Cdc 2A354N Volume 1

Front 1

What are some responsibilities with which a maintenance technician is charged?

Back 1

To comply with all written guidance to ensure all required repairs, inspections, and documentation arecompleted in a safe, timely and effective manner. After fixing a malfunction, to follow through and verifythe entire system is serviceable by completing all checks and follow-on maintenance.

Front 2

What type of issue is maintenance accountability?

Back 2

An integrity issue.

Front 3

Who can be held accountable for an aircraft mishap if the investigation proves maintenancenegligence?

Back 3

The maintenance technician.

Front 4

What are the two major categories of maintenance?

Back 4

On-equipment and off-equipment.

Front 5

Any action performed on an aircraft belongs to which category of maintenance?

Back 5

On-equipment.

Front 6

Any action performed in a back shop as a result of aircraft maintenance belongs to what categoryof maintenance?

Back 6

Off-equipment.

Front 7

Name the three levels of maintenance.

Back 7

Organizational, intermediate, and depot.

Front 8

What level of maintenance consists of on-equipment tasks performed at an operating location?

Back 8

Organizational.

Front 9

What level of maintenance do you provide to your squadron?

Back 9

Organizational.

Front 10

What level of maintenance consists of off-equipment (back shop) tasks normally performed at theoperating location?

Back 10

Intermediate.

Front 11

What level of maintenance consists of on- and off-equipment tasks performed at either a majorrepair center, or in some cases, an operating location?

Back 11

Depot

Front 12

Which level of maintenance is modified or eliminated under the two-level maintenance approach?

Back 12

Intermediate.

Front 13

Within the Air Force Combat Wing Organization, who is the key individual controlling theresources to meet mission requirements?

Back 13

The wing commander

Front 14

Wing commanders now organize all wing maintenance functions under which group?

Back 14

MXG.

Front 15

Who is responsible for aerospace equipment maintenance required to ensure balance betweensortie production and fleet management?

Back 15

MXG/CC.

Front 16

Which squadron within the maintenance group is responsible for off-equipment (back shop)maintenance?

Back 16

MXS.

Front 17

Which squadron is directly responsible to the MXG/CC for the administration, analysis, trainingmanagement, and programs and resources necessary to support the group production effort?

Back 17

MOS.

Front 18

To which squadron is QA assigned? For whom does QA work?

Back 18

MOS. Directly for the MXG/CC.

Front 19

Which squadron services, inspects, maintains, launches and recovers assigned aircraft?

Back 19

AMXS.

Front 20

Who allocates personnel and resources to the production effort?

Back 20

The AMU OIC/NCOIC.

Front 21

Who is responsible for flight maintenance production?

Back 21

The pro-super.

Front 22

What are some of the jobs and responsibilities of the flight line expediter?

Back 22

Manages their portion of the flying schedule, coordinates scheduled and unscheduled maintenance,determines aircraft status, and coordinates with the pro-super and MOC

Front 23

When is maintenance debriefing conducted?

Back 23

At the termination of each sortie/mission or when a sortie/mission is aborted.

Front 24

What section is the focal point for all planned maintenance, TCTO, TCI, and inspections?

Back 24

The AMU PS&D.

Front 25

Which section is the primary work center responsible for maintaining the assigned aircraft?

Back 25

The Aircraft Section

Front 26

What does the Weapons Section provide?

Back 26

Weapons loading and weapons maintenance

Front 27

Which section controls the CTK and equipment storage and maintains TO files for the squadron?

Back 27

The Support Section

Front 28

To which section does an avionics technician normally belong?

Back 28

The Specialist Section.

Front 29

What are the three types of maintenance?

Back 29

Preventive, scheduled and unscheduled.

Front 30

Why is preventive maintenance performed?

Back 30

For the normal upkeep and preservation of equipment and to perform maintenance before a part fails,greatly increasing aircraft safety and equipment reliability.

Front 31

Which type of maintenance applies to maintenance requirements that can be programmed oneither a short- or long-range schedule?

Back 31

Scheduled maintenance.

Front 32

Which type of maintenance are you performing when you’re repairing a discrepancy discoveredin flight by the aircrew?

Back 32

Unscheduled maintenance.

Front 33

What is the best way to fix an aircraft problem?

Back 33

Before it becomes a problem by employing preventive maintenance.

Front 34

What do you call the deterioration of metal that’s caused when it reacts to its environment byattempting to return to its natural state?

Back 34

Corrosion.

Front 35

To prevent corrosion, what type of rivets, bolts, and nuts should you use?

Back 35

Those made up of the same type of material as the main structure.

Front 36

What is your responsibility if you find corrosion on an aircraft not within your expertise to repair?

Back 36

Write the condition up in the aircraft forms and notify the crew chief or a supervisor.

Front 37

Which TO series will have the inspection requirements for the F–15E aircraft?

Back 37

The –6 series TOs (e.g. TO 1F–15E–6).

Front 38

Are work cards assigned a TO number? Why?

Back 38

Yes. Collectively the work cards are a TO, and so must be assigned a TO number.

Front 39

What are the two primary aids to effective inspection scheduling?

Back 39

Inspection work cards and sequence charts.

Front 40

List the five basic types of inspections.

Back 40

Periodic, phased, calendar, isochronal, and programmed depot maintenance.

Front 41

Describe the periodic and phased basic inspection concepts.

Back 41

The periodic inspection is a complete and total look at the entire aircraft at one time, while the phasedconcept breaks up the inspection into smaller, equal packages that are performed at different times and lookat different areas.

Front 42

Why was the phased inspection concept developed?

Back 42

To minimize the length of time an aircraft is out of commission for a scheduled inspection.

Front 43

Name the six basic subelements of the periodic inspection.

Back 43

Preflight, end-of-runway, thruflight, basic postflight, hourly postflight, and periodic.

Front 44

What are the five basic subelements of the phase inspection?

Back 44

Preflight, end-of-runway, thruflight, basic postflight, and phase.

Front 45

When is a 90-day calendar inspection required?

Back 45

When the aircraft hasn’t flown or is out of commission for more than 90-calendar days.

Front 46

What inspection is based on a calendar day sequence rather than the flying or operating hoursequence?

Back 46

Isochronal inspection.

Front 47

What are the objectives of ASIP?

Back 47

To establish, evaluate, and substantiate the structural integrity (airframe strength, rigidity, damagetolerance, and durability, including economic life) of aircraft structures.

Front 48

What does ASIP provide?

Back 48

A basis for improving structural criteria and methods of design, evaluation, and substantiation for futureaircraft systems and modifications.

Front 49

Why do we assign Air Force personnel responsibility for property?

Back 49

By having someone responsible for the property, we can be sure that it’s safeguarded.

Front 50

Why is it important to understand responsibility for government property?

Back 50

If someone is negligent in their responsibilities, they may have to pay for all, or part of a piece ofequipment

Front 51

What is accountability and give an example?

Back 51

Is a person who, by law, lawful order, instructions, or contract maintains accurate records of property ordocuments in his or her charge. For example, a supply custodian is a person who is accountable.

Front 52

Explain the difference between accountability and responsibility?

Back 52

When you sign out a toolbox from your support section, you assume responsibility for that toolbox.However, the support section is still accountable for the tools and the box. You don’t become the owner ofthe item. The Air Force, through the support section, retains ownership while you assume responsibility forthe care and protection for the toolbox.

Front 53

What must be done if an item worth over $100 is lost or damaged?

Back 53

A Report of Survey must be completed; there are other criterion that may also require a Report of Surveyand they are listed in AFMAN 23–220, Reports of Survey for Air Force Property.

Front 54

Explain the Report of Survey process?

