antimicrobials that change the microbial environment in the rumen
- Increase production of propionate - Decrease production of butyrate and acetate |
|
Toxicity of Cyclosporine (2)
|
- Gingival HS
- GI effects |
|
2 things mineralcorticoids are involved with
|
- Fluid homeostasis
- Increasing aldosterone |
|
Toxicity of Cyclophosphamide (4)
|
- Teratogen
- Cytotoxicity - Myelosuppression - GI effects |
|
Ultimate effect of Ionophore antimicrobials
|
Energy gain is more efficient
|
|
Toxicity of Dapsone
|
Myelosuppression
|
|
4 anti-emetics
|
- Metoclopramide
- Cisapride - Bethanechol - Lidocaine |
|
Toxicity of Glucocorticoids (4)
|
- Induction of parturition
- Abortion - Hyperadrenocorticism - Congenital anomalies |
|
MoA of Non-ionophore antimicrobials
|
Unclear mechanism
- Thought to reduce overall bacterial load and reduce energy costs of subclinical bacterial disease |
|
Toxicity of Methotrexate (3)
|
- Renal tubular necrosis
- Hematopoietic toxicity - GI effects |
|
Two hormones that give negative feedback on hypothalamus
|
- T3
- TSH |
|
Toxicity of Azothioprine (2)
|
- Myelosuppression
- GI effects |
|
4 specific MoAs of glucocorticoids
|
- Bind receptor in cytosol, then migrate to nucleus
- Block NF-k-B - Induce annexin 1 to inhibit ARA release - Non-genomic activation of anti-inflammatory proteins |
|
3 things increased aldosterone does
|
- Na+ retention
- K+ excretion - CNH excretion |
|
MoA of Cimetidine
|
Blockade of H2 receptors
|
|
What anabolic implant is used in heifers? (3)
|
- Testosterone/estradiol
- Trenbolone - Estradiol/trenbolone |
|
5 short acting glucocorticoids
|
Hydrocortisone
Cortisone Prednisone Prednisolone Methylprednisolone |
|
Toxicity of Mycophenolate
|
- Myelosuppression
- GI effects |
|
3 not accepted uses of glucocorticoids
|
- Laminitis
- Snake bite - Lack of appetite |
|
4 TGs of fluid therapy
|
- Improve tissue perfusion by replacing intravascular volume
- Meet maintenance needs - Replace on-going losses - Correct dehydration by replacing ISF volume |
|
What's the only currently approved injectable hormone?
|
rBST
|
|
MoA of Metoclopramide
|
- Dopamine antagonist
- Serotonin agonist (5 HT4) - Serotonin antagonist (5 HT3) |
|
3 long acting glucocorticoids
|
Flumethasone
Dexamethasone Betamethasone |
|
Glucocorticoid stimulation factor in comparison to hydrocortisone of cortisone
|
0.8
|
|
What does purine antagonism affect immunologically?
|
Decreases lymphocyte production
|
|
What anabolic implant is used in all sexes?
|
Zeranol
|
|
5 accepted uses of glucocorticoids
|
- Endocrine replacement
- Anti-inflammatory - Anti-allergenic - Therapy of shock - Immunosuppressive |
|
What part of the cell cycle does azathioprine inhibit?
|
- S
- G1 |
|
What anabolic implant is used in steers? (3)
|
- Progesterone/estradiol
- Trenbolone - Estradiol/trenbolone |
|
Glucocorticoid stimulation factor in comparison to hydrocortisone of prednisone
|
4
|
|
What induces glycogen synthase?
|
Glucocorticoids
|
|
What part of the cell cycle does cyclophosphamide inhibit?
|
- G2
- M - G1 - G0 - S |
|
What part of the cell cycle does Mycophenolate inhibit?
|
- S
- G1 |
|
MoA of Cisapride (3)
|
- Serotonin agonist (5 HT4)
- Serotonin antagonist (5 HT3) - Enhance release of ACH at myenteric plexus |
|
4 emetics
|
- Apomorphine
- Xylazine - H2O2 - Salt |
|
Glucocorticoid stimulation factor in comparison to hydrocortisone of prednisolone
|
4
|
|
What does Calcineuron inhibition affect?
