1C651 Chapter Reviews

Front 1

"What career field does the AFSC designator 1C indicate?


(001-Air Force specialty codes)"

Back 1

The 1C indicates the command and control career field.

Front 2

"How many career field subdivisions are there in the 1C career field?


(001-Air Force specialty codes)"

Back 2

There are eight career field subdivisions in the 1C career group.

Front 3

"How many skill levels are there in each AFSC?


(001-Air Force specialty codes)"

Back 3

"There are five skill levels in each AFSC.

1 -- Helper,

3 -- Apprentice,

5 -- Journeyman,

7 -- Craftsman,

9 -- Superintendent."

Front 4

"What does the career field subdivision show?


(001-Air Force specialty codes)"

Back 4

The related jobs within the career field.

Front 5

"What is the requirement to be awarded a 3-level (Apprentice)?


(002-Skill level attainment)"

Back 5

You are awarded apprentice after you have successfully completed the tasks and knowledge training provided in the enlisted Space 100 course and completion of your IQT course at Vandenberg AFB, CA.

Front 6

"What is the minimum amount of months spent in UGT that is necessary for a 5-level?


(002-Skill level attainment)"

Back 6

You must have a minimum of 15 months in UGT for a 5-level.

Front 7

"What is the purpose of the CDC?


(002-Skill level attainment)"

Back 7

The purpose of these CDCs are to provide you with a career broadening perspective of space ops.

Front 8

"What are the requirements to upgrade to craftsman?


(002-Skill level attainment)"

Back 8

"Progressing to craftsman has several requirements:

(1) Be at least a SSgt.

(2) Complete a minimum 12 months in training.

(3) Recommendation by the supervisor for award of the 7-skill level."

Front 9

"Which duty positions do 9-levels normally occupy?


(002-Skill level attainment)"

Back 9

9-levels fill positions as squadron superintendents, various NAF, or MAJCOM HQ staff jobs.

Front 10

"Which space operation discipline assures the friendly use of the space environment while denying its use to the enemy and is achieved through offensive and defensive counterspace carried out to gain and maintain control of activities conducted in or through the space environment?


(003-Space Operations disciplines)"

Back 10

Space control.

Front 11

"Which space operation discipline detects and tracks sea and land launched, intercontinental ballistic missiles and tactical missiles using a variety of systems?


(003-Space Operations disciplines)"

Back 11

Missile warning.

Front 12

"Which space operation discipline is responsible for range management, launch preparation and area clearance for all space launch and range activities?


(003-Space Operations disciplines)"

Back 12

Range operations.

Front 13

"Which space operation discipline plans satellite contacts, resolves emergencies, and performs satellite commanding during launch, early orbit, daily operations, and end-of-life testing?


(003-Space Operations disciplines)"

Back 13

Satellite command and control.

Front 14

"Which space operation discipline detects, identifies, catalogs, and maintains surveillance on low-earth orbiting and deep-space satellites?


(003-Space Operations disciplines)"

Back 14

Space surveillance.

Front 15

"What are some general duties of a journeyman?


(004-Space Operations duties)"

Back 15

Journeymen may be tasked to indoctrinate newly assigned personnel and explain local operating procedures and directives. Journeymen, qualified as instructors, train personnel in various duty positions and ensure trainees competence on applicable system equipment. They also instruct in methods of commanding, controlling, telemetry, tracking of satellites, and preparing satellite data.

Front 16

"What will a journeyman SPT process?


(004-Space Operations duties)"

Back 16

A SPT will perform conjunction analysis, process daily satellite observations and correlate them to known satellites in the space catalog.

Front 17

"What is a primary difference between a craftsman and a journeyman?


(004-Space Operations duties)"

Back 17

As a craftsman, you are counted on to be a highly proficient technician, ready and capable of handling any situation.

Front 18

"Describe briefly the duties of a superintendent.


(004-Space Operations duties)"

Back 18

Superintendents develop and advocate operational requirements for current and future systems, and analyze reports on system operation and data. They develop, coordinate, monitor and/or review operational requirements.

Front 19

"When do you earn your basic space badge?


(005-Space badge)"

Back 19

Completion of Space 100; completed all requirements to maintain CMR status, present a Space Professional Certification briefing to a certifying official.

Front 20

"What certification must you have to earn the Command Space badge?


(005-Space badge)"

Back 20

The Command Space badge requires a certification level 3.

Front 21

"What is the term used for identifying the hazards associated with the operation or activity?


(006-Operational risk management process)"

Back 21

Identify the hazards.

Front 22

"What is the term used for determining the probability and severity of ill effects?


(006-Operational risk management process)"

Back 22

Assess the risk.

Front 23

"What is the term used for evaluating the specific strategies and controls that reduce or eliminate risk?


(006-Operational risk management process)"

Back 23

Analyze risk control measures.

Front 24

"What is the term used for making decisions at the appropriate level, based upon analysis of overall costs and benefits?


(006-Operational risk management process)"

Back 24

Make control decisions.

Front 25

"What is the term used for developing an implementation strategy?


(006-Operational risk management process)"

Back 25

Implement risk controls.

Front 26

"What is the term used for periodically reevaluating the controls to ensure their effectiveness?


(006-Operational risk management process)"

Back 26

Supervise and review.

Front 27

"What environmental conditions can we control?


(007-Physical hazards of your work environment)"

Back 27

Light, temperature, ventilation, and noise.

Front 28

"What precautions must you take when working in adverse weather conditions?


(007-Physical hazards of your work environment)"

Back 28

Secure equipment, use extra precautions, and think safety before you do an otherwise normal task.

Front 29

"Why is good housekeeping important?


(007-Physical hazards of your work environment)"

Back 29

Good housekeeping eliminates hazardous conditions and reduces the chance of an accident.

Front 30

"Why is isopropyl alcohol dangerous?


(007-Physical hazards of your work environment)"

Back 30

Isopropyl alcohol's danger is its extreme flammability.

Front 31

"What precautions must you take when you store volatile substances?


(007-Physical hazards of your work environment)"

Back 31

Volatile substances require external storage and post NO SMOKING signs indicating no smoking within 50 feet.

Front 32

"What are some of the effects of an electric shock?


(008-Electrical hazards)"

Back 32

"Some of the effects of an electric shock are:

(1) Contraction of the chest muscles, which may interfere with breathing and cause death.

(2) Temporary paralysis of the nerve center, which may result in failure to breathe.

(3) Ventricular fibrillation, an irregular and erratic heartbeat, which may result in a heart attack."

Front 33

"What is the external electrical resistance of wet skin?


(008-Electrical hazards)"

Back 33

1,000 Ohms.

Front 34

"What is the common misconception associated with high voltage?


(008-Electrical hazards)"

Back 34

There is a common misconception that it takes a high voltage to kill you. It is not voltage that kills, it is amperage.

Front 35

"List three sources that can give off RFR.


(009-Electromagnetic spectrum and radio frequency radiation)"

Back 35

"Some common sources of RFR are:

(1) Microwave ovens.

(2) Radars.

(3) Televisions.

(4) Radio communications equipment.

(5) Satellite communications equipment."

Front 36

"What is the effect of RFR exposure on the human body and vital organs?


(009-Electromagnetic spectrum and radio frequency radiation)"

Back 36

RFR causes heating in body tissue.

Front 37

"Whenever possible, what must all personnel avoid doing to prevent RFR exposure?


(009-Electromagnetic spectrum and radio frequency radiation)"

Back 37

Whenever possible, in an operational situation, all personnel should avoid the area of radiating power from radar antennas.

Front 38

"What is a TO?


(010-Technical order system)"

Back 38

It is a manual that covers installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, removing, calibration, servicing or handling of Air Force military systems.

Front 39

"How can a TO help you during anomalous situations?


(010-Technical order system)"

Back 39

It will help you by providing guidance and direction in times of stress.

Front 40

"What are the three possible priorities assigned to recommended changes?


(010-Technical order system)"

Back 40

"(1) Emergency.

(2) Urgent.

(3) Routine."

Front 41

"What is the purpose of a demand-response procedure?


(010-Technical order system)"

Back 41

Simply put, demand-response procedures require accountability for all steps being completed in a specific order. Failure to follow these procedures can cause mission failure or personnel injury.

Front 42

"What are the three possible special markings used on a TO to satisfy occupational safety and health standards?


(010-Technical order system)"

Back 42

"(1) Warning(s).

(2) Caution(s).

(3) Note(s)."

Front 43

"What are secure and non-secure communications?


(011-Secure and non-secure communications)"

Back 43

Encrypted communications prevent the interception of information; nonencrypted communications can be intercepted.

Front 44

"When do you verify that information can be released to foreign nationals?


(011-Secure and non-secure communications)"

Back 44

Verify that information can be released to foreign nationals before you relay information over a secure line.

Front 45

"List three prohibited activities for e-mail use.


(011-Secure and non-secure communications)"

Back 45

"Any three of the following five prohibited activities for e-mail:

(1) Sending or receiving electronic messages for commercial or personal financial gain.

(2) Intentionally or unlawfully misrepresenting your identity or affiliation in electronic messaging communications.

(3) Sending harassing, intimidating, abusive, or offensive material to, or about others.

(4) Causing congestion on the network by such things as the propagation of chain letters, junk e-mails, and broadcasting inappropriate messages to groups or individuals.

(5) Accessing commercial web mail accounts and instant messaging services (i.e., Yahoo, AOL, or MSN mail accounts)."

Front 46

"What are the two types of websites maintained by the Air Force?


(011-Secure and non-secure communications)"

Back 46

"(1) The first is a public website.

(2) The second is a private website."

Front 47

"Under what article of the UCMJ can you be punished if you do a prohibited activity?


(011-Secure and non-secure communications)"

Back 47

All prohibited activities are punishable under Article 92 of the UCMJ.

Front 48

"Identify the four primary space mission areas as defined by the DOD.


(012-Department of Defense space doctrine)"

Back 48

"(1) Space control.

(2) Space force enhancement.

(3) Space support.

(4) Force application."

Front 49

"What is the space control mission area?


(012-Department of Defense space doctrine)"

Back 49

Space control operations provide freedom of action in space for friendly forces, and denying it to an enemy.

Front 50

"What are the five space force enhancement functions?


(012-Department of Defense space doctrine)"

Back 50

"(1) ISR.

(2) ITW/AA.

(3) Environmental monitoring.

(4) Communications.

(5) Position, velocity, time, and navigation."

Front 51

"What does the space force application mission include?


(012-Department of Defense space doctrine)"

Back 51

Ballistic missile defense and force projection.

Front 52

"Which doctrine is relatively slow to change?


(013-Air Force and Air Force Space Command's space doctrines)"

Back 52

Basic doctrine changes relatively slowly compared to the other levels of doctrine, and it sets the tone and vision for future doctrine development.

Front 53

"What term is used by the Air Force as an equivalent definition of the space control mission?


(013-Air Force and Air Force Space Command's space doctrines)"

Back 53

The Air Force uses counterspace as an equivalent definition of the space control mission.

Front 54

"List the three components of counterspace operations.


(013-Air Force and Air Force Space Command's space doctrines)"

Back 54

"(1) Space situational awareness.

(2) Offensive counterspace operations.

(3) Defensive counterspace operations."

Front 55

"The missile warning discipline correlated to which counterspace component?


(013-Air Force and Air Force Space Command's space doctrines)"

Back 55

Missile warning can be directly correlated to the counterspace function, DCS component.

Front 56

"Who executes tactical control of joint air and space component forces through an AOC?


(013-Air Force and Air Force Space Command's space doctrines)"

Back 56

The JFACC executes tactical control of joint air and space component forces through an AOC.

Front 57

"What is the mission of USSTRATCOM?


(014-United States Strategic Command)"

Back 57

The mission of USSTRATCOM is to provide the nation with global deterrence capabilities and synchronized DOD effects to combat adversary weapons of mass destruction worldwide.

Front 58

"What are the primary objectives of USSTRATCOM?


(014-United States Strategic Command)"

Back 58

Space, global strike and integration, ISR, network warfare, integrated missile defense, and combating weapons of mass destruction.

Front 59

"What is the purpose of SCC-WMD?


(014-United States Strategic Command)"

Back 59

The SCC-WMD serves to plan, advocate and advise the commander on WMD-related matters. The center provides recommendations to dissuade and prevent the acquisition, development or use of WMD and associated technology.

Front 60

"Identify the four service components that assist USSTRATCOM.


(014-United States Strategic Command)"

Back 60

"The four service components that assist USSTRATCOM are:

(1) AFSPC.

(2) SMDC/ARSTRAT.

(3) MARFORSTRAT.

(4) FFC."

Front 61

"What joint functional component command optimizes planning, integration, execution and force management of assigned missions of deterring attacks against the US and its territories?


(014-United States Strategic Command)"

Back 61

JFCC-GSI.

Front 62

"What joint functional component command is responsible for planning, integrating, and coordinating global missile defense operations and support?


(014-United States Strategic Command)"

Back 62

JFCC-IMD.

Front 63

"What joint functional component command is responsible for coordinating global intelligence collection to address DOD worldwide operations and national intelligence requirements?


(014-United States Strategic Command)"

Back 63

JFCC-ISR.

Front 64

"What joint functional component command optimizes planning, execution, and force management of the assigned objectives of coordinating, planning, and conducting space operations?


(014-United States Strategic Command)"

Back 64

JFCC-SPACE.

Front 65

"What joint functional component command facilitates cooperative engagement with other national entities in computer network defense and network warfare as part of the global information operations mission?


(014-United States Strategic Command)"

Back 65

JFCC-NW.

Front 66

"What type of command is AFSPC, and where is it headquartered?


(015-Air Force Space Command)"

Back 66

AFSPC was created 1 September 1982, as a MAJCOM, and is headquartered at Peterson Air Force Base, Colorado.

Front 67

"What are AFSPC's strategic priorities?


(015-Air Force Space Command)"

Back 67

"AFSPC's four strategic priorities are:

(1) Secure the space domain and provide space combat effects to joint warfighters.

(2) Maintain a safe and secure strategic deterrent and pursue new triad capabilities for the US and its allies.

(3) Make space acquisition the DOD model for acquisition excellence.

(4) Provide world-class professional development and quality-of-life opportunities for our people."

Front 68

"What is the mission of the 14th Air Force?


(016-Fourteenth Air Force)"

Back 68

The mission of 14th Air Force is to control and exploit space for global and theater operations, thereby ensuring warfighters are supported by the best space capabilities available.

