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319 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the CFTEP used for?
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to plan develop manage and conduct an effective and efficient career field training program.
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Name the four types of training that CFTEP focuses
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IQT-
QT UGT CONTINUATION TRAINING |
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What type of training does the formal resident course at Keesler AFB provide
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IQT- inital skills training
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An increase in force readiness above that required for normal readiness
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DEFCON 3
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a normal state of readiness
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Defcon 5
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an increased intelligence watch and strengthened security measures
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DEFCON 4
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an increase in force readiness, but less then maximum readiness
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DEFCON 2
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What are the three levels of air defense warnings
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yellow
red white |
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what warning is used when an attack by hostile aircraft is imminent
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Red
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what is the exercise term for air defense warning conditon yellow
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lemonjuice
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what is the normal warning condition in effect when the system is operating under the readiness condition ADE
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WHITE (Snowman)
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Who implements SCATANA in the NORAD environment
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commander of Norad
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why does the faa direct that all fixed electronics devices are shut down under SCATANA
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So the enemy is denied use of their homing devices to reach target areas
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how do friendly interceptor aircraft identify themselves when operating the cleared area
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Transmitting IFF/SIFF Codes
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when is ESCAT implemented
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when emergency conditions exist that threaten national security but dont warrant the declaration of ADE or the control of navigational aids
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name the AF publication that serves as a training contract between aetc and our 1c5x1 functional managers
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STS- Specialty training Standard
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what skill level is awarded after the successful completion of tech school
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3- apprentice
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once you are qualified in an acnw duty position and upon completeion of your cdcs what skill level are you awarded
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5-journeyman
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what is the afsc of an acnw journeyman
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1C551
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what is the afsc of an acnw superintendant
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1C591
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Bearing 295
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NW
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Bearing 240
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SW
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Bearing 135
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SE
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Bearing 360
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True North
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Bearing 030
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NE
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Spell 100degrees, 95 miles
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one zero zero, ninety five
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Spell 30degrees, 125miles
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zero three zero, one hundred twenty five
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Spell 1degree, 30 miles
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zero zero one, thirty
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Spell 270degrees, 10 miles
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two seven zero, ten
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what reference lines are used to determine latitude and longitude
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prime meridian and the equator
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How many lines of latitude and longitude are there
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180 longitude
90 latitude |
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why is lat n long always read from the lower to higher
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because they are expressed as distance from the equator to the prime meridian
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what is the size in degrees of a major georef block
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15 degrees
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how are major georef blocks identified
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start at 180th meridian n move east, letter each 15 degree longtitude or vertical row with a latter from a-z (no O or I).
2nd letter- start at 90degree south latitude and go north, identify each row from A-M |
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how are georef cordinates read
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from bottom left to right then bottom to top
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size in degrees and nm, minor georef block
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1 degree, 60 nm
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what units are numerical georef broken down into
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minutes
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in georef which is reported first, lat or long
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longitude
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FJEG3035
FJ? EG? 30? 35? |
FG=MAJOR
EG=MINOR 30=Longitude mins 35=latitude mins |
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what size zones does mgrs divide the earth surface and how are these zones designated?
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earth divided into narrow zones six degrees of longitude in width beginning at the 180degree meridian and going east, each column is lettered alphabetically using the letters a-z. each letter repeated every 18 degrees.