|
No calcineurin --> no NFAT --> No cytokines --> inhibits T-cell signalling function
|
|
1 intermediate acting glucocorticoids
|
Triamcinolone
|
|
Most important post-treatment AE to consider with glucocorticoids
|
Shut down of endogenous glucocorticoid production
|
|
MoA of Ranitidine
|
Blockade of H2 receptors
|
|
4 acid-suppressant drugs
|
- Cimietidine
- Ranitidine - Famotidine - Omeprazole |
|
4 maintenance fluids
|
- 2.5% dextrose/water
- Equal parts 5% dextrose and lactated Ringer's - Normosol-M - Plasma-Lyte M |
|
What anabolic implant is used in calves?
|
Progesterone/estradiol
|
|
Glucocorticoid stimulation factor in comparison to hydrocortisone of methylprednisolone
|
5
|
|
What does inhibition of folic acid reductase affect?
|
Affects production of purines and pyrimidines
Also prevents reduction of Dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate |
|
MoA of Omeprazole
|
Proton pump inhibitor
|
|
Formula for calculating total fluid deficit in an animal
|
Replacement volume (L) = BW * % dehydration (in decimals)
|
|
MoA of Bethanechol
|
Muscarinic agonist
|
|
MoA of Misoprostol
|
PG analog
|
|
Mechanism of rBST
|
Prolongs lactation production curve
|
|
Glucocorticoid stimulation factor in comparison to hydrocortisone of triamcinolone
|
5
|
|
Mineralcorticoid potency of prednisolone
|
+
|
|
5 fluids with no Ca++
|
- Saline
- Normosol-R - Normosol-M - Plasma-Lyte A - 2.5% dextrose/water And all 'other solutions' |
|
MoA of Salt
|
Induces over-eating due to hyper palatability
|
|
2 mechanisms of action of glucocorticoids
|
- Genomic
- Non-genomic |
|
6 aspects of general anesthesia
|
- Reversible CNS depression
- Unconsciousness (absence of awareness) - Amnesia - Analgesia - Muscle relaxation - Immobility (Diminished motor response to noxious stimulation) |
|
How does HR affect induction rate?
|
Inversely, because as HR increases, induction rate will decrease as blood has less alveolar contact time
|
|
Four anti-proliferative immunosuppressive drugs
|
- Cyclophosphamide
- Methotrexate - Azathiprine - Mycophenolate |
|
Glucocorticoid stimulation factor in comparison to hydrocortisone of flumethasone
|
15
|
|
Three alkalinizing replacement fluids
|
- Lactated Ringer's
- Normasol - Plasma-Lyte A |
|
HPAA suppression of short acting glucocorticoids
|
+
|
|
Mineralcorticoid potency of methylprednisolone
|
+
|
|
3 appetite stimulants
|
- Benzodiazepines
- Cyproheptadine - Mirtazapine |
|
MoA of Lidocaine
|
Suppresses inhibition of smooth muscle motility in intestine
|
|
MoA of Misoprostol
|
PG analog
|
|
MoA of estrogenic compounds
|
Act directly by increasing production and release of somatotropin and IGF-1
- Increases protein accretion |
|
Glucocorticoid stimulation factor in comparison to hydrocortisone of dexamethasone
|
30
|
|
What pH are maintenance fluids?
|
Acidic
|
|
Which fluid has no K+?
|
Saline (0.9%)
|
|
MoA of Benzodiazepines
|
Potentiates GABA
|
|
Glucocorticoid stimulation factor in comparison to hydrocortisone of betamethasone
|
30
|
|
3 drugs that decrease GIT motility
|
- Metoclopramide
- Cisapride - Bethanechol |
|
What do glucocorticoids antagonize?
|
ADH
|
|
MoA of Famotidine
|
Blockade of H2 receptors
|
|
What occurs in Stage I of anesthesia?
|
Stage of voluntary movement
|
|
HPAA suppression of intermediate acting glucocorticoids
|
++
|
|
4 structural groups that are important for glucocorticoid function
|
- Keto group
- 4,5 double bond - 11 OH group - a-hydroxal group |
|
3 non-genomic actions of glucocorticoids
|
- Those associated with cGCR
- Those associated with mGCR - Non-specific effects caused by interactions with cellular membranes |
|
What drug increases milk production?
|
rBST
|
|
2 chemical alterations that reduce mineralocorticoid activity
|
- Methylation
- Fluorination |
|
1 group that's essential for mineralocorticoid activity
|
21 OH group
|
|
Location of Action of Bethanechol
|
Muscarinic receptors
|
|
What does the zona fasciculata release?
