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94 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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what is mononucleosis characterized by?

an increase in mononuclear leukocytes



sx: fatigue, fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy

what is the etiologic agent for mononucleosis? what does it have an affinity for?

EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus)


(dsDNA herpes virus, spread by oral contact)



w/ an affinity for B-lymphocytes

what would you see on a CBC differential of someone diagnosed w/ mononucleosis?

increase in lymphocytes


(10-20% reactive/atypical T lymphocytes*)



(NOT monocytes)

what does the reactive (atypical) lymph in infectious mononucleosis look like?

-t-cells w/ abundant cytoplasm;


-chromatin not as dense as resting lymphocyte.


-Blueing around the edges of the cytoplasm (blue skirt effect) 


-hugging the RBCs

-t-cells w/ abundant cytoplasm;


-chromatin not as dense as resting lymphocyte.


-Blueing around the edges of the cytoplasm (blue skirt effect)


-hugging the RBCs

what two types of lymphocytes can you see on blood smear that is indicative of mononucleosis?

reactive T lymphs & degenerated B lymph (smudge cells)(arrow)

reactive T lymphs & degenerated B lymph (smudge cells)(arrow)

How does EBV (infectious mononucleosis) cause infection?

EBV attaches to epithelium (pharyngitis)-->


gets into lymph & blood stream-->


infects B cells-->


Some B cells become activated plasma cells, while others remain latent-->


infected plasma cells produce normal Abs & heterophile Abs-->


T cells respond to infection-->


T cells lyse infected plasma cells, latent cell become immortal (T cells do not attack)

Infected plasma cells produce, heterophile, EBV, & autoantibodies. What are the EBV antibodies associated with infectious mononucleosis? (4)

EBV-VCA (IgM),


EBV-VCA (IgG),


EBNA,


EBV-EA

Heterophile Abs react w/ Ags from different species, including bovine erythrocytes but NOT ______________


This is the basis for what test?

NOT to guinea pig kidney cells



Monospot (rapid slide differential test for mono)

when do you use the viral capsid antigens (VCA) test?

when infectious mononucleosis is suspected, but the heterophile antibody test is negative


(esp in children under 10)



--> detects presence of EBV-VCA (IgM & IgG)

In IM, when do you normally see the EBV-VCA (IgM) antibody? what does it indicate?

during the 1st week of infection


best indicator of current infection

In IM, when do you normally see the EBV-VCA (IgG) antibody? what does it indicate?

about 7 days after exposure indicating either current or past infection.

In IM, when do you normally see the EBNA antibody? what does it indicate?

appears late in 1st month of infection and persists indefinitely; indicates past infection

In IM, what is EBV-EA's indicative of?

EBV-carrier state
what is the first test you do in someone that you suspect has infectious mononucleosis?

heterophil antibody test



If heterophile (-) & VCA (+) pt may have non-heterophile producing IM. If both heterophile (-) & VCA (-) what is the likely reason?

pt has CMV mononucleosis



(NOT infectious mononucleosis (IM))

what happens when the EBV incorporates its genome into host cell DNA w/o activating the B cell?


what is potential outcome of this?

it establishes a latent infection--> transforms B-cells into immortal, constantly dividing cells (potentially causing cancer)

what virus is associated w/ causing Burkitt's lymphoma?

EBV--genome detected in tumor cells



(EBNA transforms B-cells into immortal lymphocytes= lymphoma)

what is the vector for yellow fever AND dengue fever?

mosquitos (aedes aegypti)



(live in still shallow water pools)



(both are also +ssRNA, icosahedral capsid, flavavirus family)

where does the yellow fever virus replicate inside of the body?

liver

How many phases are involved in yellow fever? what does each phase entail?

3 phase:


1) slight fever, headache, muscle aches. (3-6 days)


2) remission,


3) delirium, seizures, coma, jaundice "yellow jack", and massive intestinal hemmorrhage "black vomit"

how many phases are involved in dengue fever? what does each phase entail?

2 phases:


1) Fever, severe pain in the head and muscles "breakbone fever"


( remission - 24 hrs)


2) return of the fever and a bright red rash.

how many strains are there of dengue virus?
4

Dengue fever is usually self-limiting UNLESS what?


reinfected



refinfection--> dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF)


--> internal bleeding, shock, death

what can cause fungemia?

complications due to venous or arterial catherization

what populations are most at risk for developing fungemia?

