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84 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Before using an electric drill, what is the first thing you should do?


a. Make sure the diameter of the hole to be drilled is within capacity of the drill.


b. Connect drill to the power source


c. Ask a coworker for assistance


d. insert the chuck key

a

The purpose of cutting lubricant in most drilling operations is to increase the


a. life of the drill only


b. speed of drilling only


c. frictional heat during drilling


d. drilling speed and the drill bit life

d

Which minimum articles of safety gear must be worn when using a bench grinder?


a. Apron and gloves


b. Eye and face protection


c. Gloves and steel-toed boots


d. Safety glasses and long sleeved shirt

d

An electric saw blade must be operating at what speed before it contacts the material being cut?


a. Full


b. Low


c. Moderate


d. Accelerated

a

How many pounds per square inch (psi) of clean, dry air is required at the tool end of the air hose to ensure the tool is operating safely and efficiently?


a. 60


b. 90


c. 110


d. 125

b

What condition would prevent an operator from applying power to a hoist or other powered lifting device?


a. An AF Form 979 is attached to the unit


b. Potential for lightning within 15 miles of the area


c. Procedures are not covered in detail in the owner's manual


d. The unit is tagged with a DD Form 1574-1, condition code A

a

What should be worn anytime there is a potential for injury from overhead objects during a lifting operation?


a. Kevlar


b. Safety goggles


c. Leather gloves


d. Protective helmets

d

What is the most common type of lifting sling used in the munitions career field?


a. Chain assembly


b. Web strapping


c. Metal mesh


d. Wire rope

d

The following are all good safety practices to follow when using a lifting sling except


a. standing clear of the attached load


b. padding any sharp corners the sling may come in contact with


c. keeping your hands and fingers from between the sling and the load


d. inspecting the sling by passing your bare hand over the body of the sling

d

The annunciators displayed on the Fluke 8025-series mulitmeter are used to distinguish among


a. ohms, milliohms, and kilohms


b. ohms, kilohms, and megohms


c. amps, ohms, and millivolts


d. ohms, volts, and amps

b

What are the two operational modes of the Fluke 8025-series multimeter?


a. Alternating current and direct current


b. Range and hold


c. Auto and manual


d. Continuous and momentary

b

The steering system on the MHU-141/M trailer has a turning radius of how many inches?


a. 90


b. 200


c. 400


d. 600

b

When the MHU-141 trailer is loaded or towed with the hinged deck panels open, what must be done?


a. The deck-panel supports must be properly positioned and locked in place with quick-release pins


b. The deck-panel supports must be properly positioned and held in place wish a tie-down strap


c. Bomb chocks must be positioned to the deck-panels and locked in place with cotter pins


d. Close and lock the two deck panels; the trailer cannot be towed in this configuration

a

What is the maximum load capacity of the MHU-110/M trailer?


a. 5,000 pounds


b. 5,500 pounds


c. 15,000 pounds


d. 20,000 pounds

c

The parking brake on the MHU-110/M is applied by


a. pulling either one of two hand levers located on each side of the front of trailer


b. pulling either one of two hand levers located on each side of the rear of trailer


c. pulling the center hand lever located in the front of trailer


d. pullinf the surge brake located on the tongue of trailer

a
16. (007) How many openings (hinged door panels) are on the deck of the MHU–226 trailer? a. One.

b. Two.


c. Three.


d. Four.

c

17. (007) What type of steering aids the MHU–226 in a tighter steering radius?

a. Rack and pinion.


b. Power recirculating ball.


c. Front-wheel automotive type.


d. Four-wheel double Ackerman.

d

18. (008) After 463L pallets are positioned on a rollerized trailer, what can you use to secure the pallets to the trailer?

a. Steel chains only.


b. Wire ropes and slack adjusters.


c. Wood bracing and tie-down straps.


d. MB–1 chain assemblies and/or tie-down straps.

d

19. (008) What kind of movement supports on-base activities to or from the flightline?

a. Hazardous cargo.


b. Operational.


c. Logistical.


d. Intrabase.

b

20. (009) What munitions item is not loaded into transport modules by munitions personnel?

a. BDU–33.


b. MK 106.


c. ALE–50.