Front 69

"What is the function of the 614th Space Operations Squadron?


(016-Fourteenth Air Force)"

Back 69

The function of the 614th Space Operations Squadron is to manage the day-to-day activities of the Joint Space Operations Center, a USSTRATCOM JFCC-level command center.

Front 70

"What four divisions compose the Joint Space Operations Center?


(016-Fourteenth Air Force)"

Back 70

"(1) Strategy.

(2) Combat plans.

(3) Combat operations.

(4) ISR."

Front 71

"What is the responsibility of the 1st Space Control Squadron?


(016-Fourteenth Air Force)"

Back 71

Monitoring and tracking manmade objects in space, ranging in size from a baseball to the International Space Station.

Front 72

"What disciplines does the 21st Space Wing perform?


(017-21st Space Wing)"

Back 72

"The 21st Space Wing performs three important space disciplines:

(1) Missile warning.

(2) Space surveillance.

(3) Space control."

Front 73

"What is the function of the 21st Operations Support Squadron?


(017-21st Space Wing)"

Back 73

The function of the 21st Operations Support Squadron is to provide operational, training, and weather support to all 21 OG geographically separated units by monitoring and responding to operational issues and activities and initiating actions to remedy, enhance, or revise operational policy and procedures.

Front 74

"What is the primary mission of the 6th and 7th Space Warning Squadrons?


(017-21st Space Wing)"

Back 74

The primary mission of the 6th and 7th Space Warning Squadron is to detect and track SLBM and ICBM from the Atlantic Ocean and Eurasian landmass respectively, and to provide ITW/AA data to the Missile Correlation Center (MCC) inside Cheyenne Mountain Air Force Station. The 6th SWS is responsible for the Atlantic Ocean and European/Asian landmass respectively and the 7th SWS is responsible for the Pacific region of the North American continent.

Front 75

"Where are the Ballistic Missile Early Warning System squadrons located?


(017-21st Space Wing)"

Back 75

"The Ballistic Missile Early Warning System squadrons are located:

(1) 12 SWS is Site I and it is located at Thule Air Base (AB), Greenland;

(2) 13 SWS is Site II and is located at Clear Air Force Station, Alaska;

(3) RAF Fylingdales is Site III, and it is located near the town of Pickering, North Yorkshire, England."

Front 76

"What is the mission of the 20th Space Control Squadron, Detachment 1?


(017-21st Space Wing)"

Back 76

The primary mission of Det 1 is to operate the AN/FPS–133 surveillance fence radar and to act as the back-up facility to 1 SPCS.

Front 77

"Describe the responsibility of the 4th Space Control Squadron.


(017-21st Space Wing)"

Back 77

The 4th Space Control Squadron is located at Holloman AFB, NM, and it is responsible for delivering offensive counterspace and space situational awareness, as appropriate, to rapidly achieve flexible and versatile effects in support of global and theater campaigns.

Front 78

"What is the mission of the 30th Space Wing?


(018-30th Space Wing)"

Back 78

30th Space Wing provides comprehensive spacelift operations support to fulfill war-fighting and national requirements through the $2.5 billion Western Range.

Front 79

"What is the function of the 2d Range Operations Squadron?


(018-30th Space Wing)"

Back 79

The function of the 2d Range Operations Squadron is to execute real-time command and control of the Western Range in support of Spacelift operations, ballistic missile test and evaluation and aeronautical test and evaluation.

Front 80

"What are the 45th Space Wing's responsibilities towards Patrick AFB and Cape Canaveral AFS?


(019-45th Space Wing)"

Back 80

45th Space Wing maintains Patrick AFB, Cape Canaveral AFS, and two tracking sites (at Antigua and Ascension islands), and directs all Air Force and contractor personnel supporting launch, range, and base activities.

Front 81

"What is the function of the 1st Range Operations Squadron?


(019-45th Space Wing)"

Back 81

The 1st Range Operations Squadron provides worldwide customers: high quality, requirements tailored, range operations, operations support management, and scheduling services.

Front 82

"Explain the mission of the 50th Space Wing.


(020-50th Space Wing)"

Back 82

The mission of the 50th Space Wing is to operate DOD satellites, fix satellite problems when they occur, and move satellites into disposal orbits when no longer useful. The wing also operates and manages the AFSCN remote ground facilities and satellite command and control facilities worldwide.

Front 83

"What is the function of the 1st Space Operations Squadron?


(020-50th Space Wing)"

Back 83

The 1st Space Operations Squadron augments command and control for: Midcourse Space Experiment (MSX) and research and development (R&D) programs.

Front 84

"What is the function of the 2d Space Operations Squadron?


(020-50th Space Wing)"

Back 84

The 2d Space Operations Squadron performs the command and control mission for the GPS satellite constellation.

Front 85

"What is the function of the 3d Space Operations Squadron?


(020-50th Space Wing)"

Back 85

The 3d Space Operations Squadron conducts launch and on-orbit operations for military communications satellites for the DOD.

Front 86

"What is the function of the 4th Space Operations Squadron?


(020-50th Space Wing)"

Back 86

The 4th Space Operations Squadron operates the $31 Billion Milstar system executing communications management, satellite command and control, and ground segment maintenance for the Milstar constellation.

Front 87

"What squadron develops, publishes, executes, and enforces the network operations tasking order, as well as operating and maintaining worldwide remote tracking stations and associated communications systems comprising the AFSCN?


(020-50th Space Wing)"

Back 87

The 22d Space Operations Squadron.

Front 88

"Identify the Detachments operating the AFSCN and their call signs.


(020-50th Space Wing)"

Back 88

"The Detachments operating the AFSCN are:

(a) Detachment 1, 22 SOPS. Its call sign is COOK.

(b) Detachment 2, 22 SOPS. Its call sign is REEF.

(c) Detachment 3, 22 SOPS. Its call sign is POGO.

(d) Detachment 4, 22 SOPS. Its call sign is HULA.

(e) Detachment 5, 22 SOPS. Its call sign is GUAM.

(f) Operating location Alpha/Echo. Its call sign is LION."

Front 89

"What is the mission of the 460th Space Wing?


(021-460th Space Wing)"

Back 89

The mission of the 460th Space Wing is to provide combatant commanders with superior global surveillance, worldwide missile warning, homeland defense, and expeditionary forces.

Front 90

"What is the function of the 2d Space Warning Squadron?


(021-460th Space Wing)"

Back 90

The function of the 2d Space Warning Squadron is to operate the Defense Support Program (DSP) satellite constellation. 2 SWS currently operates the Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS).

Front 91

"What is the function of the 11th Space Warning Squadron?


(021-460th Space Wing)"

Back 91

The function of the 11th Space Warning Squadron is to operate the latest SBIRS satellite which is in a highly elliptical orbit and provides an increase in warning time and accuracy.

Front 92

"What is the GCCS?


(022-National Military Command System)"

Back 92

The GCCS is an automated information system designed to support situational awareness and deliberate and crisis planning with the use of an integrated set of analytic tools and flexible data transfer capabilities.

Front 93

"Where is the National Military Command Center located and what is its function?


(022-National Military Command System)"

Back 93

Located in a shielded room in the Pentagon, Washington D.C., the NMCC is responsible for monitoring nuclear forces and ongoing conventional military operations, and can be augmented by additional response cells in the event of a crisis.

Front 94

"Where is the USSTRATCOM GOC located and what is its function?


(022-National Military Command System)"

Back 94

Located underneath the USSTRATCOM Headquarters, Offutt AFB, Nebraska, the Global Operations Center serves as the command center for the USSTRATCOM Commander for the day-to-day management of his/her forces and for providing situational awareness.

Front 95

"Identify the two missions of USNORTHCOM.


(023-United States Northern Command)"

Back 95

"The two missions of USNORTHCOM are:

(1) Conduct operations to deter, prevent, and defeat threats and aggression aimed at the US, its territories, and interests within the assigned area of responsibility.

(2) As directed by the President or Secretary of Defense, provides defense support of civil authorities including consequence management operations."

Front 96

"Identify the seven Task Forces that make up USNORTHCOM.


(023-United States Northern Command)"

Back 96

"USNORTHCOM seven Task Forces are:

(1) Joint Force Headquarters-National Capital Region.

(2) JTF-Alaska.

(3) JTF-Civil Support.

(4) JTF-North.

(5) Standing Joint Force Headquarters-North.

(6) US Army North.

(7) Air Force North."

Front 97

"What are the two missions assigned to NORAD?


(024-North American Aerospace Defense Command)"

Back 97

"The two missions assigned to NORAD are:

(1) Aerospace Warning includes the monitoring of man-made objects in space, and the detection, validation, and warning of attack against North America whether by aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles, utilizing mutual support arrangements with other commands.

(2) Aerospace control includes ensuring air sovereignty and air defense of the airspace of the US and Canada."

Front 98

"Which center is the focal point for information generated by early warning systems and sensors located throughout the world?


(024-North American Aerospace Defense Command)"

Back 98

The MCC.

Front 99

"What is the function of the 310th Space Group?


(025-Air Force Reserve and the Air National Guard units)"

Back 99

The mission of the 310th Space Group is to provide Sat C2, space threat analysis, missile warning, communications, and Reserve mission evaluation and integration for AFSPC.

Front 100

"Which Reserve squadron augments the NOAA and what does it provide?


(025-Air Force Reserve and the Air National Guard units)"

Back 100

The 6th Space Operations Squadron augments the NOAA, which provides information to both military and civilian weather agencies, by operating the Defense Meteorological Satellite Program (DMSP).

Front 101

"Which Reserve squadron augments the 17th Test Squadron and what are its functions?


(025-Air Force Reserve and the Air National Guard units)"

Back 101

The 14th Test Squadron augments the 17th Test Squadron. It validates and enhances warfighter capabilities through testing and evaluation of space systems. It is responsible for planning, executing and reporting on all Force Development Evaluation, tactics and concepts testing, and command-directed testing of AFSPC's space assets.

Front 102

"What is the function of the 114th Range Operations Squadron?


(025-Air Force Reserve and the Air National Guard units)"

Back 102

The 114th Range Operations Squadron supports the 1 ROPS, and it is scheduled to operate a new one-of-a-kind mobile range safety system designed to monitor space-vehicle launches from Cape Canaveral.

Front 103

"What is the mission of the Space Innovation and Development Center?


(026-Space Innovation and Development Center)"

Back 103

The mission of Space Innovation and Development center is to advance full-spectrum warfare through rapid innovation, integration, training, testing, and experimentation.

Front 104

"What is the mission of the Space Battlelab?


(026-Space Innovation and Development Center)"

Back 104

The mission of the Space Battlelab is to transform space capabilities into solutions for today's warfighting problems.

Front 105

"What is the function of the 17th Test Squadron?


(026-Space Innovation and Development Center)"

Back 105

The function of the 17th Test Squadron is to validate and enhance warfighter capabilities through testing and evaluation of space systems.

Front 106

"Identify three of the six missions of SMDC/ARSTRAT.


(027-US Army and Space Missile Defense Command/US Army Forces Strategic Command)"

Back 106

"Any three of the following SMDC/ARSTRAT mission areas:

(1) Space operations.

(2) Information operations.

(3) Global strike.

(4) Integrated missile defense.

(5) Command and control communications, computers, intelligence/ surveillance/reconnaissance.

(6) Combating weapons of mass destruction."

Front 107

"Which Army unit maintains the Defense Satellite Communications System?


(027-US Army and Space Missile Defense Command/US Army Forces Strategic Command)"

Back 107

The 53d Signal Battalion (SATCON) maintains the 24/7 mission of on-orbit command, control and communications of the Defense Satellite Communications System.

Front 108

"Which Army unit operates the Joint Tactical Ground Stations?


(027-US Army and Space Missile Defense Command/US Army Forces Strategic Command)"

Back 108

1st Space Battalion's Theater Missile Warning Company operates the Joint Tactical Ground Stations.

Front 109

"Identify the four areas that 1C6s provide space operations assessments to AOCs.


(028-1C6 Space liaison positions)"

Back 109

"1C6 operators provide space operations assessments to the AOC in the following areas:

(1) Communications satellite capability.

(2) Navigation satellite capability.

(3) Weather satellite capability.

(4) Theater Missile Defense capability."

Front 110

"List two of eight duties that 1C6 personnel provide at the Air and Space Operations Center.


(028-1C6 Space liaison positions)"

Back 110

"Any two of the following eight duties performed by 1C6 personnel at the Air and Space Operations center:

(1) Collects and organizes information from space-based systems to develop plans and procedures that fully integrate and exploit space based systems to achieve battlefield dominance.

(2) Provides space expertise in planning for contingencies and exercises.

(3) Provides information on space education, information warfare, multi-spectral imagery, and other warfighter issues.

(4) Coordinates reach-back with space agencies outside the AOC.

(5) Assists in the development strategies to gain and maintain space superiority.

(6) Provides expertise to other functional areas in the AOC such as Combat Search and Rescue, Weather and Communications.

(7) Participates in the planning meetings for exercises and deployments.

(8) Briefs the status of communications satellites, GPS, weather, missile warning, and anything else that could have space applications."

Front 111

"Which AETC squadron provides initial career field training for 1C6 personnel?


(029-Other supporting agencies)"

Back 111

The 533 TRS conducts enlisted Space 100 (the initial career field course for all 1C6s), Missile Warning, Space Control, Space Surveillance, and Sat C2 training.

Front 112

"What Navy unit operates the UHF-Follow On/FLTSATCOM systems?


(029-Other supporting agencies)"

Back 112

The NAVSOC, headquartered at Point Mugu, California, operates, manages and maintains the Ultra High Frequency Follow-On/FLTSATCOM systems.

Front 113

"What agency's mission is to develop and operate unique and innovative overhead reconnaissance systems and to conduct intelligence related activities?


(029-Other supporting agencies)"

Back 113

The NRO's mission is to develop and operate unique and innovative overhead reconnaissance systems and conducts intelligence related activities essential for US National Security.

Front 114

"What agency leads the front on SINGINT and IA missions?


(029-Other supporting agencies)"

Back 114

The NSA/CSS.

Front 115

"What corporation is a federally funded research and development center and what is its function?


(029-Other supporting agencies)"

Back 115

The Aerospace Corporation is a federally funded research and development center, and it is sponsored by the Air Force. It provides objective technical analyses and assessments for space programs that serve the national interest.

