2014 Hm3 Advancement Exam

Front 1

All message MER's must be identified by what report control symbol in the subject line?

Back 1

MED 6220-3

Front 2

In an operational unit must send an urgent MER by message, it should be sent as what classification?

Back 2

Unclassified

Front 3

Commanding Officer, NAVENVIRHLTHCEN shall validate, on what basis, a sample of MER's as directed by NAVENVIRHLTHCEN?

Back 3

Annually

Front 4

Who shall perform global medical event surveillance and monitoring of reportable medical events?

Back 4

Commanding Officer,NAVENNIRHLTHCEN

Front 5

What must be submitted by the medical department of the command with primary responsibility for the health of the affected individual?

Back 5

MER

Front 6

NAVENPVNTMEDUs will submit routine reports toNAVENVIRHLTHCEN no later than what day of each month?

Back 6

15?

Front 7

Who shall maintain an effective command medical event surveillance program?

Back 7

Commanding officers

Front 8

Commanding officers shall submit what type of naval message when a medical event may attract high level Navy interest or affect operation readiness?

Back 8

OPREP-3 Navy Blue

Front 9

NAVENPVTNTMEDU's must keep all MER's on file for how many years?

Back 9

Five

Front 10

A successful communicable disease and injury control program depends on what of suspected or confirmed cases?

Back 10

Early notification

Front 11

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) reporting is not performed using MER. HIV infections should be reported to whom and to appropriate state authorities?

Back 11

BUMED

Front 12

After local confirmation of Malaria and in the absence of confirmation capability, forward what to the nearest NAVENPVNTMEDU for confirmation following local interpretation?

Back 12

Smears

Front 13

Reports are submitted electronically via internet or by mailing a what to the cognizant NAVENPVNTMEDU?

Back 13

3.5 diskette

Front 14

What a reportable medical event is suspected or confirmed, unit senior medical department representatives shall submit MER's using what system?

Back 14

Naval Disease Reporting System (NDRS)

Front 15

A suspected outbreak occurring among military personnel is considered an urgent reportable medical event and must be reported within what time frame to the cognizant NAVENPVNTMEDU by whatever means available?

Back 15

24 hours

Front 16

Most reportable medical events are routine, and must be submitted no later than the what day of each month to the cognizant NAVENPVNTMEDU?

Back 16

1st

Front 17

The Medical Event Reports replaced which Report?

Back 17

Disease Alert

Front 18

What will be submitted for specific medical events that include selected communicable diseases, injuries, and outbreaks?

Back 18

MER's

Front 19

What is MER's short for?

Back 19

Medical Event Reports

Front 20

Seemingly unrelated cases of disease and injury occurring on differnet ships or stations may be medically significant when viewed on what basis?

Back 20

Regional

Front 21

What is defined as a communicable condition with a suspected common source, or which occurs in one or more clusters among personnel in a particular location , work center, berthing compartment, day care, or involving more than an expected number of individuals?

Back 21

A reportable outbreak

Front 22

What software program is the preferred method of reporting?

Back 22

NDRS

Front 23

NAVENPVNTMEDUs will submit urgent reports to NAVENVIRHLTHCEN no later than how many fours after receipt?

Back 23

24 hours

Front 24

Medical event disease surveillance is particularly important in military populations where medical events can have what type of effects?

Back 24

Mission-degrading

Front 25

In situations when timeliness is critical, what method of reporting with follow on correspondence to the cognizant NAVENPVNTMEDU is acceptable?

Back 25

Direct telephone or E-Mail

Front 26

Who is the primary action addressee on MER's?

Back 26

Cognizant NAVENPVNTMEDU

Front 27

in general, to minimize injection-site discomfort, not more than how many vaccine injections will be given on the same day?

Back 27

5

Front 28

What for is prepared upon request for each member of the Armed Forces and for nonmilitary personnel receiving immunizations, including date, immunization given, dose, and initials of person administering. The for contains valid certificates of immunization for international travel and quarantine purposes in accordance with WHO international health regulations?

Back 28

PHS Form 731

Front 29

for military personnel, civilian employees, and other health care beneficiaries, the DOD-approved what is the preferred record for immunization data, including date immunization given, dose, and identification of the person administering?

Back 29

Electronic immunization tracking systems

Front 30

What will not be used beyond the manufacturer's potency expiration date, unless the appropriate surgeon general or CG-11, USCG authorizes extension in exceptional circumstances?

Back 30

Immunizing agents

Front 31

Who will prescribe specific immunization and chemoprophylatic requirements for their units per requirements established by this publication and additional guidance provided by the appropriate surgeon general or United States Coast Guard (USCG), Goast Guard, Director of Health and Safety (CG-11)?

Back 31

Command medical authority

Front 32

There are 2 types of exemptions form immunizations. What are they?

Back 32

Medical and Administrative

Front 33

Recommended immunization schedules will not be what?

Back 33

Compressed

Front 34

Entries based on prior official records will include what following statement?

Back 34

"Transcribed from official records."

Front 35

Breastfeeding women may be immunized in accordance with what current guidelines?

Back 35

ACIP guidelines

Front 36

the DOD policy concerning immunizations follows the recommendations of who and the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), unless there is a militarily relevant reason to do otherwise?

Back 36

CDC

Front 37

What does ACIP stand for?

Back 37

Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices

Front 38

Air Force: military members with permanent medical exemptions require a medical evaluation board and/or a flying waiver in accordance with what instruction?

Back 38

AFI 48-123

Front 39

Permanent exemptions for religious reasons will not be granted in what branch?

Back 39

Air Force

Front 40

Electronic ITS must incorporate DOD-directed levels of security, certification, and redundancy, and the requirements of what act to preclude unauthorized access to personal medical information and to survive hardware or software malfunction?

Back 40

Health Insurance Portability and Privacy Act of 1986

Front 41

Exemptions apply to civilian employees and contractor personnel who will leave a position subject to immunization how may days or less?

Back 41

30

Front 42

The DOD and SUCG withdrew needle-free multi-use nozzle jet injectors (MUNJIs) capable of 600 or mor injections per hour, formerly identified within DOD supply systems as "hypodermic injection apparatus jet automatic: 115 volt or foot operated," in what year due to safety concerns?

Back 42

1997

Front 43

With regard to smallpox (vaccinia) vaccine, a specific pre-immunization screening form that assesses the date of the last menstrual period is required. For women whose last menstrual period was more than how many days, a pregnancy test is recommended?