Back 54

The individual issued the property initiates a report of survey. After completion of the report of survey, aninvestigation is conducted. If the investigation determines there was willful misconduct, deliberate orunauthorized use, or gross negligence, a statement of charges is initiated.

Front 55

What is the purpose of RAMPOD?

Back 55

Collects, reports, and maintains real-time, inventory, performance, sortie, and engineering parametric datafor externally carried electronic combat pods and other avionics pods.

Front 56

What Air Force assets is inventoried and financially accounted for in RAMPOD?

Back 56

All Air Force externally carried pods, including leased pods.

Front 57

What form is used to order parts from supply?

Back 57

AF Form 2005.

Front 58

What is the purpose of the forward supply point?

Back 58

Is to be located within the maintenance unit so assets are immediately available to the using activity.

Front 59

Give some examples of stock found in the work center?

Back 59

(1) Bench stock items are nuts, bolts, washers, tubes, and resistors. (2) Shop stock items are gas cylinders, random length bar stock, sheet metal, plastic, fabric, and similaritems not included on bench stocks. 1–34 (3) Operating stock items are connector dust covers, hydraulic line caps or plugs, and other itemsnormally recovered after use.

Front 60

Explain the process of repair cycle?

Back 60

The repair cycle starts with the need for an LRU to correct an aircraft system malfunction. An order is madefor the replacement part (LRU). The part is issued from supply, thus creating a vacancy on the warehouseshelves. The defective part removed from the aircraft is then sent to a back shop facility for repair. Once therepair is accomplished, the now serviceable part is sent to supply to fill the open vacancy.

Front 61

What is a scarce item in the supply system referred to as?

Back 61

A Critical item

Front 62

What happens when there is a needed part and there is no replacement part in supply and whoauthorizes it?

Back 62

The item is cannibalized and pro super or maintenance officer authorizes this action.

Front 63

Describe a DD Form 1574/1574–1?

Back 63

The DD Forms 1574, Serviceable Tag—Materiel, and 1574–1, Serviceable Label—Materiel, are yellowand have the same format; the only difference between them is that the 1574 is a tag, and the 1574–1 is agummed label. The presence of either of these forms on a piece of new or used equipment shows that theitem is serviceable.

Front 64

What tag do we put with unserviceable but repairable parts and what color is it?

Back 64

The DD Form 1577–2; green.

Front 65

What is the red tag?

Back 65

DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.

Front 66

Why do we use the DD Form 1575, Suspended Tag (brown tag)?

Back 66

If you find that an item is bad because of a defect that you suspect is caused by the manufacturer, you’ll filea deficiency report (DR).

Front 67

What are the two types of DRs?

Back 67

Category I and category II.

Front 68

What type of DR, if uncorrected, would cause death, severe injury, or severe occupational illness?

Back 68

Category I.

Front 69

What type of DR deals with errors in workmanship?

Back 69

Category II.

Front 70

Would a TO discrepancy be a reason to submit a DR? Why or why not?

Back 70

No. Report TO deficiencies with AFTO Form 22, Technical Order System Publication ImprovementReport, and Reply.

Front 71

Who would be a good person to ask if you had questions concerning the completeness of a DR?

Back 71

The unit DR monitor

Front 72

What are the five responsibilities of the originator of a DR?

Back 72

(1) Discover, identify, and document noted conditions which may become DRs. (2) Ensure potential exhibits and supporting data are made available to the originating point. (3) Forward a draft DR to personnel in the originating point. (4) Identify the DR exhibit with DD Forms 2332 and 1575. (5) Secure, segregate, and suspend the DR exhibit.

Front 73

What’s the preferred method to prepare DRs?

Back 73

DREAMS.

Front 74

How much time does the originator have to forward a completed CAT I DR to personnel in theoriginating point?

Back 74

Within 24 hours of deficiency discovery.

Front 75

How much time does the originator have to forward a completed CAT II DR to personnel in theoriginating point?

Back 75

Within three workdays of deficiency discovery.

Front 76

Why are DR exhibits assigned to a designated storage area?

Back 76

To preclude their unauthorized return to the production, maintenance, or operation area.

Front 77

What tags are normally filled out for a DR exhibit?

Back 77

Normally, two DD Form 1575, Suspended Tag—Material, two DD Form 2332, Production QualityDeficiency Report Exhibit, and one AFTO Form 350, Repairable Item Processing Tag are filled out.

Front 78

Who has overall DR management responsibility and serves as the focal point for all submittingorganization tasks?

Back 78

The personnel in the originating point.

Front 79

. (001) Which statement is true concerning being a maintenance technician?a. You have a responsibility to comply with all written guidance to ensure all required repairs,inspections, and documentation are completed in a safe, timely and effective manner.b. You do not have a responsibility to comply with all written guidance to ensure all requiredrepairs, inspections, and documentation are completed in a safe, timely and effective manner.c. You have a responsibility to comply with some written guidance to ensure all required repairs,inspections, and documentation are completed in a safe, timely and effective manner.d. You do not have a responsibility to comply with some written guidance to ensure all requiredrepairs, inspections, and documentation are completed in a safe, timely and effective manner.

Back 79

A

Front 80

(001) Personnel who fail to maintain maintenance integrity will be helda. responsible.b. accountable.c. in contempt.d. in moral compass.

Back 80

B

Front 81

(002) What are the two major categories of maintenance?a. Intermediate and depot.b. Organizational and depot.c. Off-equipment and intermediate.d. On-equipment and off-equipment.

Back 81

D

Front 82

(002) What type of maintenance is performed as a flightline technician?a. On-equipment.b. Off-equipment.c. Organizational and depot.d. On-equipment and off-equipment.

Back 82

A

Front 83

(002) In the Air Force how many levels of maintenance do we have?a. 2.b. 3.c. 4.d. 5.

Back 83

B

Front 84

(003) Who is responsible for aerospace equipment maintenance required to ensure balance betweensortie production and fleet management?a. Wing commander.b. Group commander.c. Squadron commander.d. Production Supervisor.

Back 84

A

Front 85

(003) Which maintenance squadron flight repairs, maintains, modifies, locally manufactures, andinspects aircraft and equipment components?a. Maintenance.b. Sheet metal.c. Fabrication.d. Armament.

Back 85

C

Front 86

(003) Quality assurance works directly for thea. wing commander.b. maintenance group commander.c. operational group commander.d. squadron commander.

Back 86

B

Front 87

(004) Who is responsible for flight maintenance production?a. Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) officer in charge.b. Production superintendent (pro-super).c. Flight chief.d. Expediter.

Back 87

B

Front 88

(004) Which best describes some of the jobs and responsibilities of the flight line expediter?a. Manages their portion of the flying schedule, coordinates only scheduled maintenance,determines aircraft status, and coordinates with the pro-super and MOC.b. Manages their portion of the flying schedule, coordinates only unscheduled maintenance,determines aircraft status, and coordinates with the pro-super and MOC.c. Manages their portion of the flying schedule, coordinates scheduled and unscheduledmaintenance, determines aircraft status, and coordinates with the pro-super.d. Manages their portion of the flying schedule, coordinates scheduled and unscheduledmaintenance, determines aircraft status, and coordinates with the pro-super and MOC.

Back 88

D

Front 89

(004) Within an Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU), the Specialist Section includesa. flightline expediters, avionics technicians, and dedicated crew chiefs.b. weapons technicians, electro/environmental technicians, and dedicated crew chiefs.c. weapons, avionics, and electro/environmental technicians.d. avionics, propulsion, and electro/environmental technicians.

Back 89

D

Front 90

(005) What are the three types of maintenance?a. Preventive, scheduled and corrective.b. Preventive, scheduled and unscheduled.c. Corrective, scheduled and unscheduled.d. Preventive, Preflight and Postflight.