Front 116

"What agency is the DOD's single focal point for space education and training, complementing existing space education programs?


(029-Other supporting agencies)"

Back 116

The National Security Space Institute, located in Colorado Springs, Colorado, is the DOD's single focal point for space education and training, complementing existing space education programs at the Air University, the Naval Postgraduate School, and the Air Force Institute of Technology.

Front 117

"Identify the four areas for which the NOAA provides accurate and objective scientific information.


(029-Other supporting agencies)"

Back 117

"The NOAA provides accurate and objective scientific information in four particular areas of national and global importance:

(1) Ecosystems.

(2) Climate.

(3) Weather and water.

(4) Commerce and transportation."

Front 118

"What is the Air Force Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance Agency's mission?


(029-Other supporting agencies)"

Back 118

The AF ISR Agency's mission is to deliver multi-source intelligence products, applications, services, and resources.

Front 119

"Why do you need clear and effective command relationships?


(030-Command authority, and command and control arrangements)"

Back 119

Clear and effective command relationships are central to effective operations and organizations.

Front 120

"Identify the four types of command relationships.


(030-Command authority, and command and control arrangements)"

Back 120

"(1) COCOM.

(2) OPCON.

(3) TACON.

(4) Support."

Front 121

"Why is ADCON different than other command relationships?


(030-Command authority, and command and control arrangements)"

Back 121

ADCON is a service specific command authority, and flows through each service's channels. This authority is not an operational command authority, but provides the requisite authority for services to execute their individual "organize, train, and equip" functions.

Front 122

"Describe what is meant by TACON.


(030-Command authority, and command and control arrangements)"

Back 122

TACON is the command authority over assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capability or forces made available for tasking, that is limited to the detailed and, usually, local direction and control of movements or maneuvers necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned.

Front 123

"Space command and control arrangements can be divided into two forms; what are they?


(030-Command authority, and command and control arrangements)"

Back 123

"(1) Global C2.

(2) Theater C2."

Front 124

"What is significant about the SCA?


(030-Command authority, and command and control arrangements)"

Back 124

The SCA is an authority within a joint force aiding in the coordination of joint space operations and integration of space capabilities and effects. The SCA is an authority, not a person.

Front 125

"How does the JSPOC enforce its command and control role?


(031-Command and control of space forces)"

Back 125

One of the ways the JSPOC enforces C2 is through the use of the STO.

Front 126

"Identify two duties that are performed at a wing CP.


(031-Command and control of space forces)"

Back 126

"Any two of these duties performed by a wing CP:

(1) Respond to emergency action messages, and initiate/complete emergency action checklists.

(2) Perform emergency/crisis notification, coordination, and disaster response.

(3) Maintain C2 systems."

Front 127

"Who has the ultimate responsibility to make sure the squadron's mission is accomplished?


(032-Crew operations)"

Back 127

The squadron commander (CC) has ultimate responsibility to ensure the mission is accomplished.

Front 128

"Who is the most senior ranking 1C6 in the squadron?


(032-Crew operations)"

Back 128

The most senior ranking 1C6 is the squadron superintendent (DOS).

Front 129

"Identify the four requirements needed to become certified CMR.


(032-Crew operations)"

Back 129

"The four requirements are:

(1) Attend IQT (the space ops courses you went through at the 533 TRS) and complete UQT (the training you received when you first arrived to your unit).

(2) Complete an initial or upgrade qualification evaluation.

(3) Meet the medical qualifications for space and missile operations duty established in AFI 48-123, Volume 3, Medical Examinations and Standards, which establishes the rules for the DNIF program.

(4) Complete a formal CMR briefing."

Front 130

"What flight performs evaluations?


(032-Crew operations)"

Back 130

The DOV performs evaluations at the squadron level and OGV performs them at the group level.

Front 131

"The National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2001 amended the Space Commission's mandate. What task was added?


(201-The National Security Space Program)"

Back 131

"The advisability of:

(1) eliminating command requirements,

(2) establishing new command requirements and

(3) rotating the command of US Space Command among different DOD generals and admirals, instead of just Air Force generals."

Front 132

"According to the Space Commission, what was the percentage of flag officers that came from a space background?


(201-The National Security Space Program)"

Back 132

Fewer than 20 percent.

Front 133

"Who is responsible for setting National Space Policy?


(201-The National Security Space Program)"

Back 133

The President.

Front 134

"Who is the DOD Executive Agent for Space?


(201-The National Security Space Program)"

Back 134

The Under Secretary of the Air Force.

Front 135

"Who is the Space Professional Functional Authority?


(201-The National Security Space Program)"

Back 135

The AFSPC commander.

Front 136

"What is Operationally Responsive Space?


(201-The National Security Space Program)"

Back 136

Operationally Responsive Space is a concept of meeting new requirements within months and getting new capabilities into the hands of those who need them.

Front 137

"What organization do you as an enlisted member attend to advance as a Space Professional?


(201-The National Security Space Program)"

Back 137

You attend the National Security Space Institute (NSSI) to advance as a Space Professional.

Front 138

"Name the two primary enlisted career fields that are Space Professionals.


(201-The National Security Space Program)"

Back 138

1C6X1 -- Space Systems Operations and 13SXX -- Space and Missile Operations.

Front 139

"When was Sputnik 1 launched?


(202-The evolution of the National Security Space Program)"

Back 139

4 October 1957.

Front 140

"When was NASA created?


(202-The evolution of the National Security Space Program)"

Back 140

1 October 1958.

Front 141

"When did Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin land on the Moon?


(202-The evolution of the National Security Space Program)"

Back 141

20 July 1969.

Front 142

"What system was born out of a desire by NASA to ferry astronauts to large space stations and a desire of the Air Force to put military astronauts into space?


(202-The evolution of the National Security Space Program)"

Back 142

The Space Transportation System, commonly known as the Space Shuttle.

Front 143

"Describe a goal of the International Space Station.


(202-The evolution of the National Security Space Program)"

Back 143

To create a permanent orbiting science institute in space capable of performing long-duration research in the materials and life sciences areas in a nearly gravity-free environment.

Front 144

"What system was the US' first ICBM?


(202-The evolution of the National Security Space Program)"

Back 144

The Atlas ICBM.

Front 145

"When was Space Command activated?


(202-The evolution of the National Security Space Program)"

Back 145

1 September 1982.

Front 146

"When was the Joint Space Operations Center activated?


(202-The evolution of the National Security Space Program)"

Back 146

18 May 2005.

Front 147

"Does the US ""own"" the space above its geographic boundaries?


(203-The foundation of Military Space Operations)"

Back 147

No, accepted international conventions do not extend a nation's geographical boundaries into space.

Front 148

"Which treaty provides the basic framework on international space law?


(203-The foundation of Military Space Operations)"

Back 148

The "Outer Space Treaty."

Front 149

"What principle refers to the design and use of space objects with nuclear power sources?


(203-The foundation of Military Space Operations)"

Back 149

The Principles Relevant to the Use of Nuclear Power Sources in Outer Space.

Front 150

"Do US national space policy principles allow for the protection of its space assets?


(203-The foundation of Military Space Operations)"

Back 150

Yes, national space policy principles allow the US to take those actions necessary to protect its space capabilities; respond to interference; and deny, if necessary, adversaries the use of space capabilities hostile to US national interests.

Front 151

"Identify the first general guideline of US national space policy.


(203-The foundation of Military Space Operations)"

Back 151

The first general guideline is to develop Space Professionals.

Front 152

"Why is orbital debris a concern to the US?


(203-The foundation of Military Space Operations)"

Back 152

It poses a risk to continued reliable use of space-based services and operations and to the safety of persons and property in space and on Earth.

Front 153

"What is the fundamental goal of the President's PNT policy?


(203-The foundation of Military Space Operations)"

Back 153

To ensure that the US maintains space-based positioning, navigation, and timing services, augmentation, back-up, and service denial capabilities.

Front 154

"Who has overall responsibility over GPS?


(203-The foundation of Military Space Operations)"

Back 154

The Secretary of Defense.

Front 155

"Who is designated as the MDA for all DOD space programs?


(204-The National Security Space acquisition framework)"

Back 155

The Under Secretary of the Air Force is the DoD MDA for all DoD Space Major Defense Acquisition Programs and is the individual with overall responsibility of the programs.

Front 156

"What is the name of the program RDT&E of more than $365 million or a total system procurement cost of more than $2.19 billion?


(204-The National Security Space acquisition framework)"

Back 156

Space Major Defense Acquisition Program (MDAP).

Front 157

"What is the name of the program requiring an eventual total expenditure for RDT&E of more than $140 million, or to have a total procurement cost of more than $660 million?


(204-The National Security Space acquisition framework)"

Back 157

Major Space Program.

Front 158

"What is the name of the program that does not meet the criteria for a Space MDAP or a Space Major Program?


(204-The National Security Space acquisition framework)"

Back 158

Non-Major Space Program.

Front 159

"Which systems center develops science and technology programs to support other centers?


(204-The National Security Space acquisition framework)"

Back 159

The Air Force Research Laboratory.

Front 160

"Which organization is a for-profit organization contracted to provide specific program management expertise for specific programs?


(204-The National Security Space acquisition framework)"

Back 160

System Engineering & Technical Assistance (SETA) Contractors.

Front 161

"Which systems center has the responsibility for some SMC/AFSPC operations, but falls under the organizational control of Air Force Materiel Command?


(204-The National Security Space acquisition framework)"

Back 161

Electronic Systems center.

Front 162

"What is the purpose of JCIDS?


(205-The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS))"

Back 162

To identify existing capability gaps or future shortcomings and describe the attributes of effective solutions as well as identifying the most effective approach to resolve shortcomings.

Front 163

"Which process is used by AFSPC to define its share of goals that it must fulfill in the National Military Strategy and to identify gaps in its own capabilities?


(205-The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS))"

Back 163

The Integrated Planning Process (IPP).

Front 164

"Which process action is used by AFSPC to analyze what is needed to fulfill each task identified by the Mission Area Assessment?


(205-The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS))"

Back 164

The Mission Needs Assessment (task-to-need).

Front 165

"What is the purpose of AFSPC's Strategic Master Plan?


(205-The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS))"

Back 165

It describes major thrust areas on which to concentrate to sustain, modernize, and transform AFSPC.

Front 166

"Once the AFSPC IPP identifies a gap that requires a material solution, what document is used to annotate the gap?


(205-The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS))"

Back 166

The Initial Capabilities Document.

Front 167

"What document is a further refinement of the Capabilities Development Document based on data from design reviews, engineering trade-offs and lessons learned?


(205-The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS))"

Back 167

The Capabilities Production Document.

Front 168

"What is the purpose of an Analysis of Alternatives (AoA)?


(205-The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS))"

Back 168

It defines alternative material options to provide the capability described in the Initial Capabilities Document.

Front 169

"What are the three phases of PPBE?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"

Back 169

"(1) Planning Phase,

(2) Programming Phase, and

(3) Budgeting Phase."

Front 170

"What is the function of the Planning Phase?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"

Back 170

To develop and review top-level policy guidance and determine what forces are needed to counter our adversary's capabilities.

Front 171

"When is the Strategic Planning Guidance issued?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"

Back 171

The Strategic Planning Guidance is issued early in the Planning Phase to provide overall policy and strategy guidance to be used in developing the defense program.

Front 172

"Name the five principle documents used in the Planning process.


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"

Back 172

"(1) National Military Strategy;

(2) SPG;

(3) Joint Planning Document;

(4) JPG; and

(5) Integrated Priority List."

Front 173

"What is the purpose of the Programming Phase?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"

Back 173

To translate the results of planning and allocate available resources into a rational, six-year Defense Department funding program. Programming is used to determine resource and program requirements to support goals specified in SPG/JPG.

Front 174

"When are POMs and PCPs issued?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"

Back 174

The POM is issued during the even-numbered On-Budget years, and contains recommended programming and resource allocations. PCPs are issued during odd-numbered Off-Budget years to request program changes to the baseline.

Front 175

"What is the focus of the Budgeting Phase?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"

Back 175

The Budgeting Phase focuses on effective use of funds and the balancing of limited funds. The end result is a defensible budget.

Front 176

"What is the primary document used by the Services and defense agencies to submit budget estimates?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"

Back 176

The Budget Estimate Submission is the primary document used by the Services and defense agencies to submit budget estimates.

Front 177

"What is the most critical element of the budget review process?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"

Back 177

The most critical element of the budget review process is the detailed analysis conducted by the staff of the Under Secretary of Defense (Comptroller).

Front 178

"What is the final output of PPBE?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"

Back 178

The submission of the DOD budget to the President for approval and to Congress for authorization and appropriation.

Front 179

"Why did the Execution Phase create a longer process?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"

Back 179

It is now a two-year cycle where there are not many changes during the odd years and the even years are when major baselines (JPG, POM, and Budget Estimate Submissions) are established and submitted.

Front 180

"What does a budget execution and performance review allow for?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"

Back 180

A budget execution and performance review allows DOD to assess the allocation of resources and determine whether the Department is achieving its planned performance goals against budget estimates.

Front 181

"What is the purpose of a Program Element Code?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"

Back 181

A Program Element Code serves as the means for Congress to identify specific Program Elements.

Front 182

"What is an Authorization Bill?


(207-The purposes of money)"

Back 182

An Authorization Bill is an act of Congress that provides permission to buy and sets limits on program funds.

Front 183

"Which Act prohibits making an obligation in excess of the amount available?


(207-The purposes of money)"

Back 183

The Anti-Deficiency Act. The Act forbids an obligation to pay money from the US Treasury in advance of a Congressional appropriation.

Front 184

"What Program Element Code/color of money is used for your paycheck?


(207-The purposes of money)"

Back 184

3500 -- Military Personnel.

Front 185

"It is legal to transfer funds from one Program Element into a second Program Element. Is it legal to transfer funds into a third Program Element?


(207-The purposes of money)"

Back 185

No. This is a misappropriation and is against the law.

Front 186

"What is the preferred strategy for rapid acquisition of mature technology for the user?


(208-NSS 03-01 acquisition models)"

Back 186

Evolutionary Acquisition.

Front 187

"How is a satellite systems contractor selected?


(208-NSS 03-01 acquisition models)"

Back 187

Instead of a "fly-off," the selection between satellite systems contractors usually occurs based on design.

Front 188

"What are Key Decision Points (KDPs)?