d. 20 MM.

d

21. (009) What transport module used for decoy munitions has a maximum capacity of 30 magazines?

a. BDU–33.


b. ALE–40.


c. ALE–50.


d. 20 MM.

c

22. (009) How often should the positive locking devices on the doors of munitions transport modules be checked?

a. At the beginning and ending of each shift.


b. During initial pre-check of the trailer only.


c. After loading, unloading, and periodically between stops.


d. After loading, unloading, and every 10 minutes when transporting.

c
23. (010) The purpose of the transport beam beneath the lift arm assemblies on the MJ–1-series lift truck is to

a. provide added stability and to decrease hydraulic pressure from the lift boom when carrying maximum capacity loads over long distances.


b. provide added support and to relieve hydraulic pressure from the lift arms when carrying loads for long distances.


c. relieve excess pneumatic pressure from the lift boom when the lift truck is parked.


d. relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift boom when the lift truck is parked.

b

24. (010) What is the lifting capacity of the MJ–1 series lift truck?

a. 3,000 pounds.


b. 3,500 pounds.


c. 6,000 pounds.


d. 6,500 pounds.

a

25. (010) What is the lifting capacity of the MHU–83-series lift truck?

a. 3,000 pounds.


b. 3,500 pounds.


c. 6,000 pounds.


d. 7,000 pounds.

d

26. (010) When using the MHU–83-series lift truck with fork adapters, you immediately

a. reduce its lifting capacity by 800 pounds.


b. increase its lifting capacity by 800 pounds.


c. reduce its lifting capability by 1,000 pounds.


d. increase its lifting capability by 1,000 pounds.

c

27. (010) What happens when you release the accelerator pedal on a vehicle driven with a hydrostatic transmission?

a. The lift truck stops immediately.


b. The unit rolls until its inertia is spent.


c. The unit coasts to a stop very quickly.


d. The transmission automatically drops to a lower gear.

c

28. (010) What is the primary drawback to using the hydraulic hand pump to build hydraulic pressure on the MHU–83-series lift truck?

a. Very labor intensive.


b. Difficult to make fine adjustment to the table.


c. Extremely slow way to build hydraulic pressure.


d. Possible to damage hydraulic system due to over pressurization.

c

29. (010) How is the yaw positioning from the cradle or boom controls of an MJ–1 lift truck adjusted?

a. Pneumatically.


b. Hydraulically.


c. Electrically.


d. Manually.

d

30. (011) What category or categories are Air Force air compressors classified?

a. By application.


b. High or low pressure.


c. Self-propelled or towed.


d. Powered or non-powered support equipment.

b

31. (012) The primary difference between a bobtail and a pickup truck is the

a. bobtail provides a smoother ride.


b. bobtail is designed for long-distance towing.


c. bobtail’s back end is shortened by about one-half.


d. bobtail’s front wheel base is smaller for better turning radius.

c

32. (013) What is the purpose behind good operator maintenance of all assigned vehicles?

a. Mission readiness.


b. Reduce maintenance costs.


c. Maintain vehicle serviceability at reduced cost.


d. Make sure vehicles are serviceable and in good condition.

c

33. (014) What is the maximum amount of pounds the MB–4 aircraft towing tractor can tow and push?

a. 120,000.


b. 130,000.


c. 140,000.


d. 150,000.

c

34. (015) Pintle safety locking pins must remain attached to the pintle assembly

a. to prevent an unsecure pin from coming out and getting lost.


b. to ensure it is available if needed.


c. by a nonconductive material.


d. by a bungee cord.

a

35. (016) What gear range should be selected in a tractor with an automatic transmission while going downhill?

a. Neutral.


b. Low range.


c. High range.


d. Any range is acceptable.

b

36. (016) What is the purpose of the trailer hand valve (Johnson bar)?

a. Test the trailer brakes.


b. Slow the tractor on wet pavement.


c. Slow the tractor to prevent skidding.


d. To drift the trailer into the right trajectory when you make a turn too sharp.

a

37. (016) What are hose couplers (glad hands) used for on tractor/trailer combinations?

a. To connect the service and emergency brake airlines from the tractor to the trailer.


b. To connect the service brake airline with the emergency brake airline.