Back 90

B

Front 91

. (005) What type of maintenance is normal upkeep and preservation of equipment?a. Preventive.b. Scheduled.c. Corrective.d. Unscheduled.

Back 91

A

Front 92

Which type of corrosion causes the metal surface to become rough and sometimes frosted?a. Uniformed etch.b. Exfoliation.c. Galvanic.d. Pitting.

Back 92

A

Front 93

(006) When two dissimilar metals are coupled together in the presence of an electrolyte, the effectcana. dull the surface.b. strengthen the joint.c. cold-weld the metals.d. produce galvanic corrosion.

Back 93

D

Front 94

Which technical order (TO) series will have the inspection requirements for any F–15aircraft?a. –6.b. Work Cards.c. General Vehicle.d. General System.

Back 94

A

Front 95

What are the two primary aids to effective inspection scheduling?a. Sequence charts and phased inspections.b. Phased inspections and depot maintenance.c. Inspection work cards and sequence charts.d. Inspection work cards and phased inspections.

Back 95

C

Front 96

(007) Work cards are normally grouped by type ofa. specialist required and by work area.b. avionics specialist and by work area.c. aircraft required and by work area.d. job required and by work area.

Back 96

A

Front 97

How many basic types of inspections does the Air Force use?a. 3.b. 4.c. 5.d. 6

Back 97

C

Front 98

(008) How many basic types of inspections does our career field use?a. 3.b. 4.c. 5.d. 6.

Back 98

B

Front 99

. (008) If a significant fuel leak developed while a pilot was taxiing an aircraft for take-off, it islikelya. the leak would not be identified until the next scheduled phase inspection.b. the pilot would receive a fuel gauge warning after airborne and report it to maintenancepersonnel during the basic postflight inspection.c. the pilot would request clearance from the control tower to return his aircraft to the parkingramp and request the preflight inspection be reaccomplished to identify the problem.d. maintenance personnel would identify this situation during the end-of-runway inspection andmake a determination at that time on how to proceed based on technical guidance.

Back 99

D

Front 100

(008) What type of inspection is more thorough than a preflight?a. Thruflight.b. End-of-runway.c. Basic postflight.d. Basic thruflight.

Back 100

C

Front 101

(008) Who determines whether additional inspections are required on a 30-day inspectionschedule?a. Expediter.b. Flight chief.c. Production supervisor.d. Senior maintenance officer.

Back 101

D

Front 102

(008) How are isochronal inspections determined?a. Operating hours.b. Calendar day.c. Flying hours.d. Daily.

Back 102

B

Front 103

(008) What are the objectives of the Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP)?a. Establish, evaluate, and substantiate the structural integrity of aircraft structures.b. Improve structural design and criteria for future aircraft systems and modifications.c. Identify all components with serial numbers and ensure all systems are given a thoroughcheckout.d. Implement operational usage data and make decisions on force structure planning.

Back 103

A

Front 104

(009) Which is accountability?a. A person who, by law or contract, maintains accurate records of property or documents in hisor her charge.b. A person who, by lawful order or contract maintains accurate records of property or documentsin his or her charge.c. A person who, by law, lawful order, or contract maintains accurate records of property ordocuments in his or her charge.d. A person who, by law, lawful order, instructions, or contract maintains accurate records ofproperty or documents in his or her charge.

Back 104

D

Front 105

(009) Who initiates the Report of Survey?a. Production Supervisor.b. Flight Chief.c. Individual.d. Supply.

Back 105

C

Front 106

. (010) Who coordinates the effort to establish a forward supply point?a. Organization commander and Base Supply commander.b. Customer support officer of Base Supply and resource advisor.c. Organization commander and Customer support officer of Base Supply.d. Organization commander, production superintendent and Customer support officer of BaseSupply.

Back 106

C

Front 107

(010) Identify stock items found in the work center.a. Bench and operating.b. Operating and shop.c. Shop and classified.d. Bench, shop, and operating.

Back 107

D

Front 108

(010) Bench stock should carry enough of an item to last fora. 30 days.b. 45 days.c. 60 days.d. 90 days

Back 108

A

Front 109

(010) What are examples of shop stock?a. Nuts, bolts, washers, tubes and resistors.b. Gas cylinders, random length bar stock, sheet metal, plastic, and fabric.c. Dust covers, hydraulic line caps or plugs, and other items normally recovered after use.d. All of the above.

Back 109

B

Front 110

(010) Where is a defective part sent in the repair cycle?a. Warehouse.b. Back shop.c. Supply.d. Depot.

Back 110

B

Front 111

(010) Who authorizes a cannibalization?a. Production supervisor or aircraft commander.b. Maintenance officer and aircraft commander.c. Production supervisor or maintenance officer.d. Maintenance operation center supervisor of the day.

Back 111

C

Front 112

(011) What is the DD Form 1574?a. Suspended Tag.b. Serviceable Tag.c. Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.d. Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.

Back 112

B

Front 113

(011) What color tag is used on a new part?a. Red.b. Green.c. Brown.d. Yellow.

Back 113

D

Front 114

(012) Which situation is not a reason to submit a deficiency report (DR)?a. An item is suspected as a cause of a class C mishap.b. There is a deficiency that directly restricts combat or operational readiness.c. There is an unsatisfactory condition attributable to improper packaging and handling.d. There is a deficiency that if uncorrected, would cause death, severe injury, or severeoccupational illness.

Back 114

C

Front 115

(012) Which is not a responsibility of the originator?a. Identify noted conditions that may become deficiency reports (DR).b. Discover noted conditions that may become DRs.c. Document noted conditions that may become DRs.d. Investigate noted conditions that may become DRs.

Back 115

D

Front 116

(012) The personnel in the originating point interact with the originator as required to ensure eachdeficiency report (DR) isa. valid, accurate, and effective.b. valid, accurate, and complete.c. affordable, comprehensive, and effective.d. accurate and properly addressed to ALC recipients.

Back 116

B

Front 117

What are the five types of TOs?

Back 117

(1) O&M TOs. (2) TCTOs. (3) Methods and procedures-type TOs. (4) Index-type TOs. (5) Abbreviated TOs.

Front 118

What are the main purposes of a TCTO?

Back 118

They are the authorized method of directing and providing instructions for modifying Air Force systemsand performing or initially establishing one-time inspections.

Front 119

When would the Air Force issue an immediate action TCTO?

Back 119

To correct an unsafe condition that could result in serious or fatal injury to personnel, or cause extensivedamage or destruction of valuable property.

Front 120

Describe the conditions that would warrant issue of an urgent action TCTO.

Back 120

Conditions that could result in injury to personnel, cause damage to valuable property, or result in anunacceptable reduction in operational and/or combat efficiency.

Front 121

How are routine action TCTOs issued?

Back 121

They’re issued in two separate categories (category 1 or 2), based on the primary responsibility foraccomplishment

Front 122

Who performs a Category 1 routine action TCTO?

Back 122

They’re performed at the organizational and field maintenance activities.

Front 123

What are some methods of interim TCTO distribution?

Back 123

They may be transmitted by radiogram, telegram, teletype, message form or any other type of speedycommunication.

Front 124

What type of TOs begin with ―00‖ and are also referred to as general TOs?

Back 124

Methods and procedures TOs.

Front 125

What type TO is considered the starting point for finding information about any other TO?

Back 125

Index-type TOs.

Front 126

How would you know a TO number is in the fighter aircraft TO category?

Back 126

The first group of numbers will contain an F.

Front 127

What is the function of the second part of TO number 1F–15A–06?

Back 127

Identifies the aircraft model and series.

Front 128

What is the purpose of the ―2‖ in the TO number 1F–15C–2–00GV–00–1?

Back 128

Identifies the kind of TO. (It means the TO contains maintenance instructions.)

Front 129

What kind of TO is 1F–15C–575?