AIDS/ immunocompromised; pts on antimicrobial therapy, radiation, antineoplastic drugs. (transplant pts, IV drug users)



(failed immune hosts)

what type of endocarditis are IV drug users prone to?


what is the most common cause?

candida endocarditis; candida albicans

candidemia is associated with significant ______ and _____ rates.

morbidity, mortality


(up to 75%)



*4th most common nosocomial disease



(give all pts candidemia tx)

Which Candida sp.?


MOST common-


adults-


pediatrics-


bone marrow transplant-

MOST common- C albicans


adults- C. tropicalis & C. glabrata


pediatrics- C. parapsilosis


bone marrow transplant- C. krusei

what are the four overlapping forms of invasive candidiasis?

catheter related candidemia,


acute disseminated candidiasis,


chronic disseminated candidiasis,


deep organ candidiasis

what is primary infection of catheter-related candidemia?

is on the catheter or related to the fibrin clot which forms on the catheter (focal point)



(seeding of biofilm may occur & cause hematogenous spread)

where does acute disseminated candidiasis originate from?

contaminated catheter



(spreads from focal point to multiple organs)

what is another name for chronic desseminated candidiasis? when does it occur?

hepatosplenic candidiasis;



exclusively occurs following prolonged episodes of bone marrow dysfunction and neutropenia (leukemia tx)

What is the ONLY manifestation of deep organ candidiasis?

focal infection of a specific organ

name which disseminated form of fungi causes these infections:
1) Pericardium
2) myocarditis, pericarditis, endocarditis
3) lymphadenitis, endocarditis

1) coccidioidomycosis (coccidioides immitus)
2) Crytococcosis (cryptococcus neoformans)
3) Histoplasmosis (Histoplasma capsulatum)

what is the infectious phase of malaria?

the production of sporozoites that migrate from the gut to the salivary glands of the anopheles mosquito

in malaria, where do the sporozoites invade inside of the human and what do they replicate into?

liver cells; replicate many times into merozoites & infect RBCs

what happens to the RBCs in malaria when they are invaded by merozoites?

the merozoites continue to replicate and lyse the RBCs and invade other RBCs, some develop into m & f gametes

what parasite causes the most severe form of malaria?


what makes it the most severe?

plasmodium falciparum;


the parasite infects all erythrocytes any phase of an erythrocytic life cycle--> rigid RBC membrane

what two parasites cause relapsing malaria? how does this happen?

plasmodium vivax, and ovale;



after tx, tx-resistant parasites reside dormant in the liver and later multiply in an exoerythrocytic cycle eventually invading RBCs and beginning a typical erythrocytic cycle.

what is a complication of recurrent malarial infections?
can cause severe anemia
which plasmodium produces long-lasting infections and is most often asymptomatic?
plasmodium malariae

why are the clinical manifestations of malaria delayed?

7-30 day incubation period



also due to prophylaxis txs (delay weeks- months)

what is a key indicator of malaria found on a peripheral blood smear?



what stains are used?

schuffner's dots- small purplish red granules found in RBCs (plasmodium vivax)


 


wright (img) & giemsa stain

schuffner's dots- small purplish red granules found in RBCs (plasmodium vivax)



wright (img) & giemsa stain

what are the physical findings of malaria?



what physical findings are specific to P. falciparum?

elevated temp, weakness, enlarged spleen (due to abnormal RBCs)



P. falciparum: mild jaundice, heptomegaly, inc respiration rate

what lab results are indicative of malaria, particularly malaria caused by P. falciparum?

mild anemia,


thrombocytopenia,


elevated bilirubin, aminotransferases (liver enzymes)


albuminuria, urinary casts

what are some complications of severe malaria?

-cerebral malaria** (abnormal behavior, coma, seizure)


-severe anemia, hemoglobinuria


-pulmonary edema,


-abnormal blood coags, thrombocytopenia


-Cardiovascular collapse, acute kidney failure,


-hypoglycemia & metabolic acidosis


-hyperparasitemia (>5% RBCs infected)

what are the four ways that you can diagnose malaria?

microscopic blood smear w/ wright/giemsa


antigen detection (malaria RDTs, rapid test)


molecular diagnosis (PCR)


serology (IFA, ELISA)

Gold standard laboratory confirmation for malaria

Microscopic blood smear stained w/ giemsa, wrights

Microscopic blood smear stained w/ giemsa, wrights

what are the four groups of individuals who have resistance to malaria? why?