c. To secure the airlines to the tractor to avoid them from dragging.


d. To join sections of service brake airlines on the trailer.

a

38. (016) Which procedure is not a consideration for backing a tractor/trailer combination?

a. Use a spotter.


b. Use mirrors on both sides.


c. Turn toward the driver’s side.


d. Turn toward the passenger’s side.

d

39. (017) What is the maximum depth of water you may drive a rough-terrain forklift through?

a. Three feet.


b. Five feet.


c. Seven feet.


d. Eight feet.

b
40. (017) What is the most beneficial attribute of using the swingmast forklift?

a. Operates inside due to its quiet running engine.


b. Allows you to maximize the available storage space.


c. Moves bigger assets quickly due to its increased weight limitation.


d. Empties International Shipping Organization (ISO) containers quickly.

b

41. (017) With the forks level, what is the maximum reach of the variable-reach forklift?

a. 15 feet.


b. 16 feet.


c. 20 feet.


d. 22 feet.

d

42. (018) What USAF gun system is loaded and unloaded by the Linkless Ammunition Loading System (LALS)?

a. The GAU–2B/A, 7.62 mm machine gun.


b. The M197, 20 mm gatling gun.


c. The GAU–8A, 30 mm cannon.


d. The M61A1, 20 mm cannon.

d

43. (018) Which weapons replaceable assembly of the Linkless Ammunition Loading System (LALS) has no moving parts?

a. Conveyor.


b. Transfer unit.


c. Trailer chassis.


d. Storage container.

d

44. (019) Which subassembly of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) houses a remaining indicator window that provides the means to visually determine the approximate number of rounds in the unit?

a. Inner drum.


b. Outer drum.


c. Middle drum.


d. Interface unit.

b

45. (019) Which subassembly of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) provides the means to load live rounds into the aircraft gun system?

a. Inner drum.


b. Outer drum.


c. Interface unit.


d. Ammunition conveyor.

c

46. (019) Which subassembly of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) provides the power that cycles the rounds through the system?

a. Inner drum.


b. Outer drum.


c. Interface unit.


d. Pneumatic regulator.

d

47. (020) How often should universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher assemblies be inspected?

a. Every 30 days when in use and annually when in storage.


b. Every 45 days when in use and annually when in storage.


c. Every 60 days when in use and annually when in storage.


d. Every 90 days when in use and annually when in storage.

a

48. (020) Which subassembly on the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher assembly prevents accidentally loading a spent cartridge into the loader assembly?

a. Drive assembly.


b. Delinker loader unit.


c. Empty space preclusion device.


d. Rigid ammunition chute assembly.

c

49. (020) Which tool can initiate cycling ammunition through the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher manually?

a. 1/4-inch speed wrench.


b. 1/2-inch speed wrench.


c. 1/4-inch ratchet and socket.


d. 1/2-inch ratchet and socket.

b

50. (020) What happens to the unfired rounds returning from the loader when the linked ammunition is being processed?

a. Manually separated and counted for the next upload.


b. Automatically counted and then uploaded back into the loader.


c. Manually downloaded through the second gate in the bottom of the replenisher.


d. Automatically downloaded through the second gate in the bottom of the replenisher.

d

51. (021) Which 30 millimeter (mm) cannon is internally mounted in the A–10 aircraft?

a. M39.


b. M61.


c. GAU–8/A.


d. GPU–5/A.

c

52. (021) Which 30 mm ammunition loading system is used to service the GPU–5/A gun pod?

a. GFU–7/E.


b. GFU–8/E.


c. GFU–10/E.


d. GFU–11/E.

c

53. (022) Which component of the munitions assembly conveyor (MAC) can be used as a forklift adapter to raise the gantry to full height?

a. Gantry.


b. Rail conveyor.


c. Pneumatic hoist.


d. Interface control board (ICB).

d

54. (022) What is the weight capacity of the pneumatic hoists that are attached to the gantry’s I-beam of the munitions assembly conveyor (both versions)?

a. 4,000 lbs.(A/E32K–3, MAC); 4,000 lbs. (A/E32K–9, MAC II).


b. 4,000 lbs.(A/E32K–3, MAC); 6,000 lbs. (A/E32K–9, MAC II).