Back 129

A TCTO.

Front 130

What does the number ―27‖ represent in the TO number 1F–15C–2–27JG–40–1?

Back 130

The flight control system.

Front 131

What does the number ―30‖ represent in the TO number 1F–15C–2–34JG–30–1?

Back 131

The subsystem pertaining to the navigation system.

Front 132

Why is it important to protect TOs?

Back 132

Because they’re expensive

Front 133

List three ways TOs can be damaged on the flight line.

Back 133

Any three of the following:(1) Weather. (2) Aircraft engines. (3) Fluids. (4) Damage from vehicles or equipment. (5) General abuse.

Front 134

Give two examples of TO abuse.

Back 134

Any two of the following: 2–18 (1) Standing on one or more TOs to reach the top fasteners on forward equipment bay doors. (2) Using a JG as a kneepad. (3) Carelessly tossing a TO into the cockpit. (4) Dropping a bag of TOs from the cockpit down to the pavement.

Front 135

What is the most common form of TO damage and what causes this damage?

Back 135

Pages ripped from the TO binder. Normally, high winds will cause this kind of damage.

Front 136

What would you do if you found pages torn out of the TO binder and the holes were damaged?

Back 136

Repair the holes using paper reinforcements, then put the page back in the TO in its proper place.

Front 137

Explain a couple of ways that TO pages can become torn?

Back 137

Tears normally occur in the creases of schematic foldouts and can also happen if someone gets carelesswhen turning the pages.

Front 138

When can you use cellophane tape to repair torn TO pages?

Back 138

To repair ripped pages. If your repair obscures any technical data, the TO becomes invalid and must bereplaced.

Front 139

How can existing material in a TO be easily altered to reflect new information?

Back 139

A change to the TO can be submitted.

Front 140

How do you identify a change within TO text?

Back 140

There will be a heavy black line in the outer margin next to the changed information.

Front 141

How do you identify a change to a schematic or illustration?

Back 141

A graphic of a hand points to the affected material.

Front 142

Describe a cumulative TO supplement.

Back 142

They include data contained in previously issued supplements. Upon issue, the cumulative supplement willsupersede all previously issued supplements.

Front 143

What type of supplement is used to supplement individual pages of a TO, and how is itdistinguished from normal TO pages?

Back 143

TOPS; printed on green paper.

Front 144

How are TOPS pages filed within a TO?

Back 144

Facing the affected page

Front 145

How are routine supplements filed?

Back 145

They are filed in the back of the affected publication.

Front 146

How are operational supplements identified?

Back 146

They are identified by a black OS border on the front page with the words OPERATIONALSUPPLEMENT printed on the top and bottom of the first page

Front 147

When are interim supplements issued?

Back 147

When time is of the essence. They’re quickly produced and electronically transmitted to the using agencyfor rapid integration into deficient TOs

Front 148

When is an urgent ISS issued?

Back 148

When safety conditions could result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel.

Front 149

How are safety and operational supplements filed?

Back 149

In reverse numerical sequence in front of the basic TO.

Front 150

How are you alerted of a TO supplement?

Back 150

When you notice a supplement number, entered in pencil, next to a circled TO paragraph number (thecircled paragraph number indicates the affected material and is the subject of the filed supplement). Referto the indicated supplement number, in front or back of the TO depending on type, and follow itsinstruction, then continue on with the task.

Front 151

Describe an LOEP check.

Back 151

It is a comparison of the page and change numbers on each page of a TO with the data on the LOEP.

Front 152

Describe the deficiencies that a TO correction would fix.

Back 152

A correction fixes a word omission, typographical, or printing error that doesn’t cause misinterpretationand minor word changes or corrections to technical data, which clarify or expand existing instructions, butaren’t essential for the adequate performance of the functions required for mission accomplishment.

Front 153

What type of recommended TO change corrects typos that alter the meaning of instructionalmaterial or procedures?

Back 153

A TO improvement.

Front 154

Name the three TO change recommendation priorities.

Back 154

Emergency, urgent, and routine.

Front 155

What type of TO change recommendation would be submitted as either an emergency or urgentpriority?

Back 155

A TO improvement recommendation.

Front 156

Who submits an AFTO Form 22?

Back 156

The person who discovers a TO condition that requires a change.

Front 157

What acts as the signature on e-mailed AFTO Form 22s?

Back 157

The e-mail address. Its record is sufficient proof of identity.

Front 158

Who is the final approval authority for a submitted AFTO Form 22?

Back 158

The lead command (normally AFMC) for the system affected by the AFTO Form 22.

Front 159

Who may perform a follow-up action for a delayed AFTO Form 22 reply?

Back 159

The local PIM.

Front 160

(013) Which is not an example of information found in maintenance manuals?a. System operation.b. Troubleshooting guides.c. Operational checkout procedures.d. Instructions for modifying aircraft systems.

Back 160

D

Front 161

(013) The three main categories of time compliance technical orders (TCTO) area. immediate action, urgent action, and routine action.b. immediate action, urgent action, and special action.c. immediate action, special action, and routine action.d. urgent action, special action, and routine action.

Back 161

A

Front 162

(013) Which level of maintenance completes Category 2 time compliance technical orders(TCTO)?a. Depot.b. Factory.c. Intermediate.d. Organizational.

Back 162

A

Front 163

(013) If the urgency of conditions doesn’t allow for time, what type of time compliance technicalorder (TCTO) is used?a. Record.b. Interim.c. Routine.d. Category 1.

Back 163

B

Front 164

(013) Methods and procedures technical orders (TO) begin witha. 00.b. 01.c. 10.d. 11.

Back 164

A

Front 165

(013) Abbreviated TOs are primarily useda. as work simplification aids for personnel.b. until such time as the permanent TOs are published.c. exclusively when equipment is undergoing modifications.d. to accomplish simple maintenance not covered in other TOs.

Back 165

A

Front 166

(014) How would you know a technical order (TO) number is in the utility aircraft TO category?a. The first group of numbers will contain the numeral 2.b. The second group of numbers will contain the numeral 2.c. The first group of numbers will contain the letter U.d. The second group of numbers will contain the letter U.

Back 166

C

Front 167

(014) Group two of an aircraft technical order (TO) number identifies thea. kind of TO.b. individual TO.c. aircraft basic mission.d. aircraft series and model.

Back 167

D

Front 168

. (014) The ―2‖ in group 3 of technical order (TO) number 1U–2S–2–10 designates that thetechnical order (TO is aa. parts catalog.b. flight manual.c. work unit code manual.d. maintenance instruction.

Back 168

D

Front 169

(014) When the technical order (TO) number has only three parts, group three identifies thea. individual TO.b. aircraft series.c. category of TO.d. aircraft basic mission.

Back 169

A

Front 170

(014) The fourth group of a technical order (TO) number contains one or two parts identifying aa. TO’s particular system and purpose.b. aircraft series and model.c. aircraft subsystem.d. TO’s category.

Back 170

A

Front 171

(015) If a page is found missing from a technical order (TO), ita. is still good and can be used.b. is not valid and must be removed from service.c. is still good as long as only one page is missing.d. can be used if it is inspected by a quality assurance inspector.

Back 171

B

Front 172

(015) How would you repair pages that have been ripped out of a technical order (TO) binder?a. Use paper reinforcements.b. Use ordinary cellophane tape.c. Use masking tape to repair any ripped out holes.d. No need to make repairs; instead, neatly place the loose pages back in place.

Back 172

A

Front 173

(015) You can use cellophane tape to mend a torn technical order (TO) page as long asa. the tape does not turn yellow or brown.b. the tape does not obscure any technical data.c. there are no more than five mends per page.d. there are no more than two mends per page.