|
Cortisol
- Glucocorticoids |
|
4 CIs of Glucocorticoids
|
- Infections
- Corneal ulcers - GI ulcers - Hyperadrenocorticism |
|
|
|
|
What fluid type can be used for resuscitation?
|
Hypertonic saline
- Draws a lot of fluid into IV space |
|
Location of Action of Omezaprole
|
H+-K+ ATPase in gastric glands
|
|
3 drugs that can cause extravasation
|
- Doxorubicin
- Vincristine - Vinblastine |
|
Location of Action of Benzodiazepines
|
Satiety center in hypothalamus (inhibition of)
|
|
MoA of androgenic compounds (2)
|
- Directly stimulates protein synthesis
- Reduces protein breakdown |
|
3 things one needs to consider for 24 hour therapy
|
- Current deficit (formula)
- Daily maintenance needs - On-going losses |
|
Define anesthesia
|
Insensible or without feeling
|
|
Location of Action of Mirtazapine
|
Serotonin receptor antagonist
- Central a2 receptors |
|
MoA of Cyproheptadine
|
- Serotonin antagonist
- Anti-histamine |
|
Relationship of MAC to potency
|
Inversely related
|
|
HPAA suppression of long acting glucocorticoids
|
+++
|
|
Location of Action of Apomorphine
|
CRTZ
|
|
4 fluids that contain Magnesium
|
- Normosol R
- Normosol M - Plasmalyte A - Plasmalyte M |
|
Daily fluid maintenance needs for most species
|
40 - 60 ml/kg
|
|
What type of growth promoter provides the best RoI?
|
Growth Promotant implants
|
|
AE of Cyclophosphamide
|
Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis
|
|
3 genomic actions of glucocorticoids
|
- Inhibit pro-inflammatory transcription factors
- Suppressing transcription of inflammatory genes - Induce transcription of immunosuppressive genes |
|
Location of Action of Misoprostol
|
EP-3 receptor on parietal cell
|
|
What occurs in Stage II of anesthesia? (2)
|
- Stage of delirium or involuntary movement
- Loss of voluntary control Excitement stage |
|
Inhalant anesthetics affect on kidney
|
Alters blood flow
|
|
Mineralcorticoid potency of intermediate acting glucocorticoids
|
0
|
|
What do thyroid hormones regulate?
|
Metabolic homeostasis
|
|
MoA of Ketoconazole
|
Blocks steroid synthesis
- Inhibits conversion of lanosterol to cholesterol by inhibiting CYP 450 enzymes |
|
MoA of Mirtazapine
|
Serotonin antagonist
- Increases NE uptake |
|
2 receptors targeted in treatment of diarrhea
|
- Mu agonist
- Muscarinic antagonist |
|
What acts on the adrenal cortex to release cortisol?
|
ACTH
|
|
Drug used to increase GIT motility
|
Lidocaine
|
|
Daily fluid maintenance needs for calves
|
80 - 100 ml/kg
|
|
Why does Isoflurane induce anesthesia slower than Sevoflurane?
|
Isoflurane is more potent, but has a higher Blood/Gas Partition Coefficient than Sevoflurane
|
|
5 signs of hyperthyroidism
|
- Weight loss
- Polyphagia - Hyperactivity - Tachycardia - Vomiting |
|
Mineralcorticoid potency of long acting glucocorticoids
|
0
|
|
5 laxatives and cathartics
|
- Wheat bran
- Mineral oil - Stimulant laxative - MgSO4 - Docusate |
|
Respiratory rate's effect on induction with inhalant anesthetics
|
Faster they breathe, the faster they're induced
|
|
What does the zona reticulata release?
|
Androgens
|
|
What are the two acidifying replacement fluids?
|
- Ringer's
- Saline (0.9%) |
|
MoA of L-deprenyl
|
- Decreases dopamine metabolism
- Increases dopamine reuptake and synthesis Both cause inhibition of anterior pituitary --> decrease in ACTH --> decrease in cortisol |
|
Mineralcorticoid potency of Hydrocortisone
|
++
|
|
MoA of wheat bran
|
Eaten and bulks stool
|
|
MoA of Apomorphine
|
Stimulates dopamine receptors
|
|
8 parameters to monitor during fluid therapy
|
- Lung sounds
- PCV - TP - Electrolytes - Arterial pH - Arterial pCO2 - Urine output - Hemodynamics |
|
Define cancer
|
Unregulated cell cycle
|
|
What do all replacement fluids lack?
|
Glucose
|
|
MoA of MgSO4
|
Draws water into lumen of GIT
|
|
How does hypoadrenocorticism cause hyponatremia and hypokalemia?