(208-NSS 03-01 acquisition models)"

Back 188

KDPs are points in the acquisition timeline of a DOD Space program where the program's maturity is evaluated by the MDA to determine its readiness to proceed into the next acquisition phase.

Front 189

"What is a system-level CONOPS?


(208-NSS 03-01 acquisition models)"

Back 189

A system-level CONOPS is a high-level, written description of a space system that identifies the system's purpose, operational assumptions, the desired effects, how the system will be used, and who is envisioned to use it.

Front 190

"What is the purpose of KDP-B?


(208-NSS 03-01 acquisition models)"

Back 190

To determine the program's readiness to begin the preliminary design development activities of Phase B. KDP-B is the official "program initiation" point for a NSS program.

Front 191

"What is the purpose of the Sustainment period?


(208-NSS 03-01 acquisition models)"

Back 191

To support a program that meets operational performance requirements and to sustain a system in the most cost-effective manner for the life of the system.

Front 192

"Why is an Operational Test and Evaluation conducted?


(208-NSS 03-01 acquisition models)"

Back 192

To assess a system or its components under realistic conditions to determine operational effectiveness and suitability as defined in the Capabilities Production Document.

Front 193

"What is a contract?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"

Back 193

An agreement, enforceable by law, between two or more competent parties, to do or not do something not prohibited by law, for legal consideration.

Front 194

"What types of contracts are used to ""buy"" contractor expertise usually for O&M programs?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"

Back 194

Service contracts are used to "buy" contractor expertise usually for O&M programs.

Front 195

"Which Contracting Officer administers contracts and usually works for the Defense Contract Management Agency?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"

Back 195

An Administrative Contracting Officer.

Front 196

"Why has the Air Force developed conflict of interest rules?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"

Back 196

To ensure fair treatment of competing contractors and avoid the appearance of improper influence of government actions.

Front 197

"When SMC starts to develop a new system, what document is used to solicit and award a contract?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"

Back 197

A request for proposal.

Front 198

"What is the purpose of a Statement of Work (SOW)?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"

Back 198

The SOW defines specifically how the contractor will fulfill the objectives laid out in the Statement of Objective. The SOW outlines the tasks the contractor is to perform, along with standards. It tells the contractor what to do but not how to do it.

Front 199

"Who performs most of the day-to-day evaluations of a contractor?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"

Back 199

Most of the day-to-day evaluations of a contractor are performed by the Quality Assurance Evaluator.

Front 200

"What is the purpose of logistics?


(210-Logistics)"

Back 200

To ensure that logistical planning is done from the conceptual phases of system acquisition through to disposal. Logistics ensures that the right things are at the right place at the right time to sustain a system.

Front 201

"What logistical element deals with the processes, procedures, techniques, training devices, and equipment used to train civilian and military personnel to operate and support a materiel system?


(210-Logistics)"

Back 201

Training and Training Support Systems.

Front 202

"What logistical element plans for the computer support of a space system?


(210-Logistics)"

Back 202

Computer Resource Support.

Front 203

"What is an IPT?


(211-The Integrated Process Team (IPT))"

Back 203

An IPT is a multidisciplinary group of people who are collectively responsible for delivering a defined product or process.

Front 204

"In what IPT procedure for success does the team leader ensure the goals and objectives of team members are consistent with project goals and objectives?


(211-The Integrated Process Team (IPT))"

Back 204

In the Goal Alignment.

Front 205

"In what IPT procedure for success should team members openly raise and discuss issues at the earliest possible opportunity?


(211-The Integrated Process Team (IPT))"

Back 205

In the Issues Raised and Resolved Early.

Front 206

"What are the four types of orbits derived from a conic section?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"

Back 206

Circle, ellipse, parabola, and hyperbola.

Front 207

"Which conic section has an eccentricity of zero?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"

Back 207

Circle.

Front 208

"Which conic section has an eccentricity greater than zero but less than one?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"

Back 208

Ellipse.

Front 209

"At what point in an elliptical orbit is the satellite nearest to the occupied focus?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"

Back 209

Perigee.

Front 210

"At what point in an elliptical orbit is the satellite farthest to the occupied focus?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"

Back 210

Apogee.

Front 211

"What is Kepler's first law of motion also known as?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"

Back 211

Law of ellipses, the orbit of each planet is an ellipse, with the Sun at one focus.

Front 212

"How do you apply Kepler's first law to man made objects?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"

Back 212

The orbit of a satellite is an ellipse with the center of the Earth at one focus.

Front 213

"When referring to Earth satellites, what does Kepler's second law of areas state?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"

Back 213

Every satellite orbits so that the line joining it with the center of the Earth sweeps over equal areas in equal times.

Front 214

"What is Newton's first law of motion?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"

Back 214

"For every object persists in its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless it is compelled to change that state by forces impressed on it." In other words, a body at rest tends to remain at rest, and a body in motion tends to remain in motion unless an outside force acts upon it.

Front 215

"What type of momentum must be equal to its mass (m) multiplied by its velocity (v) multiplied by its radius (r) of its orbit for a satellite to remain in orbit?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"

Back 215

Its angular momentum.

Front 216

"What is escape velocity?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"

Back 216

Escape velocity is that velocity required at a given location to establish a parabolic orbit.

Front 217

"At what point in an elliptical orbit is the velocity of a satellite at a minimum?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"

Back 217

Apogee.

Front 218

"What is the term used for locating the satellite position in its orbit with respect to time?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"

Back 218

Epoch time.

Front 219

"What is the term used for orienting the orbit within the orbital plane?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"

Back 219

Argument of perigee.

Front 220

"What is the term used for determining the northernmost and southernmost point of a satellite's orbit?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"

Back 220

Inclination.

Front 221

"What is/are the term(s) used for orienting the orbital plane with respect to the Earth and celestial sphere?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"

Back 221

Inclination and right ascension.

Front 222

"What is the term used for the ratio of how far the orbit deviates from a circle?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"

Back 222

Eccentricity.

Front 223

"What is/are the term(s) used to specify the size and shape of an orbit?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"

Back 223

Eccentricity and semi-major axis.

Front 224

"What is the term used for the time it takes a satellite to travel from ascending node to ascending node?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"

Back 224

Nodal period.

Front 225

"What is the term used for the time it takes a satelitte to travel from perigree to perigree?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"

Back 225

Anomalistic period.

Front 226

"What is the term used for the angle between equatorial and orbital planes?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"

Back 226

Inclination.

Front 227

"What is the term used for the celestial measurement similar to longitude, measured in hours?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"

Back 227

Right ascension.

Front 228

"What type of orbit will a satellite be in if you launch the satellite due north?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"

Back 228

Polar orbit.

Front 229

"Which type of period is a measure of the time it takes a satellite to travel from zero Right ascension to the next zero Right ascension?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"

Back 229

The sidereal period.

Front 230

"What is the minimum period that a satellite can have and still be in a stable, non-decaying orbit?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"

Back 230

88 minutes.

Front 231

"Name the five common elements that affect the shape of a satellite's ground track.


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"

Back 231

"(1) Injection point;

(2) Inclination;

(3) Period;

(4) Eccentricity;

(5) Argument of perigee."

Front 232

"Which primary factor defines the maximum latitude, north and south of the equator that a satellite reaches in its orbit?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"

Back 232

The inclination.

Front 233

"What type of map makes satellite ground tracks appear to have a different shape than on a sphere?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"

Back 233

A flat map of the Earth (Mercator projection).

Front 234

"In which type of orbit is a satellite's period of revolution equal to the sidereal day?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"

Back 234

A geosynchronous orbit.

Front 235

"What type of orbit typically has an inclination of 63.4° and is highly eccentric (0.73)?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"

Back 235

Molniya orbits.

Front 236

"What type of orbit is a retrograde, polar low-Earth orbit, where the orbital plane's orientation with respect to the Sun is constant throughout the year?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"

Back 236

A sun-synchronous orbit.

Front 237

"What factor causes each successive track of a satellite in a near-Earth orbit to cross the equator at a point west of the preceding track?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"

Back 237

The Earth's rotation.

Front 238

"What effect will increasing the altitude of a satellite have on its ground tracks crossing the equator?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"

Back 238

If you increase a satellite's altitude, thus increasing its period, then the distance between successive crossings of the equator will also increase.

Front 239

"What is the relationship of nodal movement to the orbital motion of the satellite?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"

Back 239

The nodes always move in a direction opposite to the orbital motion of the satellite.

Front 240

"What effect will increasing the eccentricity of an orbit have on a satellite's ground track?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"

Back 240

As the eccentricity of an orbit increases, the shape of the ground trace changes significantly, resulting in a series of irregular curves on a flat map that has one lobe larger than the other.

Front 241

"For the Geographic coordinate system; define the use, origin, fundamental plane, and principal direction.


(215-Coordinate systems)"

Back 241

"Use -- Locate tracking station on the surface of the Earth.

Origin -- Center of Earth.

Fundamental plane -- Equator.

Principal direction -- Prime meridian."

Front 242

"For the Topocentric coordinate system; define the use, origin, fundamental plane, and principal direction.


(215-Coordinate systems)"

Back 242

"Use -- Locate object with respect to the tracking station.

Origin -- Tracking station.

Fundamental plane -- Local horizon.

Principal direction -- True north."

Front 243

"For the Geocentric coordinate system; define the use, origin, fundamental plane, and principal direction.


(215-Coordinate systems)"

Back 243

"Use -- Orient a point in space with respect to the celestial sphere.

Origin -- Center of Earth.

Fundamental plane -- Equator.

Principal direction -- First point of Aries (vernal equinox)."

Front 244

"For the Orbit coordinate system; define the use, origin, fundamental plane, and principal direction.


(215-Coordinate systems)"

Back 244

"Use -- Locate an Earth orbiting satellite within its orbital path.

Origin -- Center of Earth.

Fundamental plane -- Orbital Plane.

Principal direction -- True anomaly."

Front 245

"What are the two general classes of satellite maneuvers?


(216-In-plane maneuvers)"

Back 245

Rendezvous and transfers.

Front 246

"What is an in-plane maneuver?


(216-In-plane maneuvers)"

Back 246

Those which only alter the size (semi-major axis and period) or shape (eccentricity) of an orbit.

Front 247

"What happens to perigee and apogee heights if an in-plane boost thrust is applied while the satellite is approaching apogee?


(216-In-plane maneuvers)"

Back 247

Perigee and apogee heights will increase.

Front 248

"Name the orbital point that is always common to the pre-thrust and post-thrust orbits.


(216-In-plane maneuvers)"

Back 248

The thrust point.

Front 249

"What satellite maneuver is the most economical method of moving between two coplanar orbits?


(216-In-plane maneuvers)"

Back 249

Hohmann transfer.

Front 250

"State the major disadvantage of the Hohmann transfer.


(216-In-plane maneuvers)"

Back 250

It is the slowest maneuver, the transfer time is one half (1/2) of the period of the transfer orbit.

Front 251

"When using the Hohmann transfer, what two factors must be accurately controlled to perform a precise maneuver?


(216-In-plane maneuvers)"

Back 251

Magnitude and direction of the Delta V (burn).

Front 252

"Where are the thrust points in a fast transfer maneuver?


(216-In-plane maneuvers)"

Back 252

About halfway between perigee and apogee, and does not include the significant slowing down that occurs when an orbiting body approaches apogee.

Front 253

"State the major disadvantage of the fast transfer maneuver.


(216-In-plane maneuvers)"

Back 253

The fast transfer is expensive in terms of fuel, requiring about 50 percent more fuel than the Hohmann transfer.

Front 254

"What is a simple maneuver?


(217-Out-of-plane maneuvers are accomplished)"

Back 254

The orientation of the orbital plane (inclination), leaving the size and shape of the orbit unchanged.

Front 255

"Where must the plane change of a simple maneuver take place?


(217-Out-of-plane maneuvers are accomplished)"

Back 255

The plane change must occur at a point common to both orbits, either the ascending or descending node.

Front 256

"In a simple maneuver, what happens to the inclination when a south thrust is applied as the satellite is passing through the ascending node of the original orbit?


(217-Out-of-plane maneuvers are accomplished)"

Back 256

In a simple maneuver, when a south thrust is applied as the satellite is passing through the ascending node of the original orbit, the orbital inclination decreases as the shape of the orbit remains the same.

Front 257

"What is a combined maneuver?


(217-Out-of-plane maneuvers are accomplished)"

Back 257

A combined maneuver has both an in-plane and an out-of-plane component.

Front 258

"In a combined maneuver, what happens when a northern thrust is applied?


(217-Out-of-plane maneuvers are accomplished)"

Back 258

In a combined maneuver, for a north thrust, the inclination increases and the ascending/descending nodes move east.

Front 259

"In a combined maneuver, what happens to a satellite traveling in a general south direction and a northern or southern thrust is applied?


(217-Out-of-plane maneuvers are accomplished)"

Back 259

The inclination increases.

Front 260

"At what altitudes does the Air Force require the use of supplemental oxygen by crewmembers?


(218-The ""theater of operations"" of space)"

Back 260

Altitudes above 10,000 feet.

Front 261

"Why, as far as humans are concerned, does space begin at 9 miles above the earth?


(218-The ""theater of operations"" of space)"

Back 261

Supplemental oxygen fails as a sufficient aid to sustain human life.

Front 262

"Above what altitude must the cabin or space suit have a supply of both oxygen and pressure independent of the outside atmosphere?


(218-The ""theater of operations"" of space)"

Back 262

Above an altitude of 15 miles, compressing the outside air to pressurize a cabin is no longer effective. People need a sealed environment containing all necessary supplies to live.

Front 263

"At what altitude does space begin for the aeronautical engineer?


(218-The ""theater of operations"" of space)"

Back 263

62 miles (100 Kilometers) above the earth.

Front 264

"Flights above this altitude earn a crew member the right to wear astronauts' wings?


(218-The ""theater of operations"" of space)"

Back 264

50 miles.

Front 265

"What is used as the working definition of ""space"" for space operations?


(218-The ""theater of operations"" of space)"

Back 265

80 miles.

Front 266

"What temperatures can be reached by an unprotected body in space?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"

Back 266

Temperatures can reach 212° Fahrenheit on the sunlit side while dropping to -279° Fahrenheit on the shaded side.

Front 267

"Why is oxidation a problem for low-Earth orbiting satellites?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"

Back 267

Oxidation (rust) can still occur in LEO due to atomic oxygen exposure.