Back 173

B

Front 174

(016) When a technical order (TO) change takes place, the changed (new) TO pagea. is stapled to the existing TO page.b. is filed in the TO facing the affected page.c. will be filed in the front of the TO with all other changed pages.d. replaces the corresponding page number in the existing publication.

Back 174

D

Front 175

(016) Changes in the text of a technical order (TO) are indicated bya. a black circle with the outer margin of the page.b. a small black hand, pointing to affected material.c. heavy black index dots in the outer margin of the page.d. a heavy black vertical line in the outer margin of the page.

Back 175

D

Front 176

(016) Supplements are issued to augment or change data in the basic technical order (TO)a. by replacing the existing pages.b. and are filed in a supplement TO.c. without replacing the existing pages.d. and the pages are printed in blue to alert the user.

Back 176

C

Front 177

(016) Routine technical order (TO) supplements are fileda. in the front of the most current TOPS.b. in the back of the affected publication.c. in front of the affected publication.d. along with a TOPS.

Back 177

B

Front 178

(016) Interim safety supplements are transmitteda. by courier.b. by telephone.c. electronically.d. by secure telephone.

Back 178

C

Front 179

(016) How can you tell if a supplement is filed in a technical order (TO)?a. Review the complete TO and remember its location.b. The TO manager will keep you informed of TO supplements.c. The unit bulletin board has a list of the most current supplements.d. By a supplement number, entered in pencil, next to a circled TO paragraph number.

Back 179

D

Front 180

(016) An inventory of each technical order (TO) page is also known as aa. list of effective pages check.b. page verification and certification check.c. technical order inventory and page quick check.d. technical data and specifications validation review.

Back 180

A

Front 181

(017) The two types of recommended technical order (TO) changes area. emergency and urgent.b. correction and improvement.c. upgrade type I and upgrade type II.d. scheduled and unscheduled, initiated by the TO manager.

Back 181

B

Front 182

(017) What would the priority recommendation be if a technical order (TO) deficiency wouldresult in a fatal or serious injury to personnel?a. Urgent.b. Routine.c. Interim.d. Emergency.

Back 182

D

Front 183

(017) What would the priority recommendation be if a time compliance technical order (TCTO)were deficient?a. Urgent.b. Routine.c. Interim.d. Emergency.

Back 183

A

Front 184

(017) Responsibility for initiating follow-up action on a technical order (TO) changerecommendation with a delayed reply rests witha. the local product improvement manager (PIM).b. the officer-in-charge (OIC) of the technical order library.c. your organization’s designated information manager (IM).d. the base forms and publications office of primary responsibility (OPR).

Back 184

A

Front 185

What are the general procedures for removing an LRU?

Back 185

(1) Inspect the electrical connectors for bent pins and signs of corrosion.(2) Use new gaskets and O–rings on antenna and waveguide connections.(3) Remove all protective covers from the new LRU and place them on the defective LRU.(4) Never use masking tape or electrical tape on aircraft wiring or connector plugs.(5) Be sure the proper torque is put on each nut and bolt. The TO provides the proper torque values where required.(6) Ensure the proper paperwork is attached to the defective LRU.(7) Be sure the LRU is protected while it’s being transported between the aircraft and supply.

Front 186

When doing any procedure involving the TO, what should the technician do?

Back 186

Follow the TO step-by-step.

Front 187

What must be done when an electrical connector is disconnected?

Back 187

Protective covers must be installed on both the plug on the wire harness and the receptacle on the LRU.

Front 188

How are hydraulic lines protected?

Back 188

With threaded metal caps only; never use plastic caps.

Front 189

What happens if dirt or moisture gets into a waveguide?

Back 189

Dirt or dust entering the waveguide attenuates both the transmitted and received energy. Moisture reduces the insulating quality of the air in the waveguide, and can cause an arc.

Front 190

What type of torque wrenches are there and what do they measure?

Back 190

Two types, indicating or breakaway; they measure inch or foot pounds.

Front 191

What type of torque wrench is most commonly used in the Air Force?

Back 191

Breakaway.

Front 192

What are the precautions for using a torque wrench?

Back 192

(1) Never use a torque wrench as a breaker bar for loosening nuts, bolts or other components.(2) When tightening anything with a torque wrench, don’t over tighten past the torque value set on the wrench. Doing this may throw off the calibration or possibly cause internal damage to the torque wrench.

Front 193

When storing a breakaway torque wrench, what must be done?

Back 193

The torque wrench should be cleaned. If the wrench has dirt on it, or if it was immersed in water or corrosive chemicals, it should be cleaned, lightly sprayed with protecting oil, and wiped down. Also, the wrench should be stored in its own storage container with the wrench handle at its lowest indicated setting.

Front 194

How often should torque wrenches be calibrated?

Back 194

Every 60 days, unless the torque wrench was dropped.

Front 195

What’s the purpose of the AFTO Form 781H?

Back 195

To document maintenance status, servicing information, and to provide a ready reference as to the status ofaerospace vehicles.

Front 196

What information can be found within the status today box in the AFTO Form 781H?

Back 196

A symbol representing the highest open symbol in the AFTO Forms 781A or 781K

Front 197

What’s an ER? Who normally performs the ER?

Back 197

It serves as a certification that the authorized individual who enters a signature in this area has reviewed theactive forms to ensure the aircraft is safe for flight. Normally performed by the pro-super.

Front 198

In what two AFTO 781 Series forms will you find information about airframe time?

Back 198

781H and 781J.

Front 199

As a maintenance specialist, what AFTO 781 Series form will you use the most?

Back 199

781A.

Front 200

What’s the purpose of the AFTO Form 781A?

Back 200

Used to document each aircraft discrepancy discovered by the pilot or any maintenance personnel.Essentially, any maintenance that’s performed or discrepancy found on an aircraft requires an entry on the781A.

Front 201

What kind of date format is used in the FROM block of the 781A?

Back 201

Recorded in an eight-digit format in order of year, month, and day.

Front 202

As a maintenance technician, which entries will you see in the SYM block of the 781A?

Back 202

A red X, red diagonal, or red dash.

Front 203

What does a red X symbol indicate?

Back 203

The weapon system, support system, or equipment is considered unsafe or unfit for flight or use and thatthe weapon system, support system, or equipment won’t be flown or used until the unsatisfactory conditionis corrected or symbol is cleared.

Front 204

Who usually enters the symbol in the SYM block of the 781A?

Back 204

The person who discovers the discrepancy.

Front 205

. Who can sign off a red X discrepancy on the AFTO Form 781A?

Back 205

Usually, it must be someone who is at least a 7-level technician, other than the person performing themaintenance, who inspects the work and is designated to clear red X symbols by being on red X orders.

Front 206

When will the supply document number be entered into the DOC NO block of the 781A?

Back 206

If a part is back-ordered.

Front 207

What information must be entered into the CORRECTIVE ACTION block when a red Xcondition is cleared in the 781A?

Back 207

A description of the corrective action and a TO reference (including page and paragraph/figure number orfunction number), or equivalent.

Front 208

What’s done to the 781A if an operational check can’t be accomplished concurrently with orimmediately after completion of the maintenance?

Back 208

The original entry is closed out by describing the corrective action and stating that an operational check isdue. The operational check is written up in the next open block on the AFTO Form 781A. The originalentry and the operational check entries must refer to each other as follows: ―see page __, item __.‖ In addition, the operational check entry must adequately describe the reason for the operational check.

Front 209

What’s the purpose of the AFTO Form 781K?

Back 209

To review and enter delayed discrepancies

Front 210

Where are red X entries entered on the AFTO Form 781K?

Back 210

Never.

Front 211

What additional documentation is required when a delayed discrepancy is corrected on the AFTOForm 781K?

Back 211

The discrepancy must be transferred to the 781A so a description of the corrective action can bedocumented.