Back 43

28

Front 44

What agents are requisitioned in accordance with medical supply procedures?

Back 44

Immunizing and chemoprophylaxis

Front 45

A printed report form the electronic ITS, in PHS Form 731, SF 601 (Health Record Immunization Record), or DD Form 2766C format, accompanied by an official clinic stamp and the authorized signature and printed name of an authenticating official, will qualify as what type of immunization record?

Back 45

Official paper

Front 46

Whenever vaccines are administered, at least how many people must be trained and current in basic Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation, oral pharyngeal airway management, and recognition and initial treatment of anaphylaxis with epinephrine.

Back 46

1

Front 47

Cases warranting what type of medical exemption due to a vaccine-related adverse event will be reported to the Vaccine Adverse Events Reporting System (VAERS)?

Back 47

Permanent

Front 48

What licensed by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) or the department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) may be used, as well as immunizing agents compliant with applicable DOD investigational new drug (IND) or emergency use authorization (EUA) process?

Back 48

Any immunizing agent

Front 49

For Service personnel, immunization exemptions for religious reasons may be granted according to Service-specific policies to accommodate doctrinal religious beliefs. Whose decision is this ultimately?

Back 49

Command decision made with medical and chaplain advice

Front 50

Immunizations given at an internal shorter than the recommended interval may not provide adequate immune response and should not be counted as part of a primary series, unless part of what schedules accepted by the CDC?

Back 50

Catchup

Front 51

Within how many days before separation or retirement, Service personnel may be exempt from deployment (mobility) immunizations if certain conditions are met?

Back 51

180 days

Front 52

Live-virus immunizations typically are given simultaneously or at an interval of how many or more weeks?

Back 52

4 weeks

Front 53

Enlisted accessions may be scheduled for immunizations in how many or more clusters, as long as all appropriate immunizations are administered?

Back 53

Two

Front 54

Yellow fever immunization is required for all Marine Corps personnel and for all Navy personnel assigned to Marine Operation Forces. Additionally, yellow fever immunization in required for Navy personnel assigned to Navy units subject to deployment within how many days of notification into land areas where yellow fever is endemic?

Back 54

10 days

Front 55

What have been shown to increase survival when used after exposure to anthrax and before onset of symptoms?

Back 55

Antibiotics

Front 56

Health care personnel must report adverse events resulting in hospitalization, a life-threatening event, time lost from duty more than how many hours, an event related to suspected contamination of a vaccine vial, and an event warranting permanent medical exemption (that is, a contraindicating event)?

Back 56

24 hours

Front 57

In what year did the WHO declare the global eradication of naturally occurring smallpox?

Back 57

1980

Front 58

The ACIP general recommendations suggest that persons be observed for how many minutes after being immunized?

Back 58

15-20 minutes

Front 59

Who will receive country-specific immunizations without charge at military activities upon presentation of official orders or authorization?

Back 59

Federal civilian employees

Front 60

In general, the FDA may grant an EUA for up to how many months, with potential renewal?

Back 60

12 months

Front 61

In accordance with what instruction, emergency-essential employees will be notified that they may be required to take immunizations as a condition of employment?

Back 61

DODD 1404.10

Front 62

Japanese encephalitis, is a viral disease of what type? During deployments and travel to endemic areal in Eastern Asia and certain western Pacific Islands. Japanese encephalitis virus can cause an acute infection of the brain, spinal cord, and meninges with high rates of complications, chronic disability, and death.

Back 62

Mosquito borne

Front 63

What is acquired by person-to-person transmission through the fecal-oral route?

Back 63

Poliomyelitis

Front 64

What is spread by the bite of infective larval mites and may be a source of morbidity in populations encountering primitive field conditions?

Back 64

Scrub typhus

Front 65

A vaccine, antibiotic, or other product in an IND status may not be mandatory for military members, if who has approve a waiver of the requirement for informed consent.

Back 65

President of the United States

Front 66

What causative agent of plague has been identified as a potential biological warfare agent?

Back 66

Yersinia pestis

Front 67

Combatant commanders must request approval from who to use Investigational New Drugs for force health protection?

Back 67

Secretary of Defense

Front 68

Military treatment facilities and commands will conduct a review of the adequacy of immunization coverage among supported populations at least how often?

Back 68

Annually

Front 69

What is almost uniformly fatal once symptoms develop?

Back 69

Inhalational anthrax

Front 70

Who may decide that potential recipients of a drug under an EUA should have the option to refuse? The President may waive this option for military personnel.

Back 70

FDA

Front 71

Immunization of civilian employees and contracted workers for biological warfare defense are addressed in what instruction?

Back 71

DODI 6205.4

Front 72

Hepatitis B, is an acute or potentially chronic infection of the what? Acquired through percutaneous, sexual, and other permucosal exposure to blood and body fluids form people infected with the hepatitis B virus.

Back 72

Liver

Front 73

Hepatitis A, is an acute infection of the what? Acquired by consuming food or water contaminated with the hepatitis A virus during deployment or travel to areas with poor food, water and sewage sanitation. Hepatitis A is endemic worldwide.

Back 73

Liver

Front 74

Influenza A and B, are acute viral infections of what type? That can cause epidemics within military population, especially under condition of crowding, such as initial entry training, aboard ship, extended air transport, or deployment settings. Influenza A has the potential for pandemic spread.

Back 74

Febrile respiratory

Front 75

What is an acute illness caused by an exotoxin of Clostridium tetani, a bacteria that grows at the site of wounds contaminated with its spores?

Back 75

Tetanus

Front 76

Aviation personnel typically will be grounded for how many hours after immunization, or as specified by their flight surgeon?

Back 76

12 hours

Front 77

Under what section of the Food Drug and Cosmetic Act (21 USC 360), some drugs, vaccines, or devices that have not been approved or licensed by the FDA through the regular drug approval process (or not approved for an intended use) may be used as medical countermeasures to chemical , biological, radiological, or nuclear (CMRNE) agents or threats if the FDA grants an emergency use authorization (EUA)?

Back 77

Section 564

Front 78

What does EUA stand for?

Back 78

Emergency Use Authorization

Front 79

Within how many days of receiving the validated and prioritized biological warfare threat list for the Chairman of the Joint Chefs of Staff, the DOD Executive Agent, in consultation with the Secretaries of the military departments and the President of the Armed Forces Epidemiological Board, provides recommendations to the ASD(HA) on vaccines and immunization protocols necessary to enhance protection against validated biological warfare treat agents?