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how are 100,000 meter mgrs squares designated
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with 2 letters a-z starting at the meridian and going east, each divided into 6degrees
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in the 100 meter mgrs square cordinate 142653, what does each digit mean
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1 and 6= 10,000
4 and 5= 1000 2 and 3=100 |
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what phase of mission planning/ATO cycle are targets nominated to support the objectives and priorities provided by the JFC
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Target Developement
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what list provides the basis for weaponeering assessment activities
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JIPTL
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what phase of mission planning/ato cycle evaluates combat operations effectiveness to achieve command objectives and provides the inputs for future target development
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combat assestment
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who submits disums to a national level
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combattant commands
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when is the disum most effective
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early in the operational period when decisions being made are good for 24 hours
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what is usually the effective time of the ato
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24 hours
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what are the 3 atos that exist
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today, tomorrow, following day
ato in execution ato in production ato in planning |
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how do we use the ato to assist the airspace identification misson
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iff codes and specific positions
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how are 100,000 meter mgrs squares designated
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with 2 letters a-z starting at the meridian and going east, each divided into 6degrees
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in the 100 meter mgrs square cordinate 142653, what does each digit mean
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1 and 6= 10,000
4 and 5= 1000 2 and 3=100 |
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what phase of mission planning/ATO cycle are targets nominated to support the objectives and priorities provided by the JFC
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Target Developement
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what list provides the basis for weaponeering assessment activities
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JIPTL
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what phase of mission planning/ato cycle evaluates combat operations effectiveness to achieve command objectives and provides the inputs for future target development
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combat assestment
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who submits disums to a national level
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combattant commands
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when is the disum most effective
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early in the operational period when decisions being made are good for 24 hours
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what is usually the effective time of the ato
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24 hours
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what are the 3 atos that exist
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today, tomorrow, following day
ato in execution ato in production ato in planning |
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how are 100,000 meter mgrs squares designated
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with 2 letters a-z starting at the meridian and going east, each divided into 6degrees
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how do we use the ato to assist the airspace identification misson
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iff codes and specific positions
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in the 100 meter mgrs square cordinate 142653, what does each digit mean
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1 and 6= 10,000
4 and 5= 1000 2 and 3=100 |
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what phase of mission planning/ATO cycle are targets nominated to support the objectives and priorities provided by the JFC
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Target Developement
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what list provides the basis for weaponeering assessment activities
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JIPTL
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what phase of mission planning/ato cycle evaluates combat operations effectiveness to achieve command objectives and provides the inputs for future target development
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combat assestment
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who submits disums to a national level
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combattant commands
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when is the disum most effective
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early in the operational period when decisions being made are good for 24 hours
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what is usually the effective time of the ato
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24 hours
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what are the 3 atos that exist
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today, tomorrow, following day
ato in execution ato in production ato in planning |
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how do we use the ato to assist the airspace identification misson
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iff codes and specific positions
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what part of the ato highlights modifies or suppliments mission data contained in other parts of the ato
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SPINS
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what timing cycle is the aco based
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ato cycle
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what are the 2 lanes that are set up in the aco for aircraft entering n exiting the AOR
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INGRESS-ENTER
ENGRESS-EXIT |
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who is the final authority for the roe in theater
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JFC
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on what is the roe based
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premises of self defense
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why are roe restrictive during peacetime
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to prevent the shootdown of friendly air craft
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what document provides the info necessary to plan develop manage and conduct an effective 1C5X1 career field training program
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cftep
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in what part of the career field education and training plan cftep is the specialty training standard found
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part 2
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what air force specialty code skill level must you attain to be eligible for promotion to ssgt
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5 level
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a 3 level acnw operator carries the title of a
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apprentice
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what identifies special experience and training NOT otherwise identified within the personal data system
SEI AFSC AFSC prefix afsc suffix |
SEI
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what is the uniform system of five progressive readiness conditions
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DEFCONS
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Which defense readiness condition (defcon) requires an increase in force readiness above that required for normal readiness
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DEFCON 3
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which DEFCON indicates all forces are ready for wartime
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defcon 1
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when an attack is upon continental us, or canada by hostile a/c is considered probable, imminent, or taking place, the commander of the north american aerospace defense command (NORAD) declares an...
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ADE.. air defense emergency
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air defense warnings indicate..
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degree of probability that an airborne attack will be made against the aerospace defense area
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ATC electronic devices are turned off to deny their use as homing devices by the enemy when...
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SCANTATA is implemented
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any unidentified targets detected in a cleared area under the conditions of a security of air traffic and nav aids ( SCATANA) will be...