|
- Decrease in aldosterone release from zona glomerulosa
|
|
6 reasons for therapeutic failure with antineoplastics
|
- Resistance
- Incorrect dosage - Wrong drug - Slow growing tumor - Inability to reach all cancer cells - Patient toxicity |
|
What drug is used to prevent ulcers from chronic NSAID usage?
|
Misoprostol
|
|
What drug is a stool softener?
|
Docusate
|
|
What is L-deprenyl AKA?
|
Selegiline
|
|
Which fluids have low Cl-?
|
Alkalinizing BES
|
|
What's a potential downside of a low Blood/Gas Partition Coefficient?
|
Cleared quicker, so animal may wake up too soon
|
|
MoA of Xylazine
|
a2 agonist
- Stimulates CRTZ |
|
6 signs of hyperadrenocorticism
|
- PU/PD
- Polyphagia - Lethargy - Thin skin - Alopecia - Muscle wasting |
|
NT that stimulates appetite
|
GABA
|
|
AE of extravasation (2)
|
- Tissue necrosis
- Sloughing of skin |
|
5 drugs used to treat hyperadrenocorticism
|
- Mitotane
- Trilostane - Ketoconazole - L-deprenyl (selegiline) - Pergolide |
|
Extravasation (define)
|
Leakage of a drug outside of vasculature
|
|
Mineralcorticoid potency of Cortisone
|
++
|
|
NT that inhibits appetite
|
Serotonin
|
|
Location of Action of Metoclopramide
|
CRTZ
|
|
6 signs of hypothyroidism
|
- Lethargy
- Weight gain - Cold intolerance - Alopecia - Bradycardia - Hypercholesterolemia |
|
What is selegiline AKA?
|
L-deprenyl
|
|
4 hormones that give negative feedback on the pituitary gland in the case of the thyroid
|
- Dopamine
- Glucocorticoids - T3 - T4 |
|
4 appetite stimulants
|
- Diazepam
- Oxazepam - Cyroheptadine - Mirtazipine |
|
What part of the cell cycle is inhibited by methotrexate?
|
S-phase
|
|
MoA of Radioactive Iodine (I-131)
|
Destroys the thyroid gland
|
|
2 inhalation anesthetics used today
|
- Isoflurane
- Sevoflurane |
|
3 classes of alkylating agents
|
- Nitrogen mustards
- Nitrosureas - Platinum coordination complexes |
|
MoA of H2O2
|
Reflexive vomiting
|
|
MoA of nitrosureas
|
Form DNA-DNA and DNA-protein links
|
|
MoA of Diazepam
|
Potentiates GABA
|
|
Location of Action of Cisapride
|
Myenteric neurons
|
|
MoA of Mitotane
|
Destroys zona fasciculata and reticulata
|
|
What does a high Blood/Gas Partition Coefficient mean?
|
The compound likes to stay in the blood, so doesn't move into CNS as quick and as a result, induction is slower
|
|
Which inhalant anesthetic produces 'Compound A', and where?
|
Sevoflurane
- In the kidneys |
|
What fluid set has low Na+?
|
Maintenance
|
|
MoA of Oxazepam
|
Potentiates GABA
|
|
What do maintenance fluids have more of than replacement fluids?
|
- K+
- Glc |
|
5 things that use of chemo agents is based on
|
- Tumor type
- Stage of malignancy - Patient condition - Tumor responsiveness to chemotherapy - Constraints of owner |
|
MoA of Aldosterone
|
Affects Aldosterone Induced Protein
|
|
MoA of Pergolide
|
Agonist of dopamine
|
|
Mineralcorticoid potency of prednisone
|
+
|
|
MoA of Inhalant anesthetics
|
Unknown
|
|
AE of nitrosureas
|
Severe bone marrow suppression
|
|
What is the significance of Compound A, and where does it come from?
|
Nephrotoxic
- Produced by Sevoflurane |
|
Specificity of nitrosureas
|
Cell cycle non-specific
|
|
4 AE of occupational exposure to inhalant anesthetics
|
- Dizziness
- Headache - Vomiting - Spontaneous abortion |
|
Two nitrosureas
|
- Lomustine
- Carmustine |
|
MoA of Cyproheptadine (2)
|
- Serotonin antagonist
- Antihistamine |
|
Which stage of anesthesia is surgery done in?
|
III
|
|
What does the zona glomerulosa release?