Back 79

30 days

Front 80

Military treatment facilities and commands storing health records will review immunization and chemoprophylaxis practices at least how often to ensure compliance with current standards of care and documentation and as a measure of medical readiness and health promotion?

Back 80

Annually

Front 81

When what FDA-licensed vaccines are available, administer to military basic trainees as they arrive to prevent febrile respiratory disease outbreaks resulting from person-to-person transmission, and lost training time?

Back 81

Adenovirus

Front 82

Typhoid and yellow fever immunizations are require for alert forces defined by Forces Command (FORSCOM) as division-ready brigades, including attached command and control packages, combat support packages, combat service support packages, and other units approved by the FORSCOM commander for what branch?

Back 82

Army

Front 83

Measles, mumps, and rubella Persons born in 1957 or earlier are presumed to be immune through infection. Ensure military personnel born after 1957 have received how many lifetime doses of MMR vaccine for have positive serologic test results?

Back 83

2 doses

Front 84

Administer JEV to military personnel, civilian personnel, contracted workers, and other beneficiaries who are or will be stations at least how many days in rural areas of Asia where there is substantial risk of exposure to the virus, especially during prolonged field operations at night?

Back 84

30 days

Front 85

Administer meningococcal vaccine to military personnel traveling for more than how many days to regions subject to meningococcal outbreaks, in not administered within an appropriate booster interval?

Back 85

15 days

Front 86

For effective steam sterilization for microbiological infectious waste, the temperature must be maintained at 250 degrees F for at least how many minutes, at 15 lbs per square inch of gauge pressure?

Back 86

90 minutes

Front 87

What type of evidence shows that infectious waste is no greater threat to the environment or public health than residential solid waste, medical facilities are perceived to be a source of pollution?

Back 87

Scientific

Front 88

What is liquid or solid waste containing pathogens in sufficient numbers and or sufficient virultence to cause infectious disease in susceptible hosts exposed to the waste?

Back 88

Infectious waste

Front 89

Logistic constraints may require doing what to anatomical pathology waste before final disposal?

Back 89

Freezing

Front 90

You should not transport infectious waste in what two methods?

Back 90

Chutes or dumbwaiters

Front 91

Infectious waste shall be sterilized and rendered noninfectious before doing what?

Back 91

Compacting and grinding

Front 92

Infectious waste treatment is achieved through destruction, such as by incineration, or through inactivation by heat, chemicals, or radiation without disintegrating the what?

Back 92

Cells

Front 93

Would Sharps, including hypodermic needles, syringes, scalpel blades, suture needles, pasteur pipettes, specimen slides, cover slips, glass petri plates, and broken glass be considered noninfectious or infectious waste?

Back 93

Infectious

Front 94

What considerations may dictate using alternate means of disposal of Anatomical pathology waste such as cremation or burial by a licensed mortician?

Back 94

Ethical

Front 95

All employees with occupational exposure to infectious waste shall receive training at the time of initial assignment to tasks and how often, thereafter?

Back 95

Annually

Front 96

What type of blood and other potentially infectious liquid waste which cannot be safely decanted or which has not been solidified shall be placed into rigid containers that are double-lined with plastic bags for transport and incineration?

Back 96

Bulk

Front 97

Whose approval is required before the purchase or lease of an infectious waste treatment system?

Back 97

Bureau of Medicine and Surgery

Front 98

Due to biological instability of most micro-organisms commonly regarded as human pathogens, the potential for adverse environmental or public health consequences is what?

Back 98

Negligible

Front 99

Blood, suctioned fluids, or other potentially infectious liquid waste may be decanted into what type of sinks, unless this practice is prohibited by State or local regulations?

Back 99

Clinical

Front 100

For removing blood and body fluid spills use an absorbent material and disinfect the area with an Environmental Protection Agency Approved disinfectant or a solution of household bleach diluted to what ration with clear water?

Back 100

1:10

Front 101

Would used personal hygiene products such as diapers, facial tissues, and sanitary napkins be considered infectious or noninfectious waste?

Back 101

Noninfectious

Front 102

Empty containers that used to contain blood and other potentially infectious liquid wastes shall be treated as noninfectious waste. True or False?

Back 102

False

Front 103

Which containers shall be lined with plastic bags of sufficient thickness, durability, puncture resistance, and burst strength to prevent rupture or leaks?

Back 103

Infectious waste

Front 104

Any new treatment techniques submitted for approval shall be acceptable to local regulating authorities, shall have scientific evidence of efficacy, and shall have successful use elsewhere for a minimum of how many years?

Back 104

2 years

Front 105

Separate infectious waste for noninfectious waste at what point?

Back 105

Point of orgin

Front 106

Commercially available absorbent materials which form a semirigid gel when added to liquids is called what?

Back 106

Gelatinization

Front 107

Waste from patient diagnosis, treatment, or immunization may be subdivided into two categories, what are they?

Back 107

Infectious and noninfectious

Front 108

If infectious waste cannot be treated on-site, limit storage without refrigeration to how many days, except in states with stricter requirements.

Back 108

7 days

Front 109

Which wastes, including human tissues and organs, amputated limbs or other body parts, fetuses, placentas, and similar tissues from surgery, delivery, or autopsy procedures are classified as infectious waste?

Back 109

Pathological

Front 110

Infectious waste shall be placed in containers labeled with the universal biohazard symbol and the word "BIOHAZARD" or be what in color?

Back 110

Red

Front 111

Exposure to infectious waste that could result in disease is more likely to occur in what settings that generate, transport, store, treat, or dispose of potentially infectious materials?

Back 111

Occupational

Front 112

What is the process of preventing the access of micro-organisms called?

Back 112

Asepsis

Front 113

What test is a diagnostic test of a prevacuum sterilizer's ability to remove air from the chamber and prevent air reentrant?

Back 113

Bowie-dick

Front 114

An infection originating in the environment of a hospital or freestanding dental treatment facility is a what?

Back 114

Nosocomial Infection

Front 115

What are chemical dyes are used to determine whether the conditions required for sterilization are met?

Back 115

Chemical indicators

Front 116

What is the number of micro-organisms contaminating an object and is sometimes also known as bioland or microbial load?

Back 116

Bioburden

Front 117

Commanding officers and officers in charge must develop and implement universal protocols of infection control strategies to prevent transmission of HBV and other pathogens of what type?

Back 117

Bloodborne pathogens

Front 118

What are equipment or methods which isolate or remove bloodborne pathogens from the workplace?