sickle-cell: erythrocyte membrane is abnormal and becomes stiff under low oxygen tension making them resistant to plasmodium sp infection
hemoglobin C: homozygous (mechanism unknown)
G6DPH deficiency: doesn't allow trophozoites to replicate intracellularly
lack of blood antigens Duffy A and Duffy B: plasmodium parasite requires the Duffy antigen as the receptor site.

what population generally has a lack of blood antigens, duffy A and Duffy B?

african americans

what do the parasites in babesiosis invade and induce?

invade RBCs and induce a febrile dz (hemolytic anemia, hemoglobinuria, shock, death)

what are the 2 species responsible for the majority of human infections in babesiosis?


what are the 2 hosts?


which one is the vector?

responsible: Babesia microti (mouse) & divergens (cattle)



Hosts: white footed mouse (perymuscus) & deer tick (ixodes)



Vector: tick


T/F

in babesiosis humans are accidental hosts and humans are considered dead end hosts because they cannot transfer from human to human.

true

except in blood transfusions

where does babesiosis regionally occur?

coastal areas of NE US, offshore islands of NY and massachusetts

what are the two ways in which you can diagnose babesiosis?


which one is used just as a confirmatory test?

direct blood smears and IFA (confirmatory)

what does a direct blood smear of babesiosis look like?
tetrad formation- parasites in RBCs.

tetrad formation- parasites in RBCs.

what other disease has the same vector as babesiosis?

lyme

how are individuals infected with schistosomiasis "blood flukes"?

through contaminated water;

what form of schistosomiasis infects humans?

cercariae



(penetrates skin "swimmers itch" & enters venous system--> heart & portal circulation)

which schistoma sp. has a prediliction for the bladder?


which two are found in fecal matter?

bladder: S. hematobium
fecal: S. japonicum and S.mansoni

what are the organs infected by schistosomiasis? what does it cause?

organs:
a) skin: swimmers itch
b) bladder: granulomatous lesions, hematuria, and urethral occlusions
c) intestines: polyp formation
d) liver: eggs cause hepatomegaly (d/t periportal fibrosis and portal HTN)
e) NS: headaches, disorientation, amnesia, coma
f) heart: arteriolitis and fibrosis --> enlargement and failure of right ventricle.

what is a key diagnostic find for schistosomiasis?

eosinophilia 

eosinophilia

what two types of schistoma cause katayama's fever (fever, cough, abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, hepatosplenomegaly, & eosinophila)?

S. mansoni and S. japonicum

what type of schistoma can can CNS lesions by depositing eggs in the brain?


what about in the spinal cord?

brain: japonicum
SC: mansoni, haematobium

what are the two host immune responses to schistosomiasis?
IgE and eosinophil-mediated cytotoxicity

how do you diagnose schistosomiasis?


which sp. can you find in the urine?

microscopy (stool and urine), and antibody detection.

Urine--> S. hematobium

microscopy (stool and urine), and antibody detection.
Urine--> S. hematobium

what causes chagas disease?


chronic form of african sleeping sickness? acute african sleeping sickness?

trypanosoma cruzi;


trypanosoma brucei gambiense;


trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

what does chagas's disease primarily affect?


NS and heart

what can chronic infections of trypanosoma cruzi cause?



what vectors spread it?

dementia, damage to heart muscle and death;



Triatomine (reduviid) "kissing bugs"


(variety of kinds^)

what regions can you find chagas disease?

central and south america



(triatomine bugs live in mud, etc that poor ppl make their home out of in these countries)

how do kissing bugs infect human hosts?

the bugs poop on your face (usually when sleeping) & sometimes directly into eyes. Then you rub the infected fecal material into your eyes, mouth or open cuts. Or by eating uncooked food contaminated by that fecal material.

what sign is closely associated with the acute stage of chagas's disease?

romana's sign: eye on one side swollen


 


(brain damage & death may also occur in infants & young children)

romana's sign: eye on one side swollen



(brain damage & death may also occur in infants & young children)

how many stages are associated with chagas's disease? what are they?