|
Aldosterone
- Mineralocorticoids |
|
MoA of platinum compounds
|
Alkylates DNA
|
|
What are the two primary electrolytes affected by Hypoadrenocorticism?
|
- K+
- Na+ |
|
Which endocrine drug inhibits CYP450?
|
Ketoconazole
|
|
Which stage of Anesthesia is the excitement stage?
|
II
|
|
MoA of Mirtazipine
|
Serotonin antagonist
|
|
What occurs in Stage III of anesthesia?
|
Surgical anesthesia
- Unconsciousness |
|
2 drugs that inhibit CYP450
|
- Cimitidiline
- Ketoconazole |
|
MoA of methotrexate
|
Inhibits folic acid reductase
- This inhibits DNA synthesis |
|
MoA of Trilostane
|
Inhibits steroid synthesis
- Blocks converstion of pregnenolone to progesterone |
|
MoA of Trilostane
|
Blocks synthesis of adrenal steroids
- Inhibits 3-B-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase Pregnenolone --//--> progesterone |
|
Babiturate effects on Musculature
|
Muscle relaxation
|
|
Specificity of platinum compounds
|
Cell cycle non-specific
|
|
4 drugs that influence Glc metabolism
|
- Insulin
- Sulfonylureas - Metformin - Acarbose |
|
All Dissociative Anesthetics are scheduled drugs
|
All Dissociative Anesthetics are scheduled drugs
|
|
8 causes of resistance in antineoplastics
|
- Selecting for resistance
- Altered ADME - Tumor blood flow - Low [drug] - Drug inactivation - Change in target receptor - Repair of drug-induced damage - Increased drug efflux |
|
What's the benefit of injectable anesthetics?
|
Proceed quickly through stage II
|
|
MoA of nitrogen mustards
|
Alkylates DNA
|
|
Which vinca alkaloid agent causes extravasation?
|
- Vincristine
- Vinblastine |
|
MoA of Insulin
|
Facilitates uptake and metabolism of Glc
- Promotes Glycogen, fat, and CNH synthesis |
|
3 primary toxicities of antineoplastics
|
- Bone marrow suppression
- GI disturbances - Alopecia (owner doesn't like) |
|
Inhalant anesthetics affect on CNS (2)
|
- CNS depression
- Increase CBF (increases intracranial pressure) |
|
What drug is tiletamine combined with?
|
Zolazepam
|
|
Two platinum compounds
|
Cisplatin
Carboplatin |
|
MoA of sulfonylureas
|
Inhibits ATP dependent K+ channels in PM in B islet cells
|
|
Which vinca alkaloid agent suppresses bone marrow?
|
- Vinblastine ***
- Vincristine |
|
4 actions of barbiturates
|
- Sedation
- Hypnosis (sleep) - Anesthesia - Death |
|
3 drugs that interfere with thyroid hormones
|
- Prednisone
- Phenobarbital - Carprofen |
|
What was the first dissociative anesthetic used in veterinary medicine?
|
Phencyclidine (PCP)
|
|
MoA of Metformin (2)
|
- Reduces heptatic Glc Output
- Increases peripheral insulin sensitivity |
|
MoA of Methimazole (3)
|
- Inhibits thyroid peroxidase (used in production of T3/T4)
- Blocks incorporation of iodine into thyroglobulin - Px coupling of iodotyrosol groups |
|
What drug causes peripheral neuropathy?
|
Vincristine
|
|
Which platinum compound is nephrotoxic?
|
Cisplatin
|
|
MoA of Acarbose
|
Alpha glucosidase inhibitor
- Px COH metabolism |
|
MoA of antineoplastic antibiotics
|
Blocks topoisomerase function
|
|
MoA of Barbiturates
|
Binds to GABA
- Depresses RAS |
|
Toxicity of Nitrogen mustards
|
Severe bone marrow suppression
|
|
Specificity of Antineoplastic antibiotics
|
Cell-cycle non-specific
|
|
What does inhibition of ATP dependent K+ channels in PM of B islet cells do?
|
Results in depolarization and release of insulin
|
|
Which barbiturate is longest acting?
|
Phenobarbital
|
|
2 pyrimidine analogs
|
- Cytarabine
- 5-Fluorouracil |
|
4 objectives of antineoplastics
|
- Increase patient survival time
- Improve quality of life - Reduce tumor size - Reduce/prevent metastasis |
|
Example of an antineoplastic antibiotic
|
Doxorubicin
|
|
Which platinum compound suppresses bone marrow?