Back 118

Engineering controls

Front 119

Bacteria, fungi, viruses, and bacterial spores are classified as what?

Back 119

Micro-organisms

Front 120

A surgical entry into the tissus, cavities, organs, or repair of major traumatic injuries is what type of procedure?

Back 120

Invasive

Front 121

What items are instruments, equipment, or materials that do not normally penetrate or contact mucous membranes but which are exposed to splatter, spray, or splashing of blood, or are touched by contaminated hands?

Back 121

Noncritical

Front 122

HSS focuses on both forms of threat, what are they?

Back 122

Enemy and Health

Front 123

Who serves as the officer in charge of the medical section of the CSSOC during exercises or operations?

Back 123

HSSO

Front 124

What phrase has echoed across numerous battlefields in America's history. To answer this cry, medical personnel assigned to Marine Corps forces (MARFOR) must be knowledgeable, prepared, and able to provide responsive health service support (HSS)so that Marines can do what they do best: win battles/

Back 124

"Corpsman Up!

Front 125

HSS stands for what?

Back 125

Health Service Support

Front 126

What does HSSO stand for?

Back 126

Health Service Support Officer

Front 127

What is a fundamental component of command and control that aids the commander in applying combat power at the decisive time and place?

Back 127

Intelligence

Front 128

What warfare is derived from two principal sources: custom treaties and lawmaking treaties such as the Hague and Geneva Conventions?

Back 128

Law of Land

Front 129

What provides initial resuscitative HSS support to the MEF and is the only source of organic Marine Corps medical support above the aid station level?

Back 129

Medical Battalion

Front 130

What is a field production activity of the Defense Intelligence Agency? It is the sole producer of medical intelligence in the Department of Defense (DOD).

Back 130

Armed Forces Medical Intelligence Agency (AFMIA)

Front 131

What function of the medical plan must anticipate requirements for rapid movement of HSS units to support combat forces during operations?

Back 131

Mobility

Front 132

Which commanders are responsible for coordinating and integrating HSS within their area of operations?

Back 132

Marine Corps Forces (MARFOR)

Front 133

Temporary casualty holding facilities are used to hold sick, wounded, and injured personnel for a limited time, usually not to exceed what time frame?

Back 133

72 hours

Front 134

What function of the medical plan must provide HSS as close to combat operations as the tactical situation permits?

Back 134

Proximity

Front 135

The United States is a signatory to the Geneva Conventions of what year and has directed its military forces to abide by its articles?

Back 135

1949

Front 136

What is a process that delivers on demand to the warfighter a healthy, fit, and medically ready force; counters the health threat to the deployed force, and provides critical care and management for combat casualties?

Back 136

HSS

Front 137

What function of the medical plan must ensure that HSS resources in short supply are efficiently employed and used effectively to support the planned operations?

Back 137

Coordination

Front 138

What function of the medical plan must provide optimum, uninterrupted care and treatment to the wounded, injured, and sick?

Back 138

Continuity

Front 139

The MARFOR deals with matters more on the operational level of war, but the MEF is more focused toward what level?

Back 139

Tactical

Front 140

A MAW has how many Marine aircraft groups (MAGs)?

Back 140

Four

Front 141

Whose primary mission is to perform those emergency medical and surgical procedures that, if not performed, could lead to death or loss of limb or body function?

Back 141

Medical Battalions

Front 142

Each Surg Co contains 60 beds and how many operating rooms?

Back 142

3

Front 143

Who advises the commander on the health of the command and the adequacy of internal FSSG HSS?

Back 143

Group Surgeon

Front 144

What is often the first to receive medical intelligence from on-site care providers due to multiple communications and information links available to sections within the FSSG combat service support operations center (CSSOC)?

Back 144

Health Service Support Element (HSSE)

Front 145

What function of the medical plan must integrate and comply with the commander's plan?

Back 145

Conformity

Front 146

What function of the medical plan must shift HSS resources to meet changing requirements?

Back 146

Flexibility

Front 147

What requires continuous attention before, during, and after deployment to sustain maximum readiness and warfighting capability?

Back 147

Wellness

Front 148

Whose mission is to minimize the effects that wounds, injuries, and disease have on units' effectiveness, readiness, and morale?

Back 148

HSS

Front 149

The physical and chemical breakdown of the food we eat is called?

Back 149

Digestion

Front 150

In the microscopic examination of urine sediment, scan the slide using the low per objective and examine it in detail using which of the following objectives?

a) High Power

b) Oil Immersion

c) High Dry

d) Lower Power

Back 150

High Power

Front 151

To arrive at the number of RBCs per mm3, total the number of cells counted in the five fields and multiply by what?

Back 151

10,000.0

Front 152

Waste from patient diagnosis, treatment, or immunization may be subdivided into two categories, what are they?

Back 152

Infectious and noninfectious

Front 153

How often must inventory of controlled substances be conducted?

Back 153

Monthly

Front 154

Instructions for preparing and submitting th Medical Event Report can be found in which of the following publications?

a) NAVMED P-5010

b) NAVMED P-5038

c) Navy Supply Publication 486

d) SECNAVINST 4061.1

Back 154

NAVMED P-5038

Front 155

What drug incompatibility occurs when agents antagonistic to one another are prescribed together?

Back 155

Therapeutic

Front 156

All personnel must have a tuberculin skin test documented within what time period before separation from the naval service?

Back 156

One year

Front 157

The commanding officer of the transferring (parent) command will ensure service members complete medical assignment screenings no later than how many days after returning to duty following a period of medically restricted duty or a finding of "fit for continued Naval service"?

Back 157

15 days

Front 158

Personnel security investigations for the department of the Navy are normally conducted or controlled by which of the following organizations?

Back 158

Defense Investigative Service

Front 159

The Navy Environmental Health Center and its supporting activities establish and disseminate preventive medicine and environmental protection policy recommendations for whom?

Back 159

BUMED

Front 160

Under which of the following circumstances would a member's health record NOT be closed?

a) Transfers to the Fleet Reserve

b) Transfers to a new duty station

c) Declared missing in action

d) Placed on the retired list

Back 160

Transfers to a new duty station

Front 161

Duty performed in US land-based activities where service members are not required to be absent from their duty station in excess of 150 days per year is what type of duty?

Back 161

Type 1-Shore Duty

Front 162

For those service members failing suitability screening, attending physicians will conduct follow-up evaluations how often?