Front 268

"How does the Earth's magnetic field act as a protective shield?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"

Back 268

The Earth's magnetic field acts as a protective field by deflecting solar radiation.

Front 269

"Why does the South Atlantic anomaly affect space operations?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"

Back 269

The South Atlantic anomaly creates an area where the geomagnetic field draws high-energy particles closer to the Earth than in other regions of the magnetosphere. A satellite passing through this area can be affected by the trapped particles.

Front 270

"What is the effect of solar winds on the Earth?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"

Back 270

These solar winds buffet the Earth's magnetic field and can produce storms in the Earth's magnetosphere.

Front 271

"What kinds of problems can energetic protons cause for satellites?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"

Back 271

Energetic protons can cause false commands, hardware/software failure, and false sensor readings.

Front 272

"What kinds of problems can be caused by an extreme geomagnetic storm?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"

Back 272

During an extreme storm (G5), satellites may experience extensive surface charging, problems with orientation, and uplink, downlink and tracking data.

Front 273

"Why must satellites operating in the Van Allen radiation belts be protected?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"

Back 273

Because as electrons, protons, and charged particles are deflected by the Earth's magnetosphere, many of them are channeled into belts along the lines of force of the magnetic field. This causes spacecraft charging.

Front 274

"What potentially serious hazards do micrometeoroids pose to satellites?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"

Back 274

Impacts between micrometeoroids and a satellite would usually not be catastrophic, but could erode the satellite's surface. This erosion is a potentially serious hazard to optical surfaces, to materials used for heat exchange and temperature control, and to the solar panels that provide power for the spacecraft.

Front 275

"What is radiowave scintillation and how can it affect communications?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"

Back 275

Radiowave scintillation is similar to the visual flickering of starlight caused by atmospheric turbulence. This can result in signal fading and phase changes on satellite command uplinks, data downlinks, or communications signals.

Front 276

"What are perturbations?


(220-Other effects of the space environment)"

Back 276

Any forces acting on a satellite, other than the central gravitational force of the Earth are considered to be perturbations.

Front 277

"What perturbation is most significant on satellites in low-Earth orbits?


(220-Other effects of the space environment)"

Back 277

Atmospheric drag.

Front 278

"Name the types of satellites that have two eclipse seasons totaling about 44 days.


(220-Other effects of the space environment)"

Back 278

Geosynchronous satellites.

Front 279

"What are the two parts of an eclipse?


(220-Other effects of the space environment)"

Back 279

The parts of an eclipse are: the shadow cone in partial shadow is the penumbra and the cone of total shadow is the umbra.

Front 280

"What are the four layers of the atmosphere?


(221-The atmosphere)"

Back 280

"(1) Troposphere,

(2) Stratosphere,

(3) Mesosphere and

(4) Thermosphere."

Front 281

"Where does the troposhpere start and why is it important?


(221-The atmosphere)"

Back 281

The troposphere starts at the Earth's surface and extends 5 to 9 miles. This part of the atmosphere is the densest and almost all weather is in this region.

Front 282

"In what layers is most of the air located?


(221-The atmosphere)"

Back 282

Ninety-nine percent of "air" is located in the troposphere and stratosphere.

Front 283

"Where is the ionosphere?


(221-The atmosphere)"

Back 283

The ionosphere lies from about 50–250 miles in height and is electrically charged as shortwave solar radiation ionizes the gas molecules.

Front 284

"What layer is known as the upper atmosphere?


(221-The atmosphere)"

Back 284

The thermosphere starts just above the mesosphere and extends to 372 miles high. This layer is known as the upper atmosphere.

Front 285

"What type of degree is required to apply for the enlisted astronaut program?


(222-The enlisted astronaut program)"

Back 285

A bachelor's degree from an accredited institution in engineering, mathematics, biological or physical sciences (technology and management degrees do not qualify).

Front 286

"What type of physical is required to apply for the enlisted astronaut program?


(222-The enlisted astronaut program)"

Back 286

A current Flying Class II physical is required.

Front 287

"In regards to the President's Positional, Navigation and Timing policy, what is the Secretary of Defense charged with?


(401-Threats to space operations)"

Back 287

The Secretary of Defense is charged with "effectively utilizing the GPS services in the event of adversary jamming or other interference."

Front 288

"What is the disadvantage of using an ASAT weapon?


(401-Threats to space operations)"

Back 288

An ASAT creates a debris cloud that is a threat to friendly as well as enemy space assets for 20 years or longer.

Front 289

"What are two vulnerabilities of ground segments in regards to space systems?


(401-Threats to space operations)"

Back 289

Two vulnerabilities of space systems ground segments are physical attack (sabotage) and computer network intrusion (hacking).

Front 290

"What are the two basic laser weapon categories?


(401-Threats to space operations)"

Back 290

"(1) Low-power lasers are typically designed to spoof or jam satellite electro-optical sensors using laser radiation that is in the sensor's operating frequency, thus temporarily blinding the satellite.

(2) High-power lasers can permanently damage or destroy a satellite by radiating enough energy to overheat its parts."

Front 291

"What is the DoD definition of a ballistic missile?


(401-Threats to space operations)"

Back 291

The DoD defines a ballistic missile as any missile which does not rely upon aerodynamic surfaces to produce lift and consequently follows a ballistic trajectory when thrust is terminated.

Front 292

"What are the effects of a HEMP?


(401-Threats to space operations)"

Back 292

A HEMP can overload computer circuitry with the effects similar to, but causing damage much more swiftly than a lightning strike.

Front 293

"Why is it more difficult to harden equipment against a HPM weapon?


(401-Threats to space operations)"

Back 293

HPM radiation is comprised of shorter wave forms at higher-frequencies, which make it highly effective against electronic equipment and more difficult to harden against.

Front 294

"What is the primary payload of a DSP satellite? Describe what it does.


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"

Back 294

The primary payload of the geosynchronous DSP satellites is the infrared sensor. With this IR sensor, a DSP satellite detects heat signatures from ballistic missiles and space launches against the Earth's background.

Front 295

"What type of orbit are DSP satellites in?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"

Back 295

Geosynchronous orbit.

Front 296

"What is the function of the mobile DSP ground station unit?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"

Back 296

The mobile DSP ground station unit (housed in large semi trucks) detects strategic missile launches and NUDETs, providing constant worldwide strategic missile warning coverage.

Front 297

"List the parts that comprise the primary structure of the DSP satellite.


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"

Back 297

The primary structure includes the equipment compartment, propulsion compartment, truss assembly, the base, and the adapter assembly.

Front 298

"List the parts that comprise the secondary structure of the DSP satellite.


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"

Back 298

The secondary structure is comprised of the solar arrays and their support structures.

Front 299

"What is the primary source of power for the DSP satellite?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"

Back 299

The solar array is the primary source of electrical power, and during normal operations, it supplies all of the satellite's electrical needs.

Front 300

"What is the purpose of the power control unit?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"

Back 300

The power control unit performs the automatic monitoring and control functions of the electrical power and distribution subsystem.

Front 301

"Why must the DSP satellite batteries be periodically reconditioned?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"

Back 301

The continual charging and lack of sustained discharge during the months before an eclipse period has weakened the batteries' ability to hold a sustained load, so it's necessary to recondition the batteries.

Front 302

"What is the heart of the attitude control subsystem and how does it function?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"

Back 302

A hardwired digital computer that correlates the output from the sun sensors and the Earth sensors to thruster firings.

Front 303

"In the DSP communications subsystem, what is Link 1 used for?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"

Back 303

Link 1 is the downlink channel for mission data. It contains encrypted mission data from the satellite's sensor to the ground station.

Front 304

"What information is included in state of health telemetry?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"

Back 304

Battery voltages, temperatures, satellite pointing angles, subsystem equipment status, ranging, and clock data.

Front 305

"Which link is used to uplink (send) commands to the satellite?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"

Back 305

Link 3.

Front 306

"Which link contains satellite impact sensor data?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"

Back 306

Link 4 downlinks impact sensor data.

Front 307

"Which unit is the primary user of Links 7 and 8?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"

Back 307

The mobile ground station is the primary user of Links 7 and 8.

Front 308

"Describe the four capabilities SBIRS provides.


(403-Principles of the space based infrared system)"

Back 308

"(1) missile warning,

(2) missile defense,

(3) technical intelligence, and

(4) battlespace awareness."

Front 309

"What does the third increment of SBIRS consist of?


(403-Principles of the space based infrared system)"

Back 309

Increment 3 is expected to add midcourse tracking and discrimination of national missile defense and TBM threats. Guaranteed detection of national missile defense threats, space surveillance and weather support.

Front 310

"What is the purpose of the MCS?


(403-Principles of the space based infrared system)"

Back 310

The MCS is the centralized processing center for the DSP and future SBIRS constellation. The MCS houses the hardware, software and personnel for performing the SBIRS mission.

Front 311

"How many mission crew chiefs are there per crew within SBIRS?


(403-Principles of the space based infrared system)"

Back 311

There are two MCCHs per crew: a strategic MCCH, and a theater MCCH.

Front 312

"Which operator executes DSP satellite constellation state-of-health/contingency commanding?


(403-Principles of the space based infrared system)"

Back 312

The satellite systems operator.

Front 313

"Which crew position is a civilian contractor who assists with SSO duties?


(403-Principles of the space based infrared system)"

Back 313

The spacecraft engineer is a civilian satellite engineer who assists with SSO duties.

Front 314

"Which is the first portion of the ground station to receive the data from the satellite?


(403-Principles of the space based infrared system)"

Back 314

The satellite readout station.

Front 315

"In what document can an operator find the day's schedule for commanding activities?


(403-Principles of the space based infrared system)"

Back 315

Commanding activities are on the daily activity schedule.

Front 316

"Briefly describe the primary mission of PAVE PAWS.


(404-Principles of the PAVE phased-array warning system)"

Back 316

To provide strategic and tactical missile warning data and support attack assessment of an SLBM or an ICBM attack against North America.

Front 317

"Briefly describe the secondary mission of PAVE PAWS.


(404-Principles of the PAVE phased-array warning system)"

Back 317

Space surveillance.

Front 318

"How does PAVE PAWS differ from older mechanical radars?


(404-Principles of the PAVE phased-array warning system)"

Back 318

It does not have to be physically aimed at an object in space to track or observe it. The phased-array antenna is in a fixed position and is part of the exterior building wall.

Front 319

"List the squadrons responsible for the operation of PAVE PAWS and their location.


(404-Principles of the PAVE phased-array warning system)"

Back 319

The 6 SWS at Cape Cod Air Force Station, Massachusetts, and the 7 SWS at Beale AFB, California.

Front 320

"Describe the system, radar, number of faces, range (miles), and azimuth/elevation coverage for Beale/Cod.


(404-Principles of the PAVE phased-array warning system)"

Back 320

"System -- PAVE PAWS

Radar -- AN/FPS-123

Number of faces -- 2

Range (miles) -- 3,452

Azimuth/elevation coverage -- 240º Az; 3º to 85º El"

Front 321

"What is the primary mission of the BMEWS?


(405-Principles of the ballistic missile early warning system)"

Back 321

To provide warning data on all ICBMs and SLBMs penetrating the coverage area.

Front 322

"What is the secondary mission of the BMEWS?


(405-Principles of the ballistic missile early warning system)"

Back 322

Space surveillance.

Front 323

"List the BMEWS sites and state their location.


(405-Principles of the ballistic missile early warning system)"

Back 323

Site I is at Thule Air Base, Greenland, Site II is at Clear Air Force Station, Alaska and Site III is at Fylingdales, England.

Front 324

"Describe the system, radar, number of faces, range (miles), and azimuth/elevation coverage for the Clear BMEWS site.


(405-Principles of the ballistic missile early warning system)"

Back 324

"System -- BMEWS

Radar -- AN/FPS-123

Number of faces -- 2

Range (miles) -- 3,452

Azimuth/elevation coverage -- 240º Az; 3º to 85º El"

Front 325

"Describe the system, radar, number of faces, range (miles), and azimuth/elevation coverage for the Thule BMEWS site.


(405-Principles of the ballistic missile early warning system)"

Back 325

"System -- BMEWS

Radar -- AN/FPS-120

Number of faces -- 2

Range (miles) -- 3,280

Azimuth/elevation coverage -- 240º Az; 3.5º to 85º El"

Front 326

"Describe the system, radar, number of faces, range (miles), and azimuth/elevation coverage for the RAF Fylingdales BMEWS site.


(405-Principles of the ballistic missile early warning system)"

Back 326

"System -- BMEWS

Radar -- AN/FPS-126

Number of faces -- 3

Range (miles) -- 3,452

Azimuth/elevation coverage -- 360º Az; 3º to 80º El"

Front 327

"What unit operates PARCS and where is it located?


(406-Principles of the perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system)"

Back 327

The 10th SWS, at Cavalier AFB, North Dakota.

Front 328

"What is the mission of PARCS?


(406-Principles of the perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system)"

Back 328

To provide missile warning data for the US and southern Canada from all SLBMs and ICBMs penetrating its coverage area. PARCS also provides attack characterization.

Front 329

"What is the operational range, azimuth, and elevation area coverage of PARCS?


(406-Principles of the perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system)"

Back 329

PARCS operational range is 2,050 miles. The maximum area coverage is 140°. The elevation coverage is 1.9° to 95° from true horizon.

Front 330

"What is the normal mode of operation for PARCS?


(406-Principles of the perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system)"

Back 330

Spacetrack Mode.

Front 331

"What happens in the event a CONUS impacting object is detected while in spacetrack override mode?


(406-Principles of the perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system)"

Back 331

The system remains in the spacetrack mode, and the PACS program processes the impacting object as though the system were in the PACS mode.

Front 332

"Describe the system, radar, number of faces, range (miles), and azimuth/elevation coverage for the Cav site.


(406-Principles of the perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system)"

Back 332

"System -- PARCS

Radar -- AN/FPQ-16

Number of faces -- 1

Range (miles) -- 2,050

Azimuth/elevation coverage -- 140º Az; 1.9º to 95º El"

Front 333

"What is the function of the radar controller in the transmit subsystem?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"

Back 333

The RCL provides an interface between the data processor, the tactical applications software, and the radar hardware. The RCL monitors the radar hardware and the antenna array. It controls radar operation and configuration of the radar hardware during failure recovery. It also analyzes failures to identify the failed assembly. The RCL executes the radar signal schedule and sends it to the receiver/exciter.