Front 212

What information needs to be added to automated AFTO 781 Series forms after the product is printed?

Back 212

Symbols.

Front 213

What is static electricity?

Back 213

It’s the accumulation of an electrical charge on the surface of a material.

Front 214

What are the four factors that affect the magnitude of a static charge on a material?

Back 214

The size, shape, composition, and electrical properties of the material.

Front 215

What type of material can quickly distribute a static charge over its entire surface?

Back 215

A conducting material.

Front 216

Will static electricity have a tendency to buildup more in a high or low humidity environment?Why is this true?

Back 216

Low humidity. Humid air helps to dissipate electrostatic charges and decreases the chances of accumulating the charge.

Front 217

List five components that are ESDS.

Back 217

(1) All MOSFET components.(2) JFETs.(3) Film resistors.(4) Resistor chips.(5) Piezoelectric crystals.

Front 218

How would you know that an ESDS component is present?

Back 218

Any parts, LRUs, and equipment that contain an ESDS component should be marked with the ESDS caution symbol and statement.

Front 219

What precaution should you take to be sure you don’t have a static charge built-up in your bodythat could damage an ESDS component?

Back 219

First, be sure that the aircraft is properly grounded. Then discharge yourself by touching the unit’s case before disconnecting any cables and touch the outer shells of cable connectors together to equalize electrostatic potentials.

Front 220

Which TO will give you further guidance on ESDS components?

Back 220

TO–00–25–234.

Front 221

What is the purpose of the altitude and airspeed portions of the test set?

Back 221

These are used to perform leak and operational checks of the pitot-static system and instruments.

Front 222

When will you use the TTU–205 to perform an operational and leak check?

Back 222

Anytime a pitot-static indicator is replaced.

Front 223

What is the altitude range of the TTU–205?

Back 223

–1,000 to 80,000 feet.

Front 224

What condition must be satisfied before connecting the TTU–205 to the aircraft?

Back 224

After a satisfactory test set leak check.

Front 225

What is the purpose of the AN/APM-424 test set?

Back 225

TO perform the operational check on the IFF system.

Front 226

What modes does the IFF test set interrogate?

Back 226

Modes 1, 2, 3/A, C and 4

Front 227

What conditions must be met in order for the aircraft altitude to be displayed on the test set?

Back 227

The ADC is turned on and mode C enabled.

Front 228

How is the test set powered?

Back 228

By either a battery stick or six C-cell nickel cadmium batteries.

Front 229

How are the mode 4 codes loaded into the tester?

Back 229

Hook up the computer interface cable between the tester and the Mode 4 computer KIR-1A/TSEC.

Front 230

What button is pushed to repeat the last IFF mode previously checked?

Back 230

TEST RPT.

Front 231

What are the four main functional groups of the AN/PLM4 (V3) RSS?

Back 231

Power Distribution, Digital Control, RF, BIT.

Front 232

What test failure will cause the RSS not to operate?

Back 232

The FIFO memory part of this test.

Front 233

What functional checks on the CMDS are performed with the CDSTS?

Back 233

Verifies the absence of stray voltage on each firing pin of the CMD; validates amplitude, duration and sequence of fire pulse; provides PASS/FAIL status of the CMDS; provides fire pulse count, sequence of fire pulse, pin number for each no-fire position, each bad ground spring position, and the number(s) of failed limiter circuits (ALE-47 only) as well as providing PASS/FAIL status of the AN/ALE-40 reset.

Front 234

What does the Stray Voltage Test perform?

Back 234

Perform an absence of stray voltage safety checkout across dispenser firing contact before loading payload magazines with live pyrotechnic cartridges (squibs). The CDT monitors all dispenser firing contacts for the existence of an AC or DC stray voltage.

Front 235

What groups are checked by the JSECST?

Back 235

Group A and Group B components of the EC SUT.

Front 236

What is checked by Group B tests?

Back 236

Radar warning receivers, integrated electronic attack suites, and electronic countermeasures characteristics of target EC systems.

Front 237

When will the JSECST pressure-equalizing valve open?

Back 237

Whenever a pressure differential of more than 6 psi exists between the test set’s internal pressure and the ambient pressure.

Front 238

What is the SKL and for what is it used?

Back 238

A PDA running the Windows CE operating system used to load cryptographic codes into aircraft secure voice systems, GPS and IFF.

Front 239

The crypto ignition key is used for what?

Back 239

In order to have access to the information on the SKL.

Front 240

What is SERENE BYTE?

Back 240

Exercises conducted periodically to validate the production and delivery of software and hardware changes to electronic equipment used to provide an awareness and response capability with the electronic spectrum.

Front 241

What is the intention of SERENE BYTE?

Back 241

Identify problem areas; gain confidence in the process; ensure a smooth flow of information during a crisis; ensure readiness in response to threat parameter changes; train operations, intelligence, communications, and maintenance personnel.

Front 242

What are the four steps in the Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming and the code name for this process?

Back 242

(1) Detect change.(2) Determine impact.(3) Reprogram.(4) Field change; code name PACEWARE.

Front 243

What is the goal for emergency changes affecting combat operations?

Back 243

Releasing necessary changes within 24 hours.

Front 244

State a general definition of FOD.

Back 244

Any object that can cause damage, in any place and time, when it is where it doesn’t belong.

Front 245

Name some items that can become FOD.

Back 245

Birds, hats, TO pages, packaging materials, field jackets, panel fasteners, and tools.

Front 246

Who has the responsibility for FOD prevention?

Back 246

Everyone (including you).

Front 247

List at least four things you can do to help reduce the FOD problem.

Back 247

Any 4 of the following:(1). Follow tech data.(2). Properly plug or cap all aircraft openings, ports, lines, hoses, and ducts.(3). Account for all tools, equipment, and hardware at the end of each job.(4). Keep all work areas clean and free of debris; double-check the work site before leaving it.(5). Pick up litter, even when you’re just passing through an area.

Front 248

Give the precautions you should take while using MEK.

Back 248

Wear proper gloves and eye protection and never use MEK without proper ventilation.

Front 249

Where will you most likely encounter hydraulic fluid?

Back 249

Around flight control system components and anywhere that someone needed to open a hydraulic line.

Front 250

What are the hazard attributes associated with hydraulic fluid?

Back 250

Its flammable, an irritant, somewhat toxic, and very slippery.

Front 251

Give two general precautions you should take around aircraft to prevent igniting fuel.

Back 251

(1) Never smoke on the flight line or in a hangar except in designated smoking areas.(2) Avoid any source of spark or open flame near an aircraft.

Front 252

To minimize the hazard created by their burners, how far should you place portable heaters from the aircraft

Back 252

As far as the ducting allows.

Front 253

What is the water content of hydrazine (H70)?

Back 253

30%.

Front 254

What risks are associated with exposure to hydrazine?

Back 254

It’s a suspected carcinogen (cancer causing agent) that also attacks the liver, kidneys, and respiratory system.

Front 255

What does the hydrazine vapor indicator do?

Back 255

Detects hydrazine vapor and changes color to warn personnel

Front 256

What color does the hydrazine vapor indicator turn if a hydrazine tank leak has been detected?

Back 256

Gray or black.

Front 257

How far should personnel be evacuated in the event of a hydrazine spill or leak?

Back 257

100 feet minimum (500 feet downwind) from the source of the spill.

Front 258

What two safety measures need to be followed when performing maintenance on the H70 system?

Back 258

Wear respiratory and personal protective equipment and provide positive ventilation through the fuselage.

Front 259

When should respiratory and personal protective equipment be worn?

Back 259

Whenever levels of H70 exceed the recommended safe level of 100 ppb.

Front 260

Why is the energy stored in a compressed gas cylinder such a hazard?