Back 162

Every 2 months

Front 163

All of the following are classifications of bacteria EXCEPT?

a)Temperature and moisture content

b) Gram's stain reaction and colonial morphology

c) Toxins produced and disease producing ability

d) Growth requirements and morphologic characteristics

Back 163

Temperature and moisture content

Front 164

Who serves as the principal senior enlisted advisor to Chief, BUMED?

Back 164

Force Master Chief

Front 165

Signature authority should be delegated to what level?

Back 165

Lowest legal and practical level

Front 166

What provide rapid peacetime response teams of pre-identified medical department personnel trained to augment elements of the operating forces?

Back 166

MMARTs

Front 167

The signs and symptoms of shock include?

Back 167

Cool and moist skin, dilated pupils, weak and rapid pulse

Front 168

Information requirements (reports) fall into one out of how many collection types?

Back 168

Four (4)

Front 169

Which of the following is NOT a way in which drugs are grouped?

a) By their brand names

b) By their source

c) By their characteristics

d) By their action on the body

Back 169

By their brand names

Front 170

For effective steam sterilization for microbiological infectious waste, the temperature must be maintained at 250 degrees F for at least how many minutes, at 15 lbs per square inch of gauge pressure?

Back 170

90 minutes

Front 171

What made from live attenuated mycobacteria strains are commonly used in some countries in an attempt to prevent vaccines from becoming infected with tuberculosis?

Back 171

BCG Vaccines

Front 172

What are pathogenic micro-organisms that are present in human blood and capable of causing disease in humans?

Back 172

Bloodborne pathogens

Front 173

Who exercises fiscal oversight of subordinate commands?

Back 173

Regional Commanders

Front 174

Limit using the SSN of a military member or civilian employee unless essential for identification and authorized for use by authority of which Executive Order?

Back 174

9397

Front 175

Some facsimile machines still use "Thermal Paper", which can deteriorate in as few as how many months?

Back 175

6 months

Front 176

Tuberculosis screenings are required for personnel in operational units and in units with a high risk for tuberculosis exposure or outbreaks how often?

Back 176

Annually

Front 177

Which Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) levels result in body heat buildup, reducing unit effectiveness?

Back 177

3 and 4

Front 178

The shipboard medical OPTAR may be used to purchase all of the following items EXCEPT?

a) Medical books and publications

b) Litters and stretchers

c) gun bags

d) x-ray units and film processors

Back 178

x-ray units and film processors

Front 179

The CO of the transferring command will ensure each service and family member is screened within how many days of receipt of transfer orders?

Back 179

30 days

Front 180

Persons infected with M. tuberculosis are in the what category if the person has symptoms, signs, radiographic, or laboratory evidence of pulmonary, meningeal, miliary, or extrapulmonary tuberculosis?

Back 180

Active disease

Front 181

What ship was the first warfare submarine?

Back 181

Turtle

Front 182

What is the authority that a military commander lawfully exercises over subordinates in assigning missions and expecting accountability for attainment?

Back 182

Inherent in command

Front 183

What is the mission of frigates?

Back 183

Open ocean escort and patrol

Front 184

In the communication process, listening is a critical skill and can be improved by developing which, if any, of the following attitudes and behaviors?

a) Anticipating what the patient will say

b) Minimizing distractions

c) Taking notes

d) None of the above

Back 184

Minimizing distractions

Front 185

About what percent of military members experience financial difficulty during their career?

Back 185

50%

Front 186

The MDRI for protein is easily met when protein intake comprises what percent of total energy, and energy intake is adequate?

Back 186

10 to 15 percent

Front 187

Detailed information concerning MMART can be found in what directive or manual?

Back 187

BUMEDINST 6440.6

Front 188

Of the following, which is an appropriate treatment for a protruding abdominal wound?

a) Giving oral fluids

b) Applying a dry compress

c) Treating for shock

d) Replacing the intestines in the abdominal cavity

Back 188

Treating for shock

Front 189

What will not be used beyond the manufacturer's potency expiration date, unless the appropriate surgeon general or CG-11, USCG authorizes extension in exceptional circumstances?

Back 189

Immunizing agents

Front 190

The main reason for using the cover glass included with the hemacytometer instead of an ordinary cover glass is because the hemacytometer cover glass _______?

Back 190

has an even surface

Front 191

In a combat scenario, a casualty sustaining numerous superficial shrapnel wounds should be triaged into which of the following groups?

a) Class I

b) Class II

c) Class III

d) Class IV

Back 191

Class III

Front 192

Tuberculin reactors with no risk factors for the development of tuberculosis disease should receive how many months of continuous therapy with INH?

Back 192

6 continuous months

Front 193

Special Assistants report to Chief, BUMED as subject matter experts and to the Chief of Staff for issues involving what?

Back 193

Staff administration

Front 194

The same infection control practices must be used with all patients regardless if they show symptoms or not and this approach in known as what?

Back 194

Universal Precautions

Front 195

In what publication would you find examples of and instruction for the proper formatting of a naval message?

Back 195

NTP 3

Front 196

Where personal signing is impractical a commanding officer may authorize others to use what that duplicates his or her signature?

Back 196

Signature Stamp

Front 197

The prominences easily felt on the inner and outer aspects of the ankle are called what?

Back 197

Medial and lateral malleolus

Front 198

How many Echelon 3 Regional Commands are there?

Back 198

Four (4)

Front 199

Who is the principal staff advisor for Navy Medicine health services. Develops health services policy and directs the provision of medical and dental services as authorized by law or regulations for Navy and Marine Corps personnel, other uniformed Services personnel, their family members, retire members and their family members, eligible survivors of deceased members, Federal civilian employees, and other categories of persons?

Back 199

m3, Deputy Chief of Staff for Operations

Front 200

For letterhead stationery of the Department of the Navy the seal of the Department of Defense shall bear a diameter of what size?

Back 200

1 inch

Front 201

Under the Navy centralized case reporting process, the confirmatory test for HIV/AIDS for active duty members is done by a what?

Back 201

HETU

Front 202

What is a filed production activity of the Defense Intelligence Agency? It is the sole producer of medical intelligence in the Department of Defense (DOD).

Back 202

Armed Forces Medical Intelligence Center (AFMIC)

Front 203

Refined and processed sugars should make up no more than what percent of an individual's total caloric intake?

Back 203

10%

Front 204

Who classifies chemical disinfectants that are sporicidal as disinfectant or sterilants?

Back 204

EPA

Front 205

During a Saturday duty day, one of your shipmates asks you to change watches with him/her. You agree but fail to get permission from proper authority. Under what article of Navy Regs could you be charged?