c. 6,000 lbs.(A/E32K–3, MAC); 6,000 lbs. (A/E32K–9, MAC II).


d. 6,000 lbs.(A/E32K–3, MAC); 10,000 lbs. (A/E32K–9, MAC II).

b

55. (022) The triple bomb bar is fitted with bomb slings and is used with each hoist to provide for lifting

a. three 500-pound munitions at a time or two 2,000-pound munitions items.


b. three 500-pound munitions at a time or one 2,000-pound munitions item.


c. two 500-pound munitions at a time or two 2,000-pound munitions items.


d. two 500-pound munitions at a time or one 2,000-pound munitions item.

a

56. (023) Which technical order (TO) covers the rapid-assembly and inspection procedures of nonnuclear munitions?

a. 11A–1–42.


b. 11A–1–46.


c. 11A–1–60.


d. 11A–1–63.

d

57. (023) What is the minimum number of feet required to assemble the A/E32K–3, munitions assembly conveyor?

a. 50 × 100.


b. 100 × 200.


c. 150 × 200.


d. 200 × 500.

a

58. (023) Why is it important to monitor net explosive weight (NEW) during a bomb buildup operation?

a. Excessive NEW at your location usually means a shortage at other sites.


b. Excessive NEW at your location will limit the operating space needed for bomb building.


c. If ignited, excessive NEW may cause the intermagazine and intraline distances to increase.


d. If ignited, excessive NEW may cause propagation of an explosive from one location to another.

d

59. (023) When packing up the munitions assembly conveyor (MAC) it is important to cap the ends of the air hoses to keep

a. corrosion from setting in.


b. pressurized air from escaping.


c. the hose ends from being crushed.


d. foreign materials from damaging them.

d

60. (024) What does Title 49 of the code of federal regulations (CFR) regulate?

a. Contingency operations.


b. Special access required for classified cargo.


c. Shipments of hazardous material, including explosives within the United States.


d. All shipments of explosives and munitions within the United States and overseas.

c

61. (024) Which approved restraining devices can be used for securing munitions on USAF vehicles/trailers?

a. Steel banding and steel chains.


b. Tie-down straps and bungee cords.


c. Chains/binders, cargo nets, and tie-down straps.


d. Chains/ratchets, heavy tarps, and tie-down straps.

c

62. (024) When is it permissible to transport explosives in privately owned vehicles (POV)?

a. Never.


b. During contingency operations only.


c. When given approval from the squadron commander.


d. Only for movements beginning and ending within the munitions storage area.

a

63. (024) What is the primary focus when designating primary and alternate explosives movement routes?

a. Use the most covert possible routes.


b. Use the securest possible routes.


c. Use the fastest possible routes.


d. Use the safest possible routes.

d

64. (025) What source is best used to determine the explosive hazard class/division of a specific munitions item?

a. TO 11A–1–46.


b. TO 11A–1–63.


c. AFMAN 91–201.


d. Joint Hazard Classification System (JHCS).

d

65. (026) What should you do if a conflict is discovered while using TO 11–1–38 between the illustrations and the written procedures?

a. Follow the illustrations.


b. Follow the written procedures.


c. Make a command decision and choose one.


d. Put the operation on hold until a TO change is received.

b

66. (026) Even though TO 11–1–38 has its own safety section, what other publication should you reference for safely transporting explosive items on base?

a. TO 11A–1–1.


b. TO 11A–1–10.


c. TO 11A–1–63.


d. AFMAN 91–201.

d

67. (026) What type of information is given in the general notes on the first card of each trailer and weapon-type section in TO 11–1–38 and is required to be reviewed?

a. Illustrations for each trailer configuration.


b. Equipment and quantity required for each trailer.


c. Equipment and quantity required for each trailer and weapon.


d. WARNINGS, CAUTIONS, and NOTES pertaining to each trailer and weapon.

d

68. (026) If you cannot fully close the load-binder handle by hand,

a. use a forklift to close the handle.


b. use a cheater bar to close the handle.


c. adjust the load-binder hooks on the chain.


d. replace the load binder with a newer one that’s not rusted.