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presumen to be hostile and subject to prompt interception
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which of the cardinal directions bears 110
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southeast
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060 degrees and 135 miles
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zero six zero, one hundred thirty five
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the reference lines by which lat n long are determined
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equator and prime meridian, respectively
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size of major GEOREF block
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15degrees
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size of minor GEOREF square
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1 degree
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the rows in GEOREF blocks are numbered from
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00-59
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the MGRS is read from
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left to right, then up
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what size is MGRS square represented by the cordinates 17R DJ
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100,000 METERS
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what size mgrs square is represented by 13 E DH 1427
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1000 meters
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during what phase do targeting personnel quantify the expected results of lethan and non lethan weapons employment against prioritized targets
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weaponering/allocation
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who submits daily DISUM to the national level
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combattant commands
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how many diff ATOs are there at a given time
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3
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who is the final authority for a theater where ROE is concerned
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JFC
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what is the normal mission of an intercept during peacetime rules of ROE
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ID-identify
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The energy transmitted by a radar sensor through the atmosphere or space
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A radio wave
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Define a radio wave
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The energy transmitted by a radar sensor through the atmosphere or space
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what is the part of the radio wave that bounces back to the antenna
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an echo or return
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identify the brain of the radar system, why is that so
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syncronizer, because it coordinates the operation of various parts of the radar
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explain the function of the modulator
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provides an extremely large very short square wave pulse of DC voltage to the transmitter
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what provides an extremely large very short square wave pulse of DC voltage to the transmitter
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modulator
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what is the antennas purpose during transmission
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concentrate teh radiated energy into a shaped beam that points in the desired direction into space
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what device allows a single antenna to both transmit and recieve
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the duplexer
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what component of the radar separates wanted from unwanted signals
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the receiver
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Define PRF
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number of times the radar transmits per second
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number of times the radar transmits per second
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PRF
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Define PRT
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Length of time between transmissions
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the length of time between transmissions
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PRT
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WHAT IS THE PULSE DOPPLER RADAR
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similar to a modulated pulse radar, but its receiver detes a shift or change of frwquence of the received signal (doppler shift) to distinguish between stationary and moving objects.
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similar to a modulated pulse radar, but its receiver detes a shift or change of frwquence of the received signal (doppler shift) to distinguish between stationary and moving objects.
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pulse doppler radar
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how are airborne radars able to distinguish targets from ground returns
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because the doppler shift is produced only by moving targets and not stationary.
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how does a phased array radar move the radar beam
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P-A antenna electronically steers the beam. the beam can be swept across the antennas both horizontallu m verticaly
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what type of iff/siff transponders do we use today
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mark XII
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How many modes and codes, who uses them
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7.
1,2,4 MIL 1-army navy 2-all 4-controlled by af 3a/c joint by mil and faa b/d civil use only |
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what mode is used by air force to identify a/c based on squadron and tail number
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mode 2
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what is the diff between mode 3 and mode a
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NADA
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What info is provided by mode C
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altitude
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how is the iff/siff interrogation a questioning process
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interrogation means to question, the interrogator will send out asking what is your code and transponder will send out a mode if asked
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why are the iff sif pulses transmitted after the radar pulses
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so that the iffsiff return is presented at a slightly dif range then the radar return
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what is interlacing
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to interrogate a different mode each prt, all modes can be easily interrogates as the antenna sweeps past an aircraft
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list the three mode 3A emergencys
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7500-hijack
7600-lost of communications 7700-general emer |
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how id mode 4 different
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encrypted interrogation and response and helps tell the difference between friend and potentially hostile
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what is special pilot identification or SPI
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special pilot identification! obtain a special display from the pilot of an a/c, to request sqack flash or ident, pulot responds by turning on a switch on the transponder to flash.