Back 205

Article 1134

Front 206

Drinking a large amount of cough medication is a common method of abusing what type of drug?

Back 206

Codeine

Front 207

Agents that inhibit the growth of microorganisms without necessarily killing them are know as?

Back 207

Antiseptics

Front 208

Autotrophic bacteria require an environment that supplies them with nourishment. (T/F)

Back 208

False

Front 209

The report of the NAS-NRC Committee on Biological Effects of Ionizing Radiation was issued in what year?

Back 209

1972

Front 210

What is a floating surgical hospital?

Back 210

T-AH

Front 211

Infectious waste shall be sterilized and rendered noninfectious before doing what?

Back 211

Compacting or grinding

Front 212

Use dosage indicators inside and process indicators outside each what?

Back 212

Instrument pack

Front 213

Fixed MTF's and DTF's meeting applicable criteria must gain and maintain what by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations?

Back 213

Accreditation

Front 214

What minimum amount of water does your body need per day?

Back 214

2 quarts

Front 215

If you are using a word processing package, you should set an automatic save at what intervals?

Back 215

5-10 minutes

Front 216

In a trauma related incident where a patient has multiple injuries, you should treat which of the following first?

a) Most obvious injury

b) Most life-threatening condition

c) Most painful condition

d) Fractures

Back 216

Most life-threatening condition

Front 217

The pharmacy department will assist in determining the availability of required medications at the gaining MTF or operational pharmacy and will dispense, by prescription, sufficient quantities for the en route period of transfer or period needed by the gaining pharmacy to obtain the required medications (up to how many day)?

Back 217

180 days

Front 218

Normally, correspondence should be answered within the time set by the incoming correspondence or within how many working day?

Back 218

10 days

Front 219

An effective process of casualty sorting, also referred to as what, is basic to the successful operation of a patient movement system?

Back 219

Triage

Front 220

Someone in a command position makes sexual advances towards you, making it impossible to do your job. You are being sexually harassed. (T/F)

Back 220

True

Front 221

How should a suspected spinal fracture victim be transported?

a) Ensure immobilization on a rigid backboard

b) Place a pillow or adequate padding under the neck

c) Transport in the shock position

d) Do all of the above

Back 221

Ensure immobilization on a rigid backboard

Front 222

Which of the following is for parenteral administration only?

a) Penicillin G

b) Ampicillin

c) Dicloxicillin

d) Penicillin V

Back 222

Penicillin G

Front 223

Which of the following is/are (a) function(s) of the kidneys?

a) To maintain acid-base balance

b) To remove certain toxic substances

c) To remove excess sugar

d) All of the above

Back 223

All of the above

Front 224

What is a bacterial endospore test designed to assess whether sterilization has actually occurred?

a) Biological Control

b) Biological Test

c) Biological Monitor

d) Sterilization Test

Back 224

Biological Monitor

Front 225

Which of the following is/are a recommended step(s) in treating deep frostbite?

a) Comfort victim with hot tea or coffee

b) Gently rub injured areas to promote blood circulation

c) Break blisters to speed healing

d) Slowly rewarm frozen areas

Back 225

Comfort victim with hot tea or coffe

Front 226

All elements of a message-type directive are prepared per standard instructions for regular messages per what?

Back 226

DMS/NTP 3

Front 227

The purpose of what is to establish patient accountability and to provide a means to document assessment of condition and treatment rendered by HSS personnel?

Back 227

FMC

Front 228

All pharmacies that dispense medications are required to have what Class balance?

Back 228

A

Front 229

What combines joint policies, procedures, personnel, training, and a reporting structure supported by automated data processing on GCCS?

Back 229

JOPES

Front 230

Fried foods, as long as they are not too crisp, may be included in a soft diet. (T/F)

Back 230

False

Front 231

The plan for a PMI exchange system and the return of AE equipment and PMI to the originating MTF should be addressed in the what respective plan?

Back 231

Operation Plan (OPLAN)

Front 232

What does OPLAN stand for?

Back 232

Operation Plan

Front 233

What is a process that delivers on demand to the warfighter a healthy, fit, and medically ready force; counters the health threat to the deployed force; and provides critical care and management for combat casualties?

Back 233

HSS

Front 234

If you have to go over the side and the ships' propellers are turning, you should leave from what point on the ship?

Back 234

From the bow

Front 235

In addition to maintaining and promoting good health, personal hygiene is important for which of the following reasons?

a) Inhibits the spread of disease

b) Promotes good morale

c) Decreases the risk of disabling disease

d) All of the above

Back 235

All of the above

Front 236

To open a partially obstructed airway of a victim with a cervical spine injury, which of the following is considered the safest method?

a) Abdominal trust

b) Jaw thrust

c) Head tilt

d) Chest thrust

Back 236

Jaw thrust

Front 237

Homeostasis is defined as?

Back 237

Self-regulated control of the body's internal environment

Front 238

The most frequent cause of marginal gingivitis is?

Back 238

Poor oral hygiene

Front 239

Identifying, assessing, and decreasing risk to patients and staff are objectives of the QA program to reduce exposure to what?

Back 239

Liability

Front 240

Duty performed in commissioned vessels and deployable squadrons home ported in the US or duty performed in the US land based activity and embarked staffs, which require service members to operate away form their duty stations in excess of 150 days per year is what type of duty?

Back 240

Type 2- Sea Duty

Front 241

In cases where tuberculin reactors are known to be close contacts of a person or persons with demonstrated INH-resistant tuberculosis, what may be substituted for INH?

Back 241

Rifampin

Front 242

What equipment and supplies will not be used aboard ship unless authorized by the MAGTF commander in support of an overwhelming emergency?

Back 242

LF Class VIIIA

Front 243

Once authorization has been obtained for burial at sea, who coordinate the arrangements?

Back 243

Appropriate Fleet Commanders in Chief

Front 244

After scrubbing a prosthetic device, place the prosthesis in a container filled with an EPA-registered disinfectant such as an iodophor, cholorine dioxide, or a synthetic phenol compound. Place the container in an ultrasonic cleaner for how long?

Back 244

10 min

Front 245

A Corpsman may administer morphine to which of the following patients?

a) In shock

b) Hemorrhaging

c) With Burns from inhaled chemicals

d) With a head injury

Back 245

In Shock

Front 246

A single pus-filled cavity in the true skin of the nape of the neck would be classified as a?