c

69. (026) What chapter of TO 11–1–38 covers configuration of the MHU–141 munitions trailer?

a. One.


b. Two.


c. Three.


d. Four.

a

70. (026) What piece of equipment must be used with the MHU–110 to prevent the trailer from becoming unstable while using the rail extenders for loading or unloading heavy munitions?

a. Longitudinal trolley.


b. Cradle assembly.


c. Stabilizer jack.


d. M10 adapter.

c

71. (026) What can be constructed and attached to the bed of a 40-foot trailer to facilitate support of rounded munitions?

a. Universal chock assembly.


b. Wooden rail sets.


c. Iron rail sets.


d. Bomb rack.

b

72. (027) What provides an itemized list of all equipment authorized for use with nuclear weapons?

a. Master nuclear certification list.


b. Unit committed munitions list.


c. TO 11A–1–63.


d. TO 11–1–38.

a

73. (027) Once verified that an item is nuclear certified, how is it identified as such?

a. Positive identification by a stamp, stencil, or etching.


b. Item will be stamped “NUCLEAR CERTIFIED” in black ink.


c. Item will be stenciled “NUCLEAR CERTIFIED” in black paint.


d. Positive identification by a nameplate, label, appropriate markings, or by official documents.

d

74. (027) Which statement about pintle hooks and their use in operations with nuclear weapons is correct?

a. Original equipment pintle hook assemblies are authorized.


b. Front mounted pintle hooks are only authorized for towing on the flight line.


c. Off-center rear of vehicle pintle hooks can be used as long as both sides are used.


d. Replacement pintle hooks can be procured and installed per local operating instructions.

a

75. (027) Which items do not require nuclear safety certification for use in operations with nuclear weapons?

a. Combat delivery vehicles.


b. General-purpose hand tools.


c. Noncombat delivery vehicles.


d. Equipment used to transport nuclear weapons.

b

76. (028) When should you replace a nuclear certified MB–1 tie-down/chain assembly item?

a. Every 10 years.


b. Every 25 years.


c. Only when the item no longer functions.


d. After finding any cracks, bent/worn parts, or excessive corrosion.

d

77. (028) Which action is not an authorized method for securing loose lengths of chain when using the MB–1 tie-down device/chain assembly?

a. Loop the excess chain around the chain itself; secure with durable adhesive tape.


b. Loop the excess chain around the chain itself; secure with an electrical bundle tie.


c. Wrap the loose ends around the tie-down device and secure to the quick-release lever.


d. Wrap the loose ends around a container tie-down point; secure with an electrical bundle tie.

c

78. (028) When using a load binder for securing a load, what is the main reason for not using a cheater bar or extension tool to fully close the handle?

a. It would place too much pressure on the load and/or tie-down points.


b. Fingers could get pinched between the tool and the load binder.


c. There is no written guidance for this procedure.


d. Not an authorized tool.

a

79. (028) When specifically authorized for transporting nuclear weapons and materiel, how many CGU–1/B tie-down straps need to be used as a substitute for every one MB–1 tie-down assembly?

a. 1.


b. 2.


c. 3.


d. 4.

b

80. (029) What are the key factors to consider during a nuclear weapons movement?

a. Time and money.


b. Safety and security.


c. People and equipment.


d. People and the mode of transportation.

b

81. (029) Which area is designated as a location used temporarily during a delay of an off-base movement involving nuclear weapons?

a. No-lone zone.


b. High Security.


c. Close-in security.


d. National defense.

d

82. (029) What code word is used when a Department of Energy (DOE) convoy seeks sanctuary during an emergency?

a. Bent Spear.


b. Safe Haven.


c. Empty Quiver.


d. Covered Wagon.

b

83. (029) In regards to ground transportation, when are nuclear weapons moved by convoy?

a. When on base or within the confines of a military installation only.


b. When off base and traveling over state highways only.


c. Only when more than one weapon is being moved.


d. Every time weapons are moved.

d

84. (029) What is the most difficult job for escort guards during a convoy?

a. Keeping other vehicles from entering the convoy.


b. Maintaining the proper speed required in a convoy.


c. Keeping the proper distance from the security forces.


d. Identifying the correct checkpoints along the convoy route.

a