Front 334

"What is the function of the receiver/exciter in the transmit subsystem?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"

Back 334

During transmit, the REX generates the required transmit and test waveforms.

Front 335

"What is the function of the array group driver in the transmit subsystem?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"

Back 335

The AGD amplifies the radar pulse from about 1 watt to an output of 310 watts.

Front 336

"What is the function of the solid state modules in the receive subsystem?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"

Back 336

The SSMs amplify the returning target signals and sends the signal to the SAD.

Front 337

"What information does the output signal from the receive beam former contain?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"

Back 337

The output signal from the RBF carries the amplitude, azimuth angle and elevation angle of the tracking returns.

Front 338

"What is the function of the receiver/exciter in the receive subsystem?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"

Back 338

The receiver portion of the REX converts the radar return from an analog signal to a digital signal and sends the tracking data to the signal processor.

Front 339

"What is the function of the signal processor in the receive subsystem?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"

Back 339

The SPR performs digital pulse compression to determine if the signal is a target and sends target data forward to the RCL.

Front 340

"Which satellite does the jam resistant secure communications system use to transmit classified voice systems and missile warning data link information?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"

Back 340

JRSC uses the defense satellite communication system-III satellite to transmit classified voice systems and missile warning data link information.

Front 341

"What is the purpose of the survivable communications integration system?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"

Back 341

SCIS is an automated communications and message processor which serves as an interface between the CYBER and the various site communications media. It makes sure communications media are used in the most efficient manner possible to make sure timely, reliable, error-free missile warning data is delivered to designated users.

Front 342

"Which satellite does a typical high speed line pass through?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"

Back 342

A multiplexer where it will be compressed with other data and sent through a cryptographic system for encoding and eventual transmission over the GE SATCOM to the MCC.

Front 343

"Which network does the low speed lines go through?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"

Back 343

A cryptographic system for encoding and transmission over a JRSC communication pathway through a DSCS III satellite to Schriever AFB, (which is the communications hub for DSCS) and then forwarded to the MCC.

Front 344

"What is ""dual phenomenology""?


(408-Site reporting)"

Back 344

Reporting of the same event by two sensors (say SBIRS and BMEWS). Dual phenomenology provides the commander of NORAD with a higher level of confidence that an event is real.

Front 345

"When is site reporting initiated?


(408-Site reporting)"

Back 345

A site report is passed to MCC by secure voice as soon as possible but not later than 60 seconds after the L&PI is generated. When MCC implements site reporting, it must be completed no later than 60 seconds after implementation.

Front 346

"Define a Valid event.


(408-Site reporting)"

Back 346

A site report is Valid, if in the judgment of site personnel, the data exhibits characteristics consistent with pre-designated phenomena attributed to an actual event. Site personnel actions and hardware and software performance are operating within established system specifications. The investigation is complete.

Front 347

"What constitutes an anomalous site report?


(408-Site reporting)"

Back 347

If in the judgment of site operations personnel, the data does not exhibit characteristics of an actual event, or site personnel actions and hardware and software performance is not within established system operating specifications.

Front 348

"When are VOICETELL reporting procedures initiated?


(408-Site reporting)"

Back 348

Sometimes the sent L&PI and/or event data is not received by the MCC. When that happens, the crew must initiate VOICETELL procedures.

Front 349

"What are the responsibilities of the Missile Correlation Center when a report is generated?


(408-Site reporting)"

Back 349

When the MCC receives a site report, it undergoes system report analysis. The MCC is responsible for analyzing site reports based on additional factors such as other units' site reports, intelligence information, and other data. The MCC forwards the system report to selected command centers by means of automated warning messages.

Front 350

"What is the purpose of post-event analysis reporting?


(408-Site reporting)"

Back 350

Post-event analysis is accomplished for all anomalous events by the sensor sites. The goal is to figure out what caused the anomalous event and to come up with ways to prevent it from happening again.

Front 351

"What is OPSCAP?


(409-OPSCAP and SYSCAP)"

Back 351

An objective assessment of the capability of system elements to meet operational requirements, which typically takes into account the status and/or availability of system resources.

Front 352

"Identify the four OPSCAP conditions.


(409-OPSCAP and SYSCAP)"

Back 352

"(1) Green -- little or no loss of mission capability.

(2) Yellow -- significant loss of mission capability.

(3) Red -- complete or nearly complete loss of mission capability.

(4) White -- may be used when needed for identifying a potential capability not available for supporting strategic or theater operations because of buildup and/or test, contingency status, orbit transition, etc."

Front 353

"What is SYSCAP?


(409-OPSCAP and SYSCAP)"

Back 353

An objective assessment of the capability of all elements of a system to meet operational requirements, which typically takes into account the status and/or availability of multiple units, computer systems or networks (that is, satellite, communications, ground segments) to satisfy its primary mission objectives.

Front 354

"How long do you have to report an OPSCAP change?


(409-OPSCAP and SYSCAP)"

Back 354

Immediately but not later than 1 minute after determination of the OPSCAP change.

Front 355

"What is the purpose of test control procedures?


(410-Missile warning exercises and tests)"

Back 355

To establish controlled test environments which reduce the risk of transmitting false or misleading data into live operational systems, during testing, training or exercises.

Front 356

"Who is the final approving authority for determining test category?


(410-Missile warning exercises and tests)"

Back 356

The Director of Test and Evaluation (test director).

Front 357

"Explain CAT A testing.


(410-Missile warning exercises and tests)"

Back 357

CAT A testing involves the use and transmission of high-risk, tagged or untagged ITW/AA simulated warning data between operational systems at one geographical location or between two or more geographically separate locations. Tagged data is readily identified as simulated data, whereas untagged data is indistinguishable from real data.

Front 358

"What is the level of risk associated with CAT A testing?


(410-Missile warning exercises and tests)"

Back 358

Risk associated with CAT A testing is high because an improper test configuration, human error, or equipment malfunctions during testing could result in false or erroneous ITW/AA data being inadvertently transmitted.

Front 359

"Explain CAT B testing.


(410-Missile warning exercises and tests)"

Back 359

CAT B testing is similar to CAT A testing except it involves the transmission of non-ITW/AA, simulated lower risk data from one physical location to another.

Front 360

"What are some of the responsibilities of the test director?


(410-Missile warning exercises and tests)"

Back 360

Before each test, the test director must conduct a prebriefing to identify, as a minimum, the purpose of the test, test methodology, test control safeguards, operations and communications security requirements, and system test configuration.

Front 361

"When is the squadron commander or squadron crew commander authorized to delay or terminate a test?


(410-Missile warning exercises and tests)"

Back 361

Due to real-world operational requirements. Termination of the test must be coordinated with the test director to make sure all test data is purged from the system.

Front 362

"What are the three components of counterspace?


(411-Principles of counterspace)"

Back 362

"(1) space situational awareness,

(2) offensive counterspace operations and

(3) defensive counterspace operations."

Front 363

"Describe space situational awareness.


(411-Principles of counterspace)"

Back 363

SSA is the result of having sufficient knowledge about space-related conditions, constraints, capabilities, and activities (both current and planned) in, from, toward, or through space.

Front 364

"What are the Five D's of offensive counterspace operations?


(411-Principles of counterspace)"

Back 364

Deception, disruption, denial, degradation, and destruction. These are the possible desired effects when targeting an adversary's space capability.

Front 365

"Describe some of the passive measures that can be used for defensive counterspace operations.


(411-Principles of counterspace)"

Back 365

Camouflage, concealment, and deception.

Front 366

"State the mission of a dedicated, collateral and contributing sensor when they are supporting the SSN.


(412-Principles of the space surveillance network)"

Back 366

"They support the SSN by detecting, tracking, and providing metric observations to 1 SPCS.

(a) Dedicated sensors are used solely by AFSPC for space surveillance.

(b) Collateral sensors are systems whose primary mission is normally missile warning. Due to the nature of their mission, Collateral sensors can support the SSN without impact to their mission.

(c) Contributing sensors are systems under contract to support the SSN when requested, say for a high interest space object or for launch support."

Front 367

"What squadron provides C2 to the SSN?


(412-Principles of the space surveillance network)"

Back 367

1 SPCS.

Front 368

"Identify three enlisted duties at 1 SPCS.


(412-Principles of the space surveillance network)"

Back 368

"(1) Notifies sensors of detected space launches; provides adequate time to make sure launches are tracked.

(2) Briefs NORAD command director daily on reentry assessments, SSN sensor status, significant space events, and the operational capability of 1 SPCS.

(3) Protects satellite systems and/or terrestrial stations by fusing real-time environmental and intelligence data and advising owner and/or operator and/or national agencies of adverse conditions or hostile actions against those assets. Provides verification that hostile activity has actually occurred against a space asset."

Front 369

"Who has primary C2 responsibility at Level of Operation 3?


(412-Principles of the space surveillance network)"

Back 369

20 SPCS, Detachment 1.

Front 370

"Which tasking category is used for new foreign launches or manned space flights?


(412-Principles of the space surveillance network)"

Back 370

Category 1.

Front 371

"What suffix is used when four minutes of data is required on an object?


(412-Principles of the space surveillance network)"

Back 371

Suffix W (whiskey).

Front 372

"What is the purpose of space object identification and where is the data sent for processing?


(412-Principles of the space surveillance network)"

Back 372

To discriminate between pieces, identify payload missions, and detect any changes in satellite configuration and the data is sent to the National Air and Space Intelligence Center for processing.

Front 373

"What is an orbital element set?


(412-Principles of the space surveillance network)"

Back 373

A mathematical model of a satellite's orbit, by time and location in space.

Front 374

"Which order of battle regards a potential adversary's military and government space systems?


(412-Principles of the space surveillance network)"

Back 374

The red space order of battle.

Front 375

"What squadron operates the Eglin radar and where is it located?


(413-Principles of radar space surveillance sensors)"

Back 375

The 20th Space Control Squadron (20 SPCS), operates the AN/FPS–85 phased-array radar and is located approximately 35 miles east of Eglin AFB, Florida.

Front 376

"Briefly describe the mission of the Eglin phased-array radar and who receives its data.


(413-Principles of radar space surveillance sensors)"

Back 376

Eglin is a dedicated radar supporting the SSN. Eglin reports both metric observations and SOI. All accumulated space surveillance data is transmitted to 1 SPCS by way of data links.

Front 377

"Explain what is different about the Eglin radar compared to other phased-array radar systems.


(413-Principles of radar space surveillance sensors)"

Back 377

Eglin is different from other phased-array radars because it has separate transmitter and receiver arrays.

Front 378

"What is the total azimuth coverage from true north, elevation and range of Eglin?


(413-Principles of radar space surveillance sensors)"

Back 378

Eglin's azimuth range is 120° to 240° from true north, an elevation range from 0° to 105°, and it can track an object the size of a basketball at a distance of 23,000 miles.

Front 379

"Describe the surveillance fences used by Eglin.


(413-Principles of radar space surveillance sensors)"

Back 379

"To detect unknown objects, Eglin employs one of three surveillance fences:

(1) S1, which is the normal 25° inverted ""U"" fence. S1 is the normal operational fence configuration.

(2) S2, which is a 35° inverted ""U"".

(3) S3, which is a 3° flat scan."

Front 380

"Which weapon system is a continuous wave radar located along the 33rd parallel of the United States?


(413-Principles of radar space surveillance sensors)"

Back 380

The Air Force space surveillance system.

Front 381

"What is the disadvantage of the Air Force space surveillance system?


(413-Principles of radar space surveillance sensors)"

Back 381

It cannot track objects, that is, follow them along their orbital path. It can only detect them.

Front 382

"What is the GEODSS mission?


(414-Principles of optical space surveillance sensors)"

Back 382

To detect and track satellites in deep-space and transmit the observational data to 1 SPCS.

Front 383

"What are the main limitations of the GEODSS system?


(414-Principles of optical space surveillance sensors)"

Back 383

The GEODSS system is operated only at night and dependent on clear weather.

Front 384

"What technologies are used to perform the GEODSS mission?


(414-Principles of optical space surveillance sensors)"

Back 384

The system brings together three proven technologies: the telescope, the computer and low-light-level television camera.

Front 385

"List the location of the three GEODSS sites.


(414-Principles of optical space surveillance sensors)"

Back 385

"(1) Detachment 1, near Socorro, New Mexico.

(2) Detachment 2, on Diego Garcia, British Indian Ocean Territories in the Indian Ocean.

(3) Detachment 3, on the island of Maui, Hawaii."

Front 386

"Where is MOSS located and who operates it?


(414-Principles of optical space surveillance sensors)"

Back 386

The 21st Operations Group, Detachment 4 operates MOSS located in southern Spain just 45 minutes from the city of Seville at Morón AB.

Front 387

"Describe the MOSS telescope and its mission.


(414-Principles of optical space surveillance sensors)"

Back 387

MOSS is an electro-optical telescope system that detects and tracks satellites in deep-space and provides metric observations.

Front 388

"What makes MOSS unique from other optical sites?


(414-Principles of optical space surveillance sensors)"

Back 388

MOSS is unique in that it is the only optical system in AFSPC fully staffed by military operators.

Front 389

"Which objects are classified as Deep-space objects, and which objects are classified as near-Earth objects?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 389

Objects with an orbital period equal to or greater than 225 minutes are classified as Deep-space objects. Objects with a period less than or equal to 224 minutes are categorized as near-Earth objects.

Front 390

"What is a new foreign launch?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 390

A satellite launched from a foreign country that has not been announced or coordinated through 1 SPCS.

Front 391

"What is a deorbit?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 391

The deliberate act of causing a satellite to fall back to Earth.

Front 392

"What is a maneuverable satellite?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 392

Space vehicles with the necessary propulsion equipment which allows the ground station to change either the satellite's altitude (increase or decrease) or orbital plane (inclination, right ascension, etc.).

Front 393

"Describe the reentry assessment program.


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 393

Thirty days before the predicted decay of an object, a determination is made as to whether or not the object will survive reentry. If the object is less than one square meter, it is tasked and processed under the normal decay program. If the object is larger than one square meter and has a greater than 5 percent chance of surviving reentry, it is tasked and processed under the RA program.

Front 394

"Explain tracking calibrations.