Back 246

Furuncle

Front 247

Which of the following tools does a supervisor use to identify and develop solutions to eliminate hazards?

a) Incidental observation

b) Deliberate observation

c) Job safety analysis

d) Job inventory

Back 247

Job safety analysis

Front 248

DD. Established for DoD-wide use are what level forms?

Back 248

Second Level Forms

Front 249

What is a directive that has a one-time or brief nature and has a self-canceling provision, and it has the same force and effect as an instruction?

Back 249

Notice

Front 250

Appropriate treatment for a sucking chest wound includes all of the following EXCEPT?

a) Giving oral fluids

b) Treating for shock

c) Placing the victim on the injured side

d) Administering oxygen therapy

Back 250

Giving oral fluids

Front 251

The primary purposes of first aid include all of the following EXCEPT to?

a) Provide definitive medical treatment

b) Save life

c) Prevent further injury

d) Preserve resistance and vitality

Back 251

Provide definitive medical treatment

Front 252

Treatment is not considered significant if taking medications of low toxicity (e.g., Prozac, Zoloft, or Paxil) for less than how many days?

Back 252

90 days

Front 253

Nuclear radiation casualties fall into how many categories?

Back 253

Three

Front 254

To minimize cellular deterioration, remains should be refrigerated at ___ C.

Back 254

2.2 to 4.4

Front 255

The authority and responsibilities of the Surgeon General, as an OPNAV Principal Official, are derived from the statutory authority and responsibilities of CNO and Vice Chief of Naval Operations (VCNO) and such other authority and responsibilities as assigned by whom?

Back 255

Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)

Front 256

The oxygen breathing apparatus (OBA) is a valuable adjunct in rescue operations for what reason?

Back 256

It generates its own oxygen

Front 257

What rations are designed for military personnel in a wide variety of operations, in widely varied settings, for limited time periods?

Back 257

Operational and restricted

Front 258

Service members in the HIV program are governed under what series and are not included in medical assignment screening?

Back 258

SECNAVINST 5300.30

Front 259

If you are unable to reach the poison control center or a physician for specific instructions, how should you treat a victim who has ingested turpentine?

Back 259

Give 1 to 2 ounces of vegetable oil orally

Front 260

Which of the following structures provides some bacteria with a means of movement?

a) Spore

b) Spirillum

c) Capsule

d) Flagellum

Back 260

Flagellum

Front 261

When you influence others through the use of your specialized knowledge, you are exercising which of the following types of power?

a) Referent

b) Coercive

c) Expert

d) Informational

Back 261

Expert

Front 262

What color cartridge protects against radioactive materials?

Back 262

Purple

Front 263

Which of the following types of power do you have simply because people identify with you being a chief?

a) Expert

b) Referent

c) Coercive

d) Informational

Back 263

Referent

Front 264

Which of the following subjects is NOT covered during the Navy Rights and Responsibilities Workshop?

a) Enlistment skills

b) Combatant skills

c) Navy Regulations

d) Grievance and redress

Back 264

Combat skills

Front 265

Which of the following types of uniforms would be appropriate for a ceremonial visit to a British man-of-war moored to Pier Lima Naval Station, Charleston, South Carolina?

a) Service Dress

b) Full Dress

c) Summer Khaki

d) Service Undress

Back 265

Full Dress

Front 266

The maximum authorized Government allowance for expenses toward the interment of a deceased active duty member in a private cemetery can be found in which of the following publications?

a) NAVSUP P-485

b) NAVPERS 15955

c) NAVMED P-5016/NAVMC 2509A

d) NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1

Back 266

NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1

Front 267

The total T/E and AMALs/ADALs are designed to support a MEF in an estimated worst case scenario for a period of combat of how long?

Back 267

60 days

Front 268

Oxygenated blood is carried by which of the following vein(s)?

a) Pulmonary

b) Portal

c) Inferior vena cava

d) Superior vena cava

Back 268

Pulmonary

Front 269

Military treatment facilities and commands will conduct a review of the adequacy of immunization coverage among supported populations at least how often?

Back 269

Annually

Front 270

Which of the following is an example of a drug injected intradermally?

a) Insulin

b) Procaine hydrocloride

c) Purified protein derivative

d) 2 or 3 above

Back 270

Purified protein derivative

Front 271

All information requirements (reports)require a what?

Back 271

Issuing document

Front 272

When a HREC is opened on a service member, the member should be directed to read and sign the Privacy Act Statement inside the back cover of the HREC. (T/F)

Back 272

True

Front 273

Typhoid and yellow fever immunization are required for alert forces defined by Forces Command (FORSCOM) as division-ready brigades, including attached command and control packages, combat support packages, combat service support packages, and other units approved by the FORSCOM commander for what branch?

Back 273

Army

Front 274

Which instruction mandates that all active duty health care personnel receive HIV testing on an annual basis during each calendar year?

Back 274

SECNAVINST 5300.30C

Front 275

After scrubbing a prosthetic device, place the prosthesis in a container filled with an EPA-registered disinfectant such as an iodophor, cholorine dioxide, or a synthetic phenol compound. Place the container in an ultrasonic cleaner for how long?

Back 275

10 minutes

Front 276

Sterilization of individual strands of suture is acceptable for which of the types listed?

a) all absorbable suture material

b) all nonabsorbable suture material

c) both 1 and 2 above

d) stainless steel sutures only

Back 276

Stainless steel sutures only

Front 277

Fleet surgical teams (FSTs) are HSS augmentation teams assigned to the fleet CINCs. Combined, the Pacific and Atlantic fleets have how many teams that are considered the fleet CINC's assets in both peacetime and wartime?

Back 277

Nine

Front 278

The Casualty Assistance Calls program is administered by which of the following commands?

a) Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command

b) Commanding Officer, Naval Hospital

c) Commander, Naval Medical Command

d) Office of Medical Affairs

Back 278

Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command

Front 279

Which form field requirements are based on the level of form?

Back 279

DD Form 67

Front 280

Morphine is an acceptable analgesic in patients with which of the following symptoms?

a) Advanced Shock

b) Head injuries

c) Painful skin burns

d) Profound respiratory distress

Back 280

Painful skin burns

Front 281

The prevention of STDs begins with changing what that place the person at risk for infection?

Back 281

Sexual behaviors

Front 282

If you see the sky light up from a nuclear detonation, what is the first action you should take?

Back 282

Close your eyes

Front 283

For temperatures in what degree F range, energy requirements may increase 2.5 to 10 percent?

Back 283

86 to 104 degrees F

Front 284

Your writing should follow which pattern?