3;
1) acute phase: romana's sign
2) indeterminate stage: asymptomatic (8-10 weeks after infection)
3) chronic stage: cardiac problems, enlargment of esophagus or large bowl (10-40 yrs after infection) (sometimes no symptoms)

T/F

Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is a rapidly progressing dz.

false

trypanosoma brucei RHODESIENSE (acute african sleeping sickness) is rapidly progressing (R=R)... Trypanosoma brucei GAMBIENSE (chronic african sleeping sickness) is slow-progressing

what are kinetoplastids?

what are kinetoplastids?

trypanosome organelles w/ mitochondrial DNA, easily immunoflouresecent labelled

trypanosome organelles w/ mitochondrial DNA, easily immunoflouresecent labelled

what is the life cycle of african sleeping sickness?

Metacyclic trypomastigotes (MT) -->


Long slender (LS) -->


Short Stumpy (SS) -->


Procyclic trypamastigoes (PT) -->


epimastigotes (E)



(many types makes it hard for immune system to respond= cyclic symptoms)

which phase of the life cycle of african sleeping sickness resides in salivary glands?



in what insect does the African sleeping sickness reside (vector)?

metacyclic trypomastigotes--



vector= tsetse fly (Glossina)

how do the trypomastigoes of the african sleeping sickness elude the immune system?

via antigenic variance (long slender, short stumpy stages)

where are procyclic trypomastigotes develop in african sleeping sickness?

in the gut

in the gut

what is the hallmark of african sleeping sickness?



Disease progression

invasion of the CNS-- NS impairment (crosses BBB- meningoencephalitis-fatigue during day & agitation at night-coma/death);



incubation (possible chancre)-->


acute blood stage infection (fever, headache)-->


lymph invasion (weight loss, fever, rash, itch)-->


relapse

why do relapses occur in african sleeping sickness?

d/t antigenic variation of trypanosomal surface--> life cycle exhibits different morphologies

d/t antigenic variation of trypanosomal surface--> life cycle exhibits different morphologies

what vector transmits leishmaniasis?



what parasite causes this?

vector= sandflies (phlebotomus)



leshmania donovani

where are the amastigote (kala-azar) forms of leishmaniasis found?

in reticuloendothelial cells of the viscera


(spleen, lymph nodes, liver, intestines)

what are the sxs of leishmaniasis?

low grade fever,


anemia,


protrusion of abdomen d/t enlargement of spleen and liver,


edema,


bleeding mucus membranes,


breathing difficulties


diarrhea

what are the possible complications of leishmaniasis?

post kala-azar dermal lesihmanoid,


badly disfigured face


DEATH (if untreated, w/i 2-3 yrs)

post kala-azar dermal lesihmanoid,


badly disfigured face


DEATH (if untreated, w/i 2-3 yrs)

what is the diagnostic phase of the leishmaniasis life cycle?

amastigotes w/i macrophages in the various organs


 


amastigotes =  intracellular LD bodies (Leshmania donovani)

amastigotes w/i macrophages in the various organs



amastigotes = intracellular LD bodies (Leshmania donovani)

what is the geographical distribution of visceral leishmaniasis?
south america (mostly), some africa and Mediterranean.

what is caused by infections w/ nematodes?

filariasis (roundworms)

what three species are responsible for most of the morbidity due to filariasis?

wuchereria bancrofti, (lymphatic filariasis)


brugia malayi, (lymphatic filariasis)


onchocerca volvulus (river blindness)

what two parasites infiltrate the subcutaneous tissues?


lymphatics?

subQ: onchocerca volvulus, loa loa



lymphatics: brugia malayi, wuchereria bancrofti



(*onchocerca also migrate to eyes & can be seen there)

Filarial life cycle



where do microfilariae develop into larvae?

Mosquito bites human & ingest microfilariae-->


microfilariae develop into larvae-->


Mosquito bites human & deposits larvae-->


larvae migrate to lymph vessels-->


larvae mature in worms (filariae causing lymph blockage (elephantaiasis)



in arthropod (mosquito) = vector

what are the clinical manifestations of lymphatic filariasis?

asymptomatic microfilaremia,


lymphadema,


elphantiasis,


febrile lymphagitis & lymphadenitus

asymptomatic microfilaremia,


lymphadema,


elphantiasis,


febrile lymphagitis & lymphadenitus

what cell type of prominent in filarial infections?
eosinophils

what are the three diagnostic techniques that we can use for filariasis?

-microscopic examination (most common, need periodic blood collection due to fast life-cycle or skin snips to identify microfilariae)



-antigen detection (beneficial if small amount of organism in blood stream)



-antibody detection (not very accurate)