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 394

Space surveillance sensors need to be calibrated to make sure of the highest level of accuracy when tracking objects. These calibrations are achieved by scheduling sensors to track selected satellites called Calibration Satellites. To give reliable known values to help the calibrations get accurate readings, calibration satellites possess the characteristics of having relatively constant radar cross section and are in very stable orbits.

Front 395

"What term is used for any launch for which an initial launch alert message and nominal ELSET have been supplied?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 395

Pre-planned launch.

Front 396

"What term is used for a message used by the launch agency to furnish 1 SPCS with EODET requirements in as much detail as possible?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 396

Initial launch alert message.

Front 397

"What term is used for a listing that sensor sites automatically add objects to if they are Category 1, RAs, breakups, maneuverables, or deorbits?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 397

Pos/Neg listing.

Front 398

"What term is used for a report that is submitted as soon as possible but no later than 5 minutes after the site terminates tracking the object?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 398

Pos/Neg report.

Front 399

"What term is used for objects which do not correlate with any known objects found in the space catalog?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 399

Uncorrelated target.

Front 400

"What term is used for any UCT with a minimum radar cross section of one square meter or more which is suspected to be related to a NFL?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 400

Critical UCT.

Front 401

"What term is used for any UCT which the sensor site determines to be a payload, rocket body, or fragment having a radar cross section of one square meter or more?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 401

Significant UCT.

Front 402

"What term is used for UCTs which the data is sent to 1 SPCS by immediate precedence unless Flash is requested?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 402

Critical UCT.

Front 403

"What term is used for an operation that consists of providing real-time voice readout of TEARR data?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 403

EODET.

Front 404

"When are pre-pass actions normally initiated?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"

Back 404

At 30-minutes prior, the crew will call the C2 agency to determine if the current element set is in the database.

Front 405

"Name the four basic purposes of spacelift as identified by the Air Force.


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 405

Deploying space systems to fulfill new requirements for satellite service; sustaining existing space systems whose individual satellites are nearing the end of their useful life, predicted to fail, or have failed; augmenting existing space systems with redundant or additional capability to enhance space system performance or increase system survivability; servicing and maintaining existing or newly deployed space systems.

Front 406

"How much money is the evolved expendable launch vehicle program expected to save?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 406

Cost of space launches will be reduced by at least 25 percent, saving a projected $6 billion between 2002 and 2020.

Front 407

"What space launch vehicle is launched from a modified Lockheed L-1011?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 407

The Orbital Science Corporation's Pegasus launch vehicle.

Front 408

"How was the space shuttle Columbia destroyed?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 408

By hot gases penetrating the shuttle's damaged left wing during re-entry.

Front 409

"What Russian space launch vehicle is based on the SS-18 ICBM?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 409

The Dnepr.

Front 410

"List the location of the Baikonur Cosmodrome and some of the reasons it is important to the Russian space program.


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 410

Located at 63° North, 43° East, in the country of Kazakhstan; Baikonur was the launch site of Sputnik and Yuri Gagarin and can also launch satellites into retrograde orbits. Additionally, all Russian International Space Station flights are launched from Baikonur.

Front 411

"What is the payload capacity of the Ariane 5 ""heavy-lift""?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 411

Its payload capability is 21,200 lbs to GTO.

Front 412

"How much has the Japanese H-2A saved over the previous H-2?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 412

It reduced the cost of launch by 50 percent.

Front 413

"List the four main components of a space launch vehicle.


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 413

"(1) structural system (frame),

(2) propulsion system,

(3) guidance system and

(4) payload system."

Front 414

"Ideally, what is the total mass of a rocket, by percentage?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 414

It should be made up of 91 percent propellants (fuel); 3 percent tanks, engines, fins, etcetera; and 6 percent payload.

Front 415

"List two of the three propulsion systems used in the Air Force today.


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 415

"Any two of the three variations of propulsion systems:

(1) Solid-propellant systyems

(2) Liquid-propellant systems

(3) Gas-propellant systems"

Front 416

"What two common classes are solid-propellants divided into?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 416

Composite (or heterogeneous) and homogeneous.

Front 417

"What are the three common classes that liquid-propellants are divided into?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 417

Liquid propellants are divided into monopropellants, bipropellants, or tripropellants.

Front 418

"List three of the six ideal qualities of a liquid propellant.


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 418

"Any three of the following six:

(1) large availability of raw materials and ease of manufacture;

(2) high heat of combustion per unit of propellant mixture;

(3) low freezing point (wide range of operation);

(4) high density (smaller tanks);

(5) low toxicity and corrosiveness (easy handling and storage);

(6) low vapor pressure, good chemical stability (simplified storage)."

Front 419

"What is the specific impulse of a propellant and why is it significant?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 419

A rough measure of how fast the propellant is ejected out of the back of the rocket engine. A rocket using propellants with a high specific impulse does not need as much fuel as a rocket using propellants with low specific impulse, or, it can carry a bigger payload with the same amount of fuel.

Front 420

"What are the main roles of a guidance system?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 420

To provide stability for the rocket and to control the rocket during maneuvers.

Front 421

"What is an inertial navigation unit?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 421

A self-contained navigation system capable of determining a vehicle's position in inertial space through the double integration of the output of accelerometers.

Front 422

"What is the payload system comprised of?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"

Back 422

A fairing, the platform, and the satellite itself.

Front 423

"What area does the Eastern Range cover?


(602-Eastern Range Operations)"

Back 423

From Cape Canaveral, northeastward to Argentia, Newfoundland, Canada, and southeastward to Ascension Island.

Front 424

"Who was Patrick AFB named after?


(602-Eastern Range Operations)"

Back 424

Major General Mason M. Patrick, chief of the American Expeditionary Forces Air Service during World War I and chief of the Air Service/Air Corps from 1921-1923.

Front 425

"What three categories are the 1 ROPS ACO duties divided into?


(602-Eastern Range Operations)"

Back 425

"(1) Generation,

(2) execution, and

(3) recovery."

Front 426

"What is the purpose of ACOs monitoring the Eastern Range airspace?


(602-Eastern Range Operations)"

Back 426

To ensure Eastern Range restricted and hazardous areas are cleared of all air traffic before liftoff. This is done to protect aircraft from colliding with a space launch vehicle in powered flight.

Front 427

"What operations are unique to Cape Canaveral?


(602-Eastern Range Operations)"

Back 427

Laser operations are unique to Cape Canaveral and are completely run by the ACOs.

Front 428

"Cooke AFB was renamed Vandenberg AFB in honor of whom?


(603-Western Range Operations)"

Back 428

In honor of the late General Hoyt S. Vandenberg, the Air Force's second Chief of Staff.

Front 429

"What area does the Western Range cover?


(603-Western Range Operations)"

Back 429

The Western Range encompasses an enormous area from San Francisco to Los Angeles and westward to 90° East longitude in the middle of the Indian Ocean.

Front 430

"What is the primary US launch facility that can launch satellites into polar orbit?


(603-Western Range Operations)"

Back 430

Vandenberg AFB is the primary US launch facility.

Front 431

"2 ROPS ACO duties are divided into what duty categories?


(603-Western Range Operations)"

Back 431

Generation, execution, and recovery.

Front 432

"How does the ACO keep positive control of rail traffic?


(603-Western Range Operations)"

Back 432

By communicating with the Union Pacific Railroad company.

Front 433

"What operations are unique to the Western Range?


(603-Western Range Operations)"

Back 433

Aeronautical operations.

Front 434

"Name the three phases of a space launch.


(604-Launch phases)"

Back 434

"(1) Launch preparation,

(2) terminal countdown, and

(3) post-launch procedures."

Front 435

"When does launch preparation start?


(604-Launch phases)"

Back 435

With the arrival of the launch vehicle at the launch base.

Front 436

"How long can a countdown take to complete?


(604-Launch phases)"

Back 436

Several days and begins shortly after the vehicle propellants are loaded. Other vehicles take from 8 to 10 hours to complete countdown operations.

Front 437

"What is accomplished during the post-launch procedures?


(604-Launch phases)"

Back 437

Fire and safety personnel inspect the launch pad for fire and safety hazards. After the launch pad has been declared safe, the maintenance crews enter to safe all systems and start preparations for the next launch.

Front 438

"Describe the purpose of the launch window.


(605-Orbital mechanics and launch parameters)"

Back 438

The launch window defines a time to conduct the most fuel efficient launch. The launch window is affected by the performance of the space launch vehicle.

Front 439

"How many launch windows are available if the launch site's latitude is lower than the desired orbital inclination?


(605-Orbital mechanics and launch parameters)"

Back 439

Two launch windows per day.

Front 440

"What is the rotational speed of the Earth at the Equator?


(605-Orbital mechanics and launch parameters)"

Back 440

1,524 feet per second or 1,039 miles per hour.

Front 441

"What is the primary task of a satellite structure?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 441

Provide support and protection to all other subsystems. They provide a stable anchor for all components and provide the necessary shielding during launch and while on orbit.

Front 442

"How do we protect against acoustic stresses?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 442

Structural members must be designed to isolate these vulnerable systems from vibrations, or dissipate them to acceptable levels.

Front 443

"What types of stress is a satellite subject to once on orbit?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 443

Once on orbit, a satellite is subject to thermal stress which can change the size and shape of structural members. The absence of atmosphere also subjects it to radiation stress, which can break down complex substances, or charge metallic components.

Front 444

"What three energy sources are well suited for satellites?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 444

"(1) Electrochemical,

(2) solar, and

(3) nuclear."

Front 445

"What is the difference between primary and secondary batteries?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 445

Primary batteries are not rechargeable and are used as a continuous source of energy, whereas secondary batteries are rechargeable and they are used in conjunction with other energy sources.

Front 446

"What three methods are currently used for attaching solar cells to a satellite?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 446

"(1) Body mounting,

(2) paddle mounting, and

(3) panel mounting."

Front 447

"What is the preferred nuclear power source for today's satellites?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 447

Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generator (RTG).

Front 448

"What is the function of the power control electronics?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 448

They contain the power handling accessories, cables and connectors to distribute the conditioned power throughout the satellite. They detect abnormal current usage, identify potential faults such as shorted circuits, and consequently, withhold power to prevent damage.

Front 449

"What is the function of the Attitude Control Subsystem?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 449

It figures out and controls orbital positions, attitudes, velocities and angular rates using onboard sensors and torque application devices. It also sends control signals to the thrusters, solar array positioners, and communication/payload positioners.

Front 450

"What are three typical ways to perform attitude control?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 450

"(1) Spin stabilization,

(2) passive control, and

(3) 3-axis control."

Front 451

"Which type of stabilization is used to augment passive control?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 451

Magnetic stabilization.

Front 452

"What are the three types of RCSs currently in use?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 452

"(1) Monopropellant,

(2) bipropellant, and

(3) pressurized gas."

Front 453

"What factors must be considered when selecting propellants for use in space?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 453

Propellants must be 100 percent reliable, have instant restart capabilities, and possess a low degree of sensitivity. An additional requirement for propellants used in space is a high specific impulse.

Front 454

"What are the two basic classifications of telemetry?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 454

State-of-health (SOH) and mission data.

Front 455

"List a few components that can be used by active or passive Thermal Control Subsystem.


(606-Satellite subsystems)"

Back 455

Can be any combination of the following: cryogenic devices, liquid loops, electric cooling/heating, thermal insulation blankets, thermal paint, mirrors with optical coatings, thermal tape, heat pipes, heat sinks, louvers, sun shields, active coolers, heaters, thermistors, thermostats, shutters, and radiator panels/fins. It also includes the TCS software and support equipment.

Front 456

"What is the mission of GPS and what Air Force squadron operates it?


(607-Global positioning system)"

Back 456

Space-based positioning, navigation and timing system consisting of a minimum of 24 satellites that provide navigation and timing information to military and civilian users worldwide. The 2d Space Operations Squadron operates GPS.

Front 457

"Describe the nominal orbits of the GPS constellation.


(607-Global positioning system)"

Back 457

GPS satellites fly in circular, semi-synchronous orbits at an altitude of 12,500 miles, circling the Earth every 12 hours. Each orbit's eccentricity is 0.1 and the satellites are divided into six orbital planes inclined at 55° from the Earth's equator with at least four satellites per plane. Each plane is spaced 60° apart.

Front 458

"What is a secondary mission of GPS?


(607-Global positioning system)"

Back 458

Nuclear detonation detection, used for test ban treaty verification.

Front 459

"What are the three differences between the older Block II and newer Block IIR GPS satellites?


(607-Global positioning system)"

Back 459

The orientation of the solar arrays, the box-like design of the main satellite body, and the two antennas protruding from the top and bottom of the vehicle.

Front 460

"What type of battery is used by GPS satellites?


(607-Global positioning system)"

Back 460

GPS satellites use three nickel-cadmium batteries.

Front 461

"Describe the L1 transmission.


(607-Global positioning system)"

Back 461

L1 contains two different types of navigation codes: Coarse Acquisition and Precision (more specifically Precision [encrypted] for military users). Coarse Acquisition is intended to be simple and easily acquired. Once acquired, it is designed to provide information to help acquire the more difficult Precision (encrypted) code.

Front 462

"Who operates the GPS Master Control Station?


(607-Global positioning system)"

Back 462

The 2d Space Operations Squadron.

Front 463

"Where are the four GPS dedicated ground antennas located?


(607-Global positioning system)"

Back 463

Ascension Island; Diego Garcia; Kwajalein Atoll; and 2 SOPS, Detachment 1, Cape Canaveral AFS.

Front 464

"What is the mission of DMSP and what Air Force Reserve squadron supports it?


(608-Defense Meteorological Satellite Program)"

Back 464

Provide global, visual and infrared meteorological cloud and geophysical data to the Air Force Weather Agency and US civilian agencies. The 6th Space Operations Squadron supports the DMSP mission.

Front 465

"Describe the operational orbit of a DMSP satellite.


(608-Defense Meteorological Satellite Program)"

Back 465

A 101 minute, sun-synchronous orbit at an altitude of 515 miles, inclined at 98.75°.

Front 466

"What is the primary mission sensor of a DMSP satellite?


(608-Defense Meteorological Satellite Program)"

Back 466

The Operational Linescan System (OLS) which collects visible and infrared images across a 1,864 mile swath, and is used to monitor the global distribution of clouds and cloud top temperatures by measuring the reflection of light from the Sun and the Moon.

Front 467

"What is the purpose of the temperature profiler?


(608-Defense Meteorological Satellite Program)"

Back 467

It measures temperatures over previously inaccessible regions and at higher altitudes.