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how can iff sif be useful for detection and tracking
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iff sif signal is usually stronger then the radar signal. if iff sif missing, the return that is present can be used to track the target
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what frequency range does the arsr4 operate
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1215-1400 mhz
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how does the arsr4 radar increase weather processing capabilities
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has a completely seperate weather channel and processing path apart from target channels
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where have arsr 4 radars been installed
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around conus, guam hawaii, guantanamo bay, cuba
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what is the total number of waveguide radiators that transmit on the tps 75
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22
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what speed does the tps 75 radar rotate
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6.5 rpm
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on tps75 whats the minnimum n max distance from radar shelter to the antenna pallet
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7-21ft
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what is the altitude limit of fps 117
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100,000ft
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how many frequencies can be set for fps117 for long range detection
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canada iceland us
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what system across alaska canada uses the fps124
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north warning system
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altitude for fps 124
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15000ft
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how many reportable tracks per scan can be the fps124 process and forward
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20
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primary function of the fps124
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short range, fills gaps in coverage of existing ps117 radars along nws.
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RARAR!... radio:
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detection and ranging
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what aspect of the target can radar not determine
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type
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which radar component allows a single antenna to serve for transmitting and receiving
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DUPLEXER
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The radars antennas function during transmission is to
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concentrate the radiated energy into a shaped beam that points in the desired direction into space
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the radars antennas function during reception is to
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collect the energy contained in the echo signal and deliver it to the receiver
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the number of times the radar transmits per second is known as the
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PRF
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what is the principle used in radar to detet a target by analyzing a change in frequency of a return signal
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doppler shift
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what has many small antennas or slotted waveguides positioned on the face or side of the large wedge shaped structure
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phased arrar radar
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how many id, iff sif modes of operation are there
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7
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the id iff sif provides automatic reporting of aircraft altitude is
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C
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the mode of id, iff sif interrogation is controlled by
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spacing of two pulses generated by the transponder
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the id/iff.sif pulses are transmitted after the radar pulse so
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they do not interfer with each other
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which id/iff/sif codes are fixed for each airframe
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mode 2
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which id iff sif codes are generated by an altimeter
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mode C
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what does id iff sif mode 3/A code 7500 mean
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hijack
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7600
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lost communications
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7700
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emergency
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which id iff sif mode enables operators to distinguinsh between friendly and potentionally hostile a/c
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mode 4
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why might you receive an id, iff sif return from a target and not a radar return
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when the iff sif return is stronger then the radar return
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The energy transmitted by a radar sensor through the atmosphere or space
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A radio wave
|
|
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Define a radio wave
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The energy transmitted by a radar sensor through the atmosphere or space
|
|
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what is the part of the radio wave that bounces back to the antenna
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an echo or return
|
|
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identify the brain of the radar system, why is that so
|
syncronizer, because it coordinates the operation of various parts of the radar
|
|
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explain the function of the modulator
|
provides an extremely large very short square wave pulse of DC voltage to the transmitter
|
|
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what provides an extremely large very short square wave pulse of DC voltage to the transmitter
|
modulator
|
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what is the antennas purpose during transmission and reception
|
concentrate teh radiated energy into a shaped beam that points in the desired direction into space
|
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what device allows a single antenna to both transmit and recieve
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the duplexer
|
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what component of the radar separates wanted from unwanted signals
|
the receiver
|
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Define PRF
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number of times the radar transmits per second
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why might you receive an id iff siff return from a target and not a radar return
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when the iff return is stronger then the radar return
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which id iff sif mode enables operators to tell the difference btwteen friendly and potentionally hostile ac
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mode 4
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7500
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hijack
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7600
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lost of com
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7700
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emergency
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which id iff sif codes are generated by an altimeter
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MODE C
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which id iff sif coded are fixed for each airframe
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MODE 2
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which id iff sif codes can be selected by an a/c pilot
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mode 3/c
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the id iff sif pulses are transmitted after a radar pulse so
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the iff/sif return can be presented at a slightly different range then the radar retrurn
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the mode of id iff sif interrogation is controlled by
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spacing of the two pulses generated by the transponder
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what frequency range does the air route surveillance radar model arsr 4 operate in