Back 260

Because a flaw in, or mishandling of, the cylinder could cause it to explode.

Front 261

Why do you need to check the threads on regulators, fittings, and valves?

Back 261

To make sure that the threads on the valve and any fittings match.

Front 262

If the gas cylinder valve requires the use of a wrench or key, what special precaution should you take while using the gas?

Back 262

Keep the tool ready in case you need to shut off the flow of gas from the cylinder.

Front 263

What types of tools can you use on valves equipped with hand wheels?

Back 263

None.

Front 264

With what type of gas should you not open the cylinder valve fully?

Back 264

Acetylene.

Front 265

Why do helium and nitrogen create such a hazard in inadequately ventilated areas?

Back 265

They dilute the air’s oxygen to unsafe levels, possibly causing you to suffocate.

Front 266

What hazard does the cold temperature of liquid gasses create?

Back 266

Contact with a liquid gas will cause instant frostbite, possibly leading to the loss of fingers or worse.

Front 267

What danger does evaporating LOX create?

Back 267

The risk of fire or explosion.

Front 268

What is the operational hydraulic system pressure of most aircraft?

Back 268

At or above 3,000 psi.

Front 269

Name some possible contaminants of a hydraulic system.

Back 269

Air, water, oils (other than hydraulic fluid), fuel, and dirt.

Front 270

What’s the most common contaminant found in hydraulic systems?

Back 270

Air.

Front 271

What characteristic of air makes it such a serious problem in hydraulic systems?

Back 271

Its compressibility leads to pressure fluctuation and actuator failure.

Front 272

What effect does contamination by dirt and sand have on a hydraulic system?

Back 272

Score the armature and damage the seals; clog the micron filters, slowing servo actuator response time; if the dirt or sand gets past the filters, damage the actuators.

Front 273

Why should you never use your hands to feel for a hydraulic leak?

Back 273

Because a pinhole leak with 3,000 psi pressure can easily amputate fingers or even your hand, or inject you with a toxic amount of hydraulic fluid.

Front 274

List two reasons why you should avoid wearing metal jewelry around electrical circuits.

Back 274

(1) The metal helps to overcome the skin’s natural resistance; it provides an excellent conductor, thus increasing the danger of being shocked.(2) The metal may spot-weld to any circuit it touches, making it difficult to escape.

Front 275

When should you work on energized circuitry?

Back 275

Only if it’s absolutely necessary.

Front 276

What are the benefits of the buddy system?

Back 276

Each person acts as a safety observer for the other. If one gets hurt, the other can administer first aid and summon help. Two can often get a job done more quickly than one.

Front 277

List three safety points you should follow whenever you work around electricity.

Back 277

Any three of the following:(1) Never trust a switch.(2) Don’t assume someone else installed safety devices.(3) Always tell your partner which circuit you’re working on.(4) Don’t rely on insulation as complete protection against electrical shock.(5) Keep your feet clear of objects on the ground.

Front 278

What unit of measurement is used to measure noise levels?

Back 278

dB.

Front 279

What noise level, even for a short duration, could rupture the eardrum?

Back 279

160 dB or above.

Front 280

Below what level is noise considered relatively safe?

Back 280

84 dB.

Front 281

Name the symptoms people who have received an overdose of sound may display.

Back 281

Pain and/or ringing or burning in the ears, a feeling of fullness, dizziness, lack of concentration, nausea, vomiting, and/or weakness of the knees

Front 282

What should you do if you or your coworkers experience the symptoms of noise overdose?

Back 282

Get away from the noise area and seek medical help immediately.

Front 283

Although you can’t easily recognize the symptoms of minor noise overdoses, frequent exposure to these small overdoses can cause permanent hearing loss. What does the Air Force do to try to detect the first signs of hearing loss?

Back 283

Base medical personnel periodically test your hearing.

Front 284

When do F–15 engines produce the most dangerous levels of noise?

Back 284

While in afterburner.

Front 285

What type of AGE uses a small jet turbine to turn its generator and produce bleed air?

Back 285

A/M32A–60A power unit.

Front 286

When should you wear both earplugs and earmuffs?

Back 286

Anytime you need to work where the noise may exceed 120 dB.

Front 287

How long per day is it safe to expose yourself to 140 dB of noise while wearing both earplugs and earmuffs?

Back 287

Less than 5 minutes.

Front 288

List the four ways that RF can cause harm.

Back 288

(1) Direct biological.(2) Indirect biological.(3) The ignition of fuel.(4) The detonation of EEDs.

Front 289

How does RF damage your internal organs?

Back 289

By causing them to heat up more quickly than their blood flow can cool them down.

Front 290

What are the symptoms of RF radiation exposure?

Back 290

Symptoms resembling the flu, or heat exhaustion may occur. These symptoms may include headache, nausea, vertigo, confusion, a sensation of warmth, a metallic taste in the mouth and sandy-feeling eyes or blurred vision. You may experience a slight decrease in blood pressure. You may also suddenly be overtaken by feelings of apathy or depression.

Front 291

Which hazard of RF radiation occurs when RF interferes with medical devices?

Back 291

Indirect biological.

Front 292

Why does RF present a hazard to fuel trucks and other exposed fuel containers?

Back 292

Because the radiation sets up eddy currents that could become strong enough to spark and set off the fuel.

Front 293

State which hazard of RF radiation occurs in the following scenario: An operating radar causes a neighboring aircraft’s drop-tank squib to detonate, dropping the unpinned tank onto the ground.

Back 293

The detonation of EEDs.

Front 294

After seeing to an RF radiation overexposure victim’s medical needs, what should the supervisor immediately do?

Back 294

Notify the RPO.

Front 295

If you report an RF radiation overexposure, and you show no signs of injury, what should your supervisor do?

Back 295

Make an appointment for you with the flight surgeon’s office for within the next 72 hours.

Front 296

Does exposure to RF radiation definitely place you at risk of cancer or genetic mutation?

Back 296

No

Front 297

Who is the first line of defense when it comes to preventing RF hazards?

Back 297

You, the technician.

Front 298

How can the focusing property of the eye cause damage?

Back 298

It increases the incident energy density (upon your retinas) by several-hundred-thousand times.

Front 299

What determines which part of the eye might be damaged?

Back 299

The wavelength of the radiated energy

Front 300

What functions of sight does the fovea portion of the retina enable?

Back 300

It enables you to see fine detail, distinguish colors, and perceive depth.

Front 301

What function does the pupil of an eye perform?

Back 301

It can vary its size over a wide range of lighting intensities to increase or decrease the amount of light entering the eye.

Front 302

What determines how much skin damage a laser can inflict?

Back 302

The amount of absorbed energy.

Front 303

Where can you look to find guidance on laser operation and safety?

Back 303

AFOSH Standard 48–139, Laser Radiation Protection Program.

Front 304

(018) Which action will never be done after removing a line replaceable unit (LRU)? a. Inspect plugs and pins for signs of corrosion and bent pins. b. Use electrical tape to cover open connectors when high humidity is a problem. c. Use new gaskets or O–rings whenever the antenna and waveguide connections were opened. d. Install protective covers from the new LRU onto the connection receptacles of the defective LRU.

Back 304

B

Front 305

(018) What should be used on open hydraulic lines? a. Metal caps only. b. Plastic caps only. c. Cloth or rags only. d. Metal or plastic caps.

Back 305

A

Front 306

(019) How many indicating torque wrenches are there? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.

Back 306

B

Front 307

(019) What is the most common type of torque wrench used in the Air Force? a. Dial. b. Indicating. c. Deflection. d. Breakaway.

Back 307

D

Front 308

(019) What must be accomplished to keep the breakaway torque wrench set at a specific value? a. Lock the spring tube. b. Lock the locking ring. c. Adjust the handle grip. d. Adjust the drive assembly.