Front 468

"How do DMSP satellites maintain attitude control?


(608-Defense Meteorological Satellite Program)"

Back 468

Through a combination of four reaction wheels and magnetic stabilization. Magnetic coils are used to unload momentum about a particular axis.

Front 469

"What is the mission of DSCS and what frequency range does it use?


(609-Defense satellite communications system)"

Back 469

To provide enhanced worldwide military communication capabilities. It operates in the super-high frequency (SHF) range or X-band (the Army controls the X-Band).

Front 470

"What is the purpose of the DSCS single channel transponder?


(609-Defense satellite communications system)"

Back 470

For secure transmission of emergency action messages in support of the President's communications to strategic units.

Front 471

"Describe the ACS limits of a DSCS satellite.


(609-Defense satellite communications system)"

Back 471

"The limits within which the ACS will control satellite pointing during normal on-orbit operations are:

Axis = Pitch, +/- 0.08º degrees

Axis = Roll, +/- 0.08º degrees

Axis = Yaw, +/- 0.8º degrees"

Front 472

"What DOD agency maintains responsibility of DSCS and what Air Force squadron supports it?


(609-Defense satellite communications system)"

Back 472

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). 3 SOPS is the primary command and control center for satellite control of the DSCS-III constellation (that is, maintenance of the satellites).

Front 473

"What is the mission of Milstar and what Air Force squadron operates it?


(610-Milstar)"

Back 473

To provide direct, secure, survivable, low probability of intercept space-based communications for the command and control of strategic and tactical forces through all levels of conflict. It is operated by the 4th Space Operations Squadron.

Front 474

"What is frequency hopping?


(610-Milstar)"

Back 474

A form of spread spectrum signal transmission with the repeated switching of frequencies during transmission. Spread spectrum enables a signal to be transmitted across a frequency band that is much wider than the minimum bandwidth required by the information signal.

Front 475

"Describe the Time and Frequency Reference subsystem.


(610-Milstar)"

Back 475

It provides timing signals and required frequencies to other satellite subsystems. Some subsystems have internal capabilities, while others rely on the Time and Frequency Reference subsystem for their timing and frequencies.

Front 476

"List the four active components of the Milstar TCS.


(610-Milstar)"

Back 476

"(1) Thermistors,

(2) heater strips,

(3) thermostats, and

(4) heater switch units."

Front 477

"What are the uses of the Milstar propulsion subsystem?


(610-Milstar)"

Back 477

It is considered an auxiliary propulsion system, a back-up to the ACS. It is used for 3-axis control in case of anomalies. The Milstar propulsion subsystem is used for station-keeping maneuvers and repositioning maneuvers (should it be necessary to move the satellite from one part of the world to another). Lastly, it is used for reaction wheel desaturation (when the reaction wheels are de-spun, the propulsion subsystem is used to maintain attitude control).

Front 478

"What is the purpose of the secure mobile anti-jam reliable tactical-terminal (SMART-T)?


(610-Milstar)"

Back 478

Provides tactical users with secure, survivable, anti-jam, low probability of intercept and detection satellite communications in a HUMM-V configuration.

Front 479

"What is the mission of the WGS system and what Air Force squadron operates it?


(611-Wideband global SATCOM system)"

Back 479

The mission of the Wideband Global SATCOM system is to provide flexible, high-capacity communications for our nation's warfighters. 3 SOPS provides command and control of the satellite.

Front 480

"What are two of the purposes of the WGS structures and mechanisms subsystem?


(611-Wideband global SATCOM system)"

Back 480

Provides distribution of all mechanical loads and supports all flight hardware. It also serves as a faraday cage (a metallic enclosure that prevents the entry or escape of an electromagnetic field) for flight electronics.

Front 481

"What attitude control subsystem component is used as the primary means of attitude control?


(611-Wideband global SATCOM system)"

Back 481

The reaction wheels are the primary means of control and provide for zero-momentum attitude control. They are arranged in a pyramid assembly similar to the Milstar reaction wheels.

Front 482

"Why is the liquid bipropellant subsystem not used for on-orbit station keeping?


(611-Wideband global SATCOM system)"

Back 482

Because most of the fuel is used up by the time the satellite reaches its geosynchronous orbit.

Front 483

"What is the advantage of using digital signals over analog signals?


(612-Data Links)"

Back 483

The main advantage of digital signals over analog signals is that the precise signal level of the digital signal is not important. This means that digital signals are fairly immune to the imperfections of real electronic systems which tend to spoil analog signals.

Front 484

"What is the difference between a microwave link and a satellite link?


(612-Data Links)"

Back 484

Microwave links transmit data on a line-of-sight path. Satellite links require earth terminals and a satellite transponder to send and receive data.

Front 485

"What is the function of a front-end processor?


(612-Data Links)"

Back 485

A front-end processor performs functions to relieve the workload on the main processors.

Front 486

"Describe the difference between asynchronous and synchronous transmissions.


(612-Data Links)"

Back 486

"When an asynchronous transmission is used, a special start or ready signal is transmitted at the beginning of each frame of data (usually a special character). Likewise, a stop signal is sent at the end frame of data.

For a synchronous transmission, characters are transmitted together in a continuous stream. There is no special start signal. Instead, the sending and receiving unit's internal clocks are synchronized by a bit pattern that is transmitted at the beginning of the data frame."

Front 487

"What determines the physical size of an antenna?


(613-Antenna Components)"

Back 487

The antenna's physical size is determined primarily by its operating frequency and power requirements.

Front 488

"What is the most important characteristic of an antenna?


(613-Antenna Components)"

Back 488

Its directional property called directivity.

Front 489

"Describe the antenna property of reciprocity.


(613-Antenna Components)"

Back 489

The property of using the same antenna for transmitting and receiving.

Front 490

"What subsystem loss can be explained by the Inverse Square Law?


(613-Antenna Components)"

Back 490

Free space loss can be explained by the Inverse Square Law, where the strength of the field is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source.

Front 491

"Which antenna component is used to eliminate unwanted signals and noise?


(613-Antenna Components)"

Back 491

Filters.

Front 492

"Which tracking mode is the primary method used to acquire satellites?


(613-Antenna Components)"

Back 492

Slave mode is the primary mode used to acquire the satellite.

Front 493

"What advantage does autotrack have over slave mode?


(613-Antenna Components)"

Back 493

Autotrack mode uses signals actually received from the satellite and does not need other inputs.

Front 494

"What is the term for a tracking method in which the ground station receives a continous signal from the satellite?


(613-Antenna Components)"

Back 494

Passive beacon.

Front 495

"What is the term for a tracking method that measures the angle of arrival of the carrier wave giving the bearing of the satellite with respect to the ground station?


(613-Antenna Components)"

Back 495

Angle tracking.

Front 496

"What is the term for a precise digital ranging signal modulated onto the uplink carrier?


(613-Antenna Components)"

Back 496

PRN.

Front 497

"What is the term for the process of following a satellite by keeping the antenna's main beam pointed at it and periodically measuring its bearing and distance?


(613-Antenna Components)"

Back 497

Tracking.

Front 498

"What is the term for the angular measurement between the horizon and the satellite?


(613-Antenna Components)"

Back 498

Elevation.

Front 499

"What is the term for the direction the antenna is pointing in relation to true north?


(613-Antenna Components)"

Back 499

Azimuth.

Front 500

"What types of data does a typical space operations center handle?


(614-Data Flows)"

Back 500

SOH, mission, commanding, and tracking.

Front 501

"Describe the function accomplished by the downconverter in the receiver subsystem.


(614-Data Flows)"

Back 501

It is the first stage of the receiver subsystem. It reduces the downlink signal from a microwave, SHF or EHF, to an intermediate frequency that can be handled by ground equipment.

Front 502

"What functions are accomplished at the bit synchronizer in the data handling subsystem?


(614-Data Flows)"

Back 502

The bit synchronizers remove noise from the raw signal and synchronize it with the ground station clock in the timing subsystem.

Front 503

"Where are satellite commands stored prior to encryption?


(614-Data Flows)"

Back 503

Satellite commands are held in the command buffer prior to encryption.

Front 504

"Describe the functions accomplished by the baseband assembly unit.


(614-Data Flows)"

Back 504

The baseband assembly unit combines individual uplink signals such as command, timing, and range into a composite signal.

Front 505

"What function does the digital ranging equipment accomplish?


(614-Data Flows)"

Back 505

It generates a PRN tracking signal.

Front 506

"What is generated using the launch agency's predictions that exist at orbital injection point?


(615-Launch and Early Orbit Activities)"

Back 506

Nominal ELSET.

Front 507

"What contains launch agency's predictions to be achieved at burnout?


(615-Launch and Early Orbit Activities)"

Back 507

R-15 message.

Front 508

"What is used to compute an element set in lieu of an R-15 message?


(615-Launch and Early Orbit Activities)"

Back 508

TEARR.

Front 509

"What program contains the formulas, biases, and modifiers used to predict where a satellite will be at a given date and time?


(615-Launch and Early Orbit Activities)"

Back 509

Orbit Determination Program.

Front 510

"What is the term for a table giving the coordinates of a satellite at a number of specific times during a given period?


(615-Launch and Early Orbit Activities)"

Back 510

Ephemeris.

Front 511

"What are mission workstations used for?


(615-Launch and Early Orbit Activities)"

Back 511

With each crew position having its own console, the workstation displays pertinent mission information and provides an interface to other equipment such as the ground station mainframes.

Front 512

"What are the two types of spacecraft commands?


(615-Launch and Early Orbit Activities)"

Back 512

Single and block.

Front 513

"What is the primary difference between real-time and stored-program commands?


(615-Launch and Early Orbit Activities)"

Back 513

Time of execution. Real-time commands are executed upon receipt in sight of the ground station, whereas stored program commands are executed at a specified time.

Front 514

"What portion of a command will determine the specific subsystem or component to be commanded?


(615-Launch and Early Orbit Activities)"

Back 514

Satellite component address code.

Front 515

"What is the purpose of the pass plan and what does it contain?


(616-Satellite Contact Procedures)"

Back 515

A list of events for each satellite contact. It lists network resources involved and commanding activities; contains an outline of the real-time and stored-program commands scheduled to occur when the satellite enters the station's field-of-view; it also provides pertinent information regarding the satellite's current configuration.

Front 516

"When is the pre-pass stage initiated and what does it accomplish?


(616-Satellite Contact Procedures)"

Back 516

Approximately 20 minutes prior to a scheduled pass, the crew assembles in the operations center to prepare activities to be accomplished during the satellite contact. Prepass activities include system configurations, establishment of the communication networks, and readiness testing.

Front 517

"What is the pass (or contact) stage and when does it begin?


(616-Satellite Contact Procedures)"

Back 517

Pass is the time actually spent communicating with the satellite. It begins immediately after you acquire the satellite's telemetry signal.

Front 518

"What is normally accomplished during post-pass procedures?


(616-Satellite Contact Procedures)"

Back 518

Carefully verify that all actions were accomplished; annotate actions in the crew logbooks; place all ground station equipment in standby mode or configure equipment for the next pass; release network assets as required.

Front 519

"What does the CCS-C provide?


(617-Command and Control System -- Consolidated)"

Back 519

The CCS-C provides 3 SOPS and 4 SOPS the ground system interface needed to monitor and control DSCS III, Milstar, WGS, and future Advanced Extremely High frequency satellites.

Front 520

"Which CCS-C subsystem provides contact scheduling capabilities to the mission planners?


(617-Command and Control System -- Consolidated)"

Back 520

The Mission planning subsystem.

Front 521

"What are the three processes of the CCS-C telemetry and commanding subsystem?


(617-Command and Control System -- Consolidated)"

Back 521

It is the operating system that coordinates all CCS-C computer processing; it provides the interface for operators to locate and receive data and send commands; it is the central storage and maintenance point of the telemetry and command databases for each satellite.

Front 522

"Which CCS-C workstation is comprised of three monitors?


(617-Command and Control System -- Consolidated)"

Back 522

Operations workstations.

Front 523

"What CCS-C crewmember must have a detailed knowledge of the CCS-C system and AFSCN architecture?


(617-Command and Control System -- Consolidated)"

Back 523

The Satellite Systems Operator.

Front 524

"When was the first permanent AFSCN control center established and when was the Consolidated Space Operations Center turned over to the Air Force Space Command?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 524

The first permanent control center had been established in Sunnyvale, California by June 1960. The Consolidated Space Operations Center was turned over to Air Force Space Command in September 1993.

Front 525

"Describe the AFSCN mission.


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 525

"It has three parts:

(1) manage, operate, and maintain a global satellite command and control segment;

(2) support national space programs by providing TT&C services; and

(3) support external users and ground elements by providing data processing, distribution, routing services, and mission support."

Front 526

"What is the purpose of the AFSCN's range segment?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 526

It provides the space-ground link between the satellites and the AFSCN. The ARTS provide real-time satellite tracking, command relay and telemetry reception.

Front 527

"What is the call sign of the Colorado Tracking RGF Station?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 527

PIKE.

Front 528

"What is the call sign of the Vandenberg Tracking RGF Station?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 528

COOK.

Front 529

"What is the call sign of the Diego Garcia RGF Station?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 529

REEF.

Front 530

"What is the call sign of the Thule Tracking RGF Station?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 530

POGO.

Front 531

"What is the call sign of the Hawaii Tracking RGF Station?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 531

HULA.

Front 532

"What is the call sign of the Guam Tracking RGF Station?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 532

GUAM.

Front 533

"What is the call sign of the Oakhanger Telemetry and Commanding RGF Station?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 533

LION.

Front 534

"What is the call sign of the New Hampshire RGF Station?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 534

BOSS.

Front 535

"Which ARTS component is used to control the tracking mode (for example; manual, slave, search, and autotrack) the antenna uses?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 535

The antenna control unit.

Front 536

"Into what two functional areas are the Network Operations Center responsibilities broken up into?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 536

Network scheduling and orbital analysis.

Front 537

"How many WANIUs are there at Schriever AFB and at each individual RGF?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 537

There are 10 redundant WANIUs at Schriever AFB and two at each individual RGF.

Front 538

"Describe the ATM cloud.


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"

Back 538

Data can travel through any of the 4,096 single unique data paths. The one chosen is the most reliable path available at the time of the transmission. Because the actual path is random until the moment it occurs, this is referred to as the "ATM cloud". ;;