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1215 to 1400 mhz
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how does the air routesurveillance radar model arsr 4 increase its weather processing capabilities
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incorporating a completely separate weather channel and processing path
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what radar system is used in mobile applications
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tps75
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what is the range of the tps 75 radar antenna
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240nm
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the fps 117 can frequency hop up to how many preset frequencies
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18
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what is the altitude limit of the fps-124
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15,000ft
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altitude limit of fps 117
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100,000ft
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what type of air mass is associated with WASHINGTON STATE
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Maritime Polar
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MISSISSIPPI
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Maritime Tropical
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WEST TEXAS
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Continental tropical
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SOUTHERN CALI
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Maritime tropical
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WISCONSIN
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Continental Polar
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what type of front is formed when warm air moved up over a wedge of colder retreating air
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warm front
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what type of front shows little or no movement
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stationary
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what type of front produces severe weather during the initial forming stages
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occuluded fronts
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which front is associated with an abrupt drop in temperature, a shift in wind with wind gusts, and a rapid rise in barometric pressure
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cold front
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what effect does heavy cloud coverage and heavy rain have on radar
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range of radar is affected due to atenuation
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how is radar energy lost in attenuation
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through scattering and absorbtion
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what is the troposphere
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portion of the atmosphere within which our weather occurs
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what causes the bending or retraction of radar energy
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the structure of our trophosphere
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whar are the 4 basic types of refraction
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supper refraction
normal refraction trapping subrefraction |
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which type of refraction causes radar energy to be curved upward
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subrefraction
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which type of refraction occurs during cloudy rainy weather with strong winds
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normalrefraction
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which type of refraction causes radar energy to be curved downward more sharply then normal but not as much as the curvature of the earth
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superrefraction
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which type of refraction causes radar energy to be curved downward equal to or greater then the curvature of the earth
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trapping
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what is one problem caused by strong weather returns
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masking effect or shadow area
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what type of report format is now the standard and is used world wide
|
metar report
|
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ENCODE
-METAR report, location identifer papa hotel november lime,date/time one niner two three zero, zero, wind one three zero degrees at twenty visibility three, runway visual range one four right four thousand, patched rain and fog, sky condition one thousand scattered and ceiling two thousand five hundred broken, temperature three one dew point two six, altimiter two eight five two |
METAR PHNL 192300Z 13020KT 3SM
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METAR PHNL 031900z 18010KT 11/2SM FU OVC010CB 20/20 A2990
WHATS: visibility? ceiling? weather pheneomona? altimeter setting? |
visibility: 1 1/2
ceiling- overcast 1000ft phenomona: smoke altimeter setting: 2990, two niner niner zero |
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two basic uses of winds aloft
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to compute and forcast radiation fallout and interceptor heading corrections
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what is considered a constant surface for weather purposes
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land n water
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a continental polar air mass would most likely be associated with
WASHINGTON STATE WEST TEXAS MISSISSIPPI WISCONSIN |
WISCONSIN
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for the purpose of identifying clouds, the atmosphere is divided into..
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high, middle and low sections
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what is the area between two different air masses called
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front
|
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weather fronts are generally classified according to
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reletive motions of the air masses involved
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what type of front is formed when warm air moves up over a wedge of colder retreating air
|
warm
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the advancing or leading edge of a cold air mass is called a
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cold front
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|
concerning weather effects on radar the combination of scattering and absorbtion is known as
|
attenuation
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the area of the atmosphere where weather occurs is known as the
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troposphere
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what type of refraction causes energy waves to be curved UPWARD
|
subrefraction
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how is radar performance affected during superrefraction if at all
|
radar energy is bet downward increasing the range
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which form of regraction may result in radar holes or blind spots
|
trapping
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when is a special weather report issued (SPECI)
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when a signiciant weather change occurs
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In an aviation routine weather report (metar) what does the M under runway visual range stand for
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LESS THEN
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In a METAR report how is hail indicated
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GR
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what element in the METAR report gives info about clouds and obscuring phenomena
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sky condition
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winds aloft are reported in
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5,000ft increments from 5000ft-60000ft
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_____ is a word of group of words to which we assign a definite meaning and whose purpose is to shorton and facilitare voice communications
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prowords
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what are the two types of calls in radio communications
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single-THIS IS one call sign
multiple-two or more call signs..THIS IS |
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Two advantages of utilizing a cell phone and pager
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1. Backup communications
2. easier to contact commanders/key personel, when not near administrative telephone |
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what procedures must be followed when an indiividual having less then a secret security clearance must use the STU-III
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must be supervised by someone who is cleared.