|
Carboplatin
|
|
AE of Cytarabine
|
Bone marrow suppression
|
|
Barbiturate effects on Liver
|
Increase CYP450
|
|
2 classes of anti-metabolites
|
- Folic acid analogs
- Pyrimidine analogs |
|
AE of doxorubicin (2)
|
- Cardiotoxic (Dose related)
- Extravasation |
|
3 barbiturates
|
- Thiopental
- Pentobarbital - Phenobarbital |
|
What terminates anesthesia of barbiturates?
|
Physical redistribution from CNS into other tissues
|
|
Inhalant anesthetics affect on CV
|
CV depression
|
|
Which barbiturate is shortest acting?
|
Thiopental
|
|
What enzyme is an anti-neoplastic?
|
L-asparaginase
|
|
What does Alpha-glucosidase inhibition do?
|
- Inhibits monosaccharidases and disaccharidases
- Inhibits alpha amylase (which digests starch) |
|
MoA of Propylthiouracil (2)
|
- Inhibits thyroid peroxidase (used in production of T3/T4)
- Inhibits 5-deiodinase |
|
MoA of cytarabine
|
Inhibits DNA synthesis
|
|
MoA of 5-fluorouracil
|
Inhibits thymidylate synthase
- Alters DNA and RNA synthesis |
|
Specificity of L-asparaginase
|
G1 phase
|
|
Which platinum compound should NOT be used in cats?
|
Cisplatin
|
|
Specificity of Folic acid analogs
|
S-phase specific
|
|
Analgesic properties of Babiturates
|
Not analgesic
|
|
Barbiturates are controlled substances
|
Barbiturates are controlled substances
|
|
MoA of L-asparaginase
|
Deaminates asparagine
|
|
Liver metabolism order of barbiturates
|
All metabolized at same rate
|
|
2 Nitrogen mustards
|
- Cyclophosphamide
- Chlorambucil |
|
AE of L-asparaginase
|
Anaphylaxis
|
|
Drug that's a folic acid analog
|
Methotrexate
|
|
AE of 5-fluorouracil
|
Bone marrow suppression
|
|
3 miscellaneous anti-neoplastics
|
- Toceranib
- Piroxicam - Prednisone |
|
Dissociative Anesthetics effects on CNS
|
Increase cerebral blood flow (increases intracranial pressure)
|
|
What's important to remember about barbiturate injection?
|
Causes sloughing of skin if not injected correctly
|
|
MoA of Toceranib
|
Multi-kinase inhibitor
- Competitively binds to kinase site to prevent tumor cells from proliferating |
|
Inhalant anesthetics affect on Respiration
|
Respiratory depression
|
|
3 natural antineoplastic classes
|
- Vinca alkaloids
- Antibiotics - Enzymes |
|
Which pyrimidine analog drug crosses into the CNS?
|
5-fluorouracil
- CI in cats |
|
MoA of piroxicam
|
COX inhibitor
|
|
Which part of cell cycle does Methotrexate inhibit?
|
S-phase
|
|
Dissociative Anesthetics effects on Musculature
|
No relaxation
|
|
Dissociative Anesthetics effects on CV
|
Maintain HR
|
|
G0 - Mitotic arrest
G1 - RNA and CNH synthesis S – DNA synthesis G2 – pre-mitotic interval M – mitosis |
G0 - Mitotic arrest
G1 - RNA and CNH synthesis S – DNA synthesis G2 – pre-mitotic interval M – mitosis |
|
Babiturate effects on CNS (2)
|
- CNS depression
- Anti-convulsants |
|
2 vinca alkaloids
|
- Vincristine
- Vinblastine |
|
What occurs in Stage IV of anesthesia?
|
CNS extremely depressed
- Respiration ceases (euthanasia) |
|
Which anesthetic type increases intraocular pressure?
|
Dissociative
|
|
Specificity of pyrimidine analogs
|
S-phase specific
|
|
MoA of vinca alkaloids
|
Inhibits functions of microtubules
|
|
AE of methotrexate
|
Bone marrow suppression
|
|
Analgesic effects of Dissociative Anesthetics
|
Produces analgesia
|
|
Dissociative Anesthetics effects on Respiration
|
Apneustic
|
|
Specificity of vinca alkaloids
|
M-phase specific
|
|
Babiturate effects on Respiration
|
Respiratory depression
|
|
Which thyroid drug causes IMHA?
|
Propylthiouracil
|