Back 284

Newspaper

Front 285

How many Echelon 3 Regional Commands are there?

Back 285

Four

Front 286

When a case of active pulmonary tuberculosis disease is discovered, the filters in the ventilation system exhausting the berthing, messing areas, work spaces, and medical spaces must be what?

Back 286

Cleaned

Front 287

The number of calories generated by each gram of protein, fat, and carbohydrate, respectively is?

Back 287

4, 9, 4

Front 288

Medical event disease surveillance is particulary important in militray populations where medical events can have what type of effects?

Back 288

Mission-degrading

Front 289

A successful communicable disease and injury control program depends on what of suspected or confirmed cases?

Back 289

Early Notification

Front 290

A fracture of the xiphoid tip of the sternum during CPR may cause significant damage to the?

Back 290

Liver

Front 291

Before reporting to the MARFOR, all medical department officers who are clinical providers (i.e., medical corps, dental corps, nurse corps) shall attend a course of instruction in advanced what?

Back 291

Combat life support

Front 292

Commanding Officers shall ensure all other fixed x-ray units afloat require evaluations at what intervals?

Back 292

24 months

Front 293

Within how many days before separation or retirement, Service personnel may be exempt for deployment (mobility) immunizations if certain conditions are met?

Back 293

180 days

Front 294

SF 522, Request for Administration of Anesthesia and for Performance of Operations and other Procedures, is normally signed by a parent, legal guardian, or spouse EXCEPT when the patient is?

Back 294

A member of the Armed Forces

Front 295

The prevalence of serologic markers for HBV in dental health care personnel has increased dramatically in the United States over the past several years. Each year approximately how many health care workers become infected with the virus?

Back 295

18,000

Front 296

A notice usually remains in effect for less than how many months, and is not permitted to remain in effect for longer than how long?

Back 296

6 months - 1 year

Front 297

What causative agent of plague has been identified as a potential biological warfare agent?

Back 297

Yersinia pestis

Front 298

HSS logistics is normally a Service responsibility. However, in joint operations, what system may be designated to provide central logistical support to all participating Services in the combatant CINC's area of responsibility?

Back 298

Single Inline Medical Logistics Manager (SIMLM)

Front 299

The nature of naval service dictates that members must be ready to deploy on short notice. Therefore, single parents and dual military couples with dependent children must provide which of the following documentation?

a) Family Care Plan Certificate

b) Will

c) Power of attorney

d) All of the above

Back 299

Family Care Plan Certificate

Front 300

At a minimum, how often should all AMALs be reviewed?

Back 300

Annually

Front 301

Commercially available absorbent materials which form a semirigid gel when added to liquids is called what?

Back 301

Gelatinization

Front 302

The Rapid Plasma Reagin test syphilis is best used with what type of specimen?

Back 302

Serum

Front 303

What is the most distinct advantage of the chair carry?

Back 303

The ease of negotiating stairs

Front 304

Who shall maintain an effective command medical event surveillance program?

Back 304

Commanding Officers

Front 305

Administer meningococcal vaccine to military personnel traveling for more than how many days to regions subject to meningococcal outbreaks, if not administered within an appropriate booster interval?

Back 305

15 days

Front 306

What is required on all Navy and Marine Corps letters, messages, directives, forms, and reports?

a) Report control symbols

b) SSIC numbers

c) Page numbers

d) Consecutive filing numbers

Back 306

SSIC numbers

Front 307

Which tuberculin tests produce significant numbers of both false-positive and false-negative test results, and are not to be used except on the specific recommendation of the NAVENPVNTMEDU?

Back 307

Multiple-puncture

Front 308

The head of the humerus is called the?

Back 308

Glenoid fossa

Front 309

For information on cleaning solvents, refer to which of the following chapters in the Naval Ship's Technical Manual (NSTM)?

a) 631

b) 660

c) 670

d) 630

Back 309

Chapter 631

Front 310

What is an area around the site of tuberculin injection that is raised and firm to the touch?

Back 310

Induration

Front 311

The DOD and USCG withdrew needle-free multi-use nozzle jet injectors (MUNJIs) capable of 600 or more injections per hour, formerly identified within DOD supply systems as "hypodermic injection apparatus jet automatic: 115 volt or foot operated," in what year due to safety concerns?

Back 311

1997

Front 312

Who, if anyone, is responsible for maintaining adequate supplies for the decontamination and treatment of CBR casualties?

Back 312

Medical officer

Front 313

What receive, store, and distribute blood within the theater of operations?

Back 313

Blood Supply Units (BUSs)

Front 314

Which forum is used to discuss career development, Senior Executive Management, Senior Operational/Major Staff slates, Total Force Integration strategy, cultural diversity strategy, and Navy Medicine leadership competencies?

Back 314

Council of Corps Chiefs Forum

Front 315

Determine the appropriate dose in milligrams of medication for a child weighing 30 pounds if the average dose for an adult dose is 600mg.

Back 315

120mg

Front 316

Which of the following characteristics of a strike force is one of its greatest assets?

a) Strength

b) Size

c) Weaponry

d) Mobility

Back 316

Mobility

Front 317

Which location offers intense and comprehensive drug and alcohol rehabilitation for active duty members?

a) Sick bay

b) Alcohol Treatment Facilities (ATF)

c) Alcohol Rehabilitation Centers (ARC)

d) All of the above

Back 317

Alcohol Rehabilitation Centers (ARC)

Front 318

Patients sensitive to penicillin may also exhibit sensitivity to cephalosporins. (T/F)

Back 318

True

Front 319

Support craft designations start with what letter?

Back 319

Y

Front 320

Of the following, which is NOT a source of dietary fat?

a) Avocados

b) Rice

c) Egg Yolks

d) Whole milk

Back 320

Rice

Front 321

First aid treatment for acute myocardial infarction without cardiac arrest includes all of the following EXCEPT?

a) monitoring vital signs

b) transporting to a medical treatment facility

c) Starting an intravenous infusion of only normal saline

d) giving oxygen therapy

Back 321

Starting an intravenous infusion of only normal saline

Front 322

What actions cause high casualty rates, material losses, obstacles to maneuver, and contamination?

Back 322

NBC

Front 323

All of the following are classifications of bacteria EXCEPT?

a)Gram's stain reaction and colonial morphology

b) Toxins produced and disease producing ability

c) Growth requirements and morphologic characteristics

d) Temperature and moisture content

Back 323

Temperature and moisture content