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how are communications using the STE secured
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using a fortezza card
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name the levels of precedence of the telephone priority system
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flash, immediate, priority, routine
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what precedence is reserved for vital communications having an immediate operational effect on tactical operations, safety and rescue ops, and intel reports
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IMMEDIATE
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what band of frequencies do we know as the hf band
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3-30 mhz
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which frequencies are in high demand because of their reliable long range propagation accomodating voice and teleype data
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HF
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are frequencies in the vhf range useful for long distance comm, explain
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no, because they are only LOS
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three principal methods of uhf propagation
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LOS, SATELLITE, TROPHOSPERIC SCATTER
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why is it important to use prescribed procedures for radio operations
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to shorten calls, let you release the frequency to another user
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4 factors of speech
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volume, speed, rhythem, pitch
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what happens if you speak too loudly on a HF circit
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overmodulat the signal; become unreadable
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what should tou always ensure you know before you key the radio microphone
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exactly what you are going to say
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what is the purpose of prowords in radio/tel comm.
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to shorten voice comm
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give the exact meaning of disreguard this transmission
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transmission is an error
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what proword is precede the transmission of numbers
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figures
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what does ROGER signify
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recieved last transmission sasitfactorly
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proword to say you need a repeat of last transmission
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say again
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why do you use multiple call
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to contact two or more units at once
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in making a full call, why would you transmit both call signs twice to attract attention
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when comm is difficult or multiple siimilar callsigns are in the area
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in making a full call, why would you transit both call signs twice to attract attention
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when com is difficult or multiple call signs in same area
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if after a few calls you realize you cant establish contact with an a/c what do u do
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go through another agency
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what is the purpose of MINIMIZE
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to limit volume of traffic in the comm system and to ensure the flow of essential traffic
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who has the athorty of minimize
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JCS-WORLDWIDE
commanders at all levels within their command or area of responsibility |
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generally, what document is used to impose miimize
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general msg
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who can cancel a MINIMIZE condition
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the imposing or appropriate higher authority
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what type of telephone is a direct line without dialing capabilities
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hot line
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The DSN system is basically
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A LONG DISTANCE TELEPHONE SYSTEM
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which frequencies are normally only useful for distances approximately within the line of sight
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VHF and above
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what is the primary frequency band used to propagate trophospheric scatter and satellite communications
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UHF
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Approximately how far away from your lips should you hold your microphone
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1/2 inch
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what proword should be used before transmitting numerals or numbers
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FIGURES
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Proword for proceed with message
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GO AHEAD
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What are the methods of calling used in radio comm
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full and abbreviated
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in which method of calling are the call signs of the calling and called stations only given once
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FULL
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when are abbreviated calls authorized
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during good communications conditions and after contact has been firmly established
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who may impose minimize worldwide on all users of DOD
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JCS -Joint Chiefs of Staff
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What is the purpose of SORTS?
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Provide data critical to crisis planning
-Provide data for the deliberate planning process -It is to be used by the CSAF and subordinate commanders in assessing their effectiveness in meeting their responsiblities |
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Where is a unit's response time reflected?
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Unit's DOC statement
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When are SORTS reports required?