Back 308

B

Front 309

(019) How often should a torque wrench be calibrated? a. 60 days. b. 90 days. c. 60 days or when it is dropped. d. 90 days or when it is dropped.

Back 309

C

Front 310

(020) The Status Today symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781H represents the a. highest symbol in the forms. b. highest open symbol in the forms. c. last exceptional release completed by the 7-level technician. d. last exceptional release completed by the production superintendent.

Back 310

B

Front 311

(020) Prior to performing any maintenance on an aircraft you must first review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form a. 781. b. 781A. c. 781H. d. 781K.

Back 311

B

Front 312

(020) Symbols entered in the 781A SYM block may a. never be erased. b. be erased when the symbol was entered in error. c. be erased if there is a change of status to the discrepancy. d. be erased only if approved by the production superintendent.

Back 312

A

Front 313

(020) When is a technician qualified to sign off a red dash or diagonal? a. Upon graduation of technical school. b. When the technician feels confident with the task. c. When the technician is a 7-level and is qualified to perform the task. d. When the technician has completed training on the task which has been signed off in their training records.

Back 313

D

Front 314

(020) A warning note is required to be entered on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A. To do this properly, the note will be entered into the a. DISCREPANCY block. b. INSPECTED BY block. c. DISCOVERED BY block. d. CORRECTIVE ACTION block.

Back 314

A

Front 315

(020) When the CORRECTED BY block on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A is signed, the signature will include the individual’s a. first initial and last name. b. full name, without the middle initial. c. full name to include any middle initial. d. first and middle initials along with his or her last name.

Back 315

A

Front 316

(020) The number and type of the next inspection due on an aircraft is documented on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781K. This data is entered in block a. A, AEROSPACE INSPECTION STATUS. b. B, ENGINE DATA. c. C, CALENDAR AND HOURLY INSPECTION SCHEDULE. d. D, DELAYED DISCREPANCIES, URGENT ACTION, AND OUTSTANDING ROUTINE ACTION TCTOs.

Back 316

A

Front 317

(021) High humidity affects the buildup of a static charge on insulator material because the humid air a. has no affect on the buildup of static charge. b. localizes the static charge and slows the dissipation of the charge. c. helps to dissipate electrostatic charges and decreases the chances of accumulating the charge. d. causes more electrons to travel to the insulating material and increases the chances of accumulating the charge.

Back 317

C

Front 318

(021) The primary cause of electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage to avionic components and equipment is a. lightning strikes on aircraft left exposed to the elements. b. discharge of static electricity through the equipment casing. c. discharge of static electricity into the equipment connector pins. d. placing the equipment too close to other operating electronic equipment.

Back 318

C

Front 319

(022) What must be performed prior to using the TTU–205 test set? a. Attaching the tester to the aircraft first. b. Just a visual inspection of the hoses. c. A leak check on the tester. d. No special check is required.

Back 319

C

Front 320

(023) What is the purpose of the AN/APM–424 test set? a. To check power output of the identification friend or foe (IFF) system. b. Produces IFF interrogations and displays the received replies. c. To only display the received replies. d. To check the transmitter frequency of the IFF system.

Back 320

B

Front 321

(023) How many push buttons are on the AN/APM–424 test set? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.

Back 321

C

Front 322

(024) On the AN/ALM–288 Countermeasures Dispensing Set, Test Set (CDSTS), which testing capability is used to test the serviceability of the Countermeasure Dispenser System (CMDS) dispenser ground spring contacts? a. Fire Test. b. Jettison Test. c. Misfire Test. d. Stray Voltage Test.

Back 322

A

Front 323

(024) On the Joint Service Electronic Combat Systems Test Set (JSECST), which is checked during Group A test? a. Radar Warning Receivers. b. Characteristics of target. c. Electronic attack suites. d. Distance-to-fault.

Back 323

D

Front 324

(025) What operating system is used with the simplified key loader (SKL)? a. Windows XP. b. Windows CE. c. Linux. d. Mac OS X.

Back 324

B

Front 325

(026) Which is the intention of the SERENE BYTE exercises? a. Detect change. b. Determine impact. c. Identify problem areas. d. To reprogram and field changes.

Back 325

C

Front 326

(027) Which is an example of foreign object damage (FOD)? a. Fuel fire destroys an aircraft. b. Piece of scrap metal punctures an aircraft tire. c. Defective component shorts out, causing an aircraft to crash. d. A worker drops a line replaceable unit (LRU), shattering the internal circuit cards.

Back 326

B

Front 327

(027) The responsibility for foreign object damage (FOD) prevention on the flight line rests with a. everyone. b. the maintenance officer. c. the maintenance supervisor. d. each flying squadron (FS) commander.

Back 327

A

Front 328

(028) Hydraulic fluid is not a. toxic. b. slick. c. corrosive. d. flammable.

Back 328

C

Front 329

(029) Gas cylinder valves have fusible safety plugs that are designed to release the gas when a. the flow out of the valve surpasses design limitations. b. eddy currents in the metal shell exceed a certain level. c. cylinder pressures exceed a predetermined danger point. d. a sharp blow or drop creates a danger of the cylinder rupturing.

Back 329

C

Front 330

(030) Aircraft hydraulic systems are very dangerous because they operate at a pressure of a. 1,500 pounds per square inch (psi). b. 3,000 psi. c. 4,500 psi. d. 6,000 psi.

Back 330

B

Front 331

(030) The most common contaminant found in aircraft hydraulic systems is a. air. b. oil. c. dirt. d. water.

Back 331

A

Front 332

(031) When you are working around electrical circuits, you should a. have trust in switches. b. assume someone else installed safety devices. c. tell your partner which circuit you are working on. d. rely upon insulation as protection against electrical shock.

Back 332

C

Front 333

(032) The noise level at which your eardrums could easily rupture is a. 130 decibels (dB) and above. b. 140 dB and above. c. 150 dB and above. d. 160 dB and above.

Back 333

D

Front 334

(032) What region of noise levels is considered relatively safe? a. 102 decibels (dB) and below. b. 96 dB and below. c. 92 dB and below. d. 84 dB and below.

Back 334

D

Front 335

(032) Since people normally display no outward symptoms of small overdoses to dangerous noise, the Air Force tries to detect the first signs of hearing loss by a. periodically testing your hearing. b. monitoring the adverse noise dosimeter (AND). c. performing an annual psycho-environmental profile. d. observing sample groups of airmen from your career field.

Back 335

A

Front 336

(033) Which statement is not true concerning hazardous noise? a. Short duration exposure to hazardous noise is not very harmful. b. The best protection is provided by wearing both earmuffs and earplugs. c. Noise hazards exist forward, to the side, and aft of operating jet engines. d. The frequency and level of noise generated when a jet engine is operating can cause permanent loss of hearing.

Back 336

A

Front 337

(033) You should wear both ear plugs and ear muffs at noise levels above a. 90 decibels (dB). b. 100 dB. c. 110 dB. d. 120 dB.

Back 337

D

Front 338

(034) After taking a suspected radio frequency (RF) over exposure victim to the hospital who should be immediately contacted? a. The base Chaplin. b. The radiation protection officer. c. The airfield radiofrequency manager. d. The biomedical incident review board.

Back 338

B

Front 339

(035) What factor(s) determine the amount of laser energy absorbed by the skin? a. Power and wavelength of the laser beam. b. Distance from laser radiating element. c. Degree of skin pigmentation. d. Power and wavelength of the laser beam and degree of skin pigmentation.

Back 339

D

Front 340

(035) The extent of skin damage that can be inflicted by a laser is primarily determined by the a. power of the laser beam. b. amount of absorbed energy. c. wavelength of the laser beam. d. degree of pigmented tissue composition.

Back 340

B