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Within 24 hours of a change or every 28-30 days. Info in the database can be no older than 31 days from the last report
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who is ultimately responsible for timely and accurate reporting
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the commander
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how is a report that contains information on a combat loss classified
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minnimum of secret
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when majcom suspends the submission of any aforeps report, whom do they advise
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hq usaf
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who submits an oprep3-event/incident report
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the lowest level of command with knowledge of the event
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which flagword do we use to identify events or incidents where interest does not go above hqusaf
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beeline
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whigh flagword do we use to provide info to nmcc on any incident of national level interest
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pinnacle
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which oprep 3 report takes precedence over all other oprep 3 reports
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pinalccle nucflash
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what is the purpose of a SITREP
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to keep the joint staff, services and national leadership apprised of existing polotocal, military and operational situations
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unless otherwise specified by commanders directives when are sitrep submitted
|
NLT 0200Z
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what significant factors do af sitrep evaluate
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readiness, mobilization of personal, logistics
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where is a units response time reflected
|
units DOC statement
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what are the six category levels used in SORTS reporting
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c1-c6
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what four resource areas are measured in SORTS
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PERSONEL, QUIP SUPPLIES ON HAND, EQUIP CONDITION, TRAINING
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what classification is assigned to a document that lists the overall c-level for two units
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SECRET
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What is a major US goal for the USMTF
|
allied adoption of USMTF message formats for all services
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why are terms used in usmtf defined with precision
|
meanings are clear to all users within the system
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list 3 major structural components of usmtf system
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message text,set, field
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what is teh most basic building block in the overall structure of the usmtf
|
field
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what is the purpose of the main text in the usmtf
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adresses the subject by the formatted msg
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how does a message indicate teh beginning of a field indicated within a set
|
beginning= /
end= // |
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|
3 CHECKLISTS
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EMERGENCY CHECKLIST
QUICK REACTION NORMAL CHECKLIST |
|
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what does the first page of each checlist contain
|
date it was last reviewed and the reviewers initials
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what is always the first checklist in a binder/holder
|
aircraft emergency checklist
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for what do units review checklists
|
technical accuracy and completeness
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who is responsible to ensure the current checklist is being used
|
individual mission crew members
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why is it important to put a mark next to each step as you run the checklist
|
to help track what steps still need to be accomplished and to prevent the omission critical steps.
|
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the main guideline for including a report in the AFOREPS is it must be
|
essential to command and control of aerospace forces
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reports within the AFOREPS must contain information on a combat loss are classified a minimum of
|
secret
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what type of operational report 3 oprep3 is used for incidents or events that do not merit HQ USAF attention, but are of interest to major command MAJCOM
|
homeline
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|
commanders situations reports SITREP must be submitted NLT
|
0200z
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the chief of staff, usaf and subordinate commanders use status of resources of training system data is assesing their
|
effectiveness in meeting their responsibilities
|
|
|
what category level indicates a unit requires additional resources to undertake its wartime mission
|
C-4
|
|
|
the CSAF and subordinate commanders use SORTS data in assesing their..
|
effectiveness in meeting their responsibilities
|
|
|
which measures resource area (MRA) normally drives a units overall (C-level)
|
the lowest of the four MRAs
|
|
|
what is the major us goal of the usmtf standards
|
allied adoption of usmtf standards
|
|
|
how many major structural components make up the usmtf system
|
3
|
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|
what is the only portion of a message that is governed by the USMTF system rules
|
main text
|
|
|
whos responsibility is it to ensure that only the current checklist is used
|
individual mission crew member
|
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|
why do you place a mark net to each item in the checklist as it is completed
|
prevents you from missing mission critical steps
|
|
|
What type of tell provides adjacent stations with track information on approaching tracks?
|
lateral
|
|
|
How many people are involved with documenting training in the STS? WHO
|
Trainer-Trainee-Certifier
|
|
|
upgrading to 5 level you need __months ugt n __ for retrainees
|
15, 9
|
|
|
what level for staff?
|
5
|
|
|
7 level, how many months ugt
|
12 months
|
|
|
promotions above e-5, you need __ level
|
7
|
|
|
must be E-__ to be a 9 level and complete __
|
e-8, senior nco academy
|
|
|
When the commander of NORAD declares __ when an attack upon contintnetal us, by hostile a/c considered probable or iminemt
|
ADE/BIG NOISE
|
|
|
the commander of NORAD declares __ when there has been a major attack on us forces in an overseas area
|
DE/HOT BOX
|
