• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/42

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

42 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)

18-4 Which of the following events does not usually occur during interphase?

(b) The nuclear envelope breaks down.

(a) Cells grow in size.
(b) The nuclear envelope breaks down.
(c) DNA is replicated.
(d) The centrosomes are duplicated.



18-5 In which phase of the cell cycle do cells check to determine whether the DNA is fully and correctly replicated?


(d) at the end of G2

(a) at the transition between G1 and S
(b) when cells enter G0
(c) during M
(d) at the end of G2



18-8 Which of the following statements about the cell cycle is false?


(a) Once a cell decides to enter the cell cycle, the time from start to finish is the same in all eukaryotic cells.


(a) Once a cell decides to enter the cell cycle, the time from start to finish is the same in all eukaryotic cells.
(b) An unfavorable environment can cause cells to arrest in G1.
(c) A cell has more DNA during G2 than it did in G1.
(d) The cleavage divisions that occur in an early embryo have short G1 and G2 phases.


18-9 Which of the following descriptions is consistent with the behavior of a cell that lacks a protein required for a checkpoint mechanism that operates in G2?

(c) The cell would enter M phase under conditions when normal cells would not.


(a) The cell would be unable to enter M phase.
(b) The cell would be unable to enter G2.
(c) The cell would enter M phase under conditions when normal cells would not.
(d) The cell would pass through M phase more slowly than normal cells


18-11 Progression through the cell cycle requires a cyclin to bind to a Cdk because _________.
(b) the binding of a cyclin to Cdk is required for Cdk enzymatic activity.

(a) the cyclins are the molecules with the enzymatic activity in the complex.
(b) the binding of a cyclin to Cdk is required for Cdk enzymatic activity.
(c) cyclin binding inhibits Cdk activity until the appropriate time in the cell cycle.
(d) without cyclin binding, a cell-cycle checkpoint will be activated.



18-12 Levels of Cdk activity change during the cell cycle, in part because ________________.


(d) cyclin levels change during the cycle.


(a) the Cdks phosphorylate each other.
(b) the Cdks activate the cyclins.
(c) Cdk degradation precedes entry into the next phase of the cell cycle.
(d) cyclin levels change during the cycle.


18-13 The concentration of mitotic cyclin (M cyclin) ________________.
(c) falls toward the end of M phase as a result of ubiquitylation and degradation.

(a) rises markedly during M phase.
(b) is activated by phosphorylation.
(c) falls toward the end of M phase as a result of ubiquitylation and degradation.
(d) is highest in G1 phase.



18-14 You have isolated a strain of mutant yeast cells that divides normally at 30°C but cannot enter M phase at 37°C. You have isolated its mitotic cyclin and mitotic Cdk and find that both proteins are produced and can form a normal M-Cdk complex at both temperatures. Which of the following temperature-sensitive mutations could not be responsible for the behavior of this strain of yeast?


(b) inactivation of an enzyme that ubiquitylates M cyclin

(a) inactivation of a protein kinase that acts on the mitotic Cdk kinase
(b) inactivation of an enzyme that ubiquitylates M cyclin
(c) inactivation of a phosphatase that acts on the mitotic Cdk kinase
(d) a decrease in the levels of a transcriptional regulator required for producing sufficient amounts of M cyclin


18-15 You engineer yeast cells that express the M cyclin during S phase by replacing the promoter sequence of the M cyclin gene with that of S cyclin. Keeping in mind that yeast cells have one common Cdk that binds to all cyclins, which of the following outcomes is least likely during this experiment?

(c) G1 cyclins will be expressed during S phase.


(a) There will be both M cyclin–Cdk and S cyclin–Cdk complexes in the cell during S phase.
(b) Some substrates that are normally phosphorylated in M phase will now be phosphorylated in S phase.
(c) G1 cyclins will be expressed during S phase.
(d) S-Cdk targets will be phosphorylated during S phase.


18-17 Which of the following statements is false?
(d) The activating phosphatase (Cdc25) removes all phosphates from mitotic Cdk so that M-Cdk will be active.

(a) Mitotic Cdk must be phosphorylated by an activating kinase (Cak) before it is active.
(b) Phosphorylation of mitotic Cdk by the inhibitory kinase (Wee1) makes the Cdk inactive, even if it is phosphorylated by the activating kinase.
(c) Active M-Cdk phosphorylates the activating phosphatase (Cdc25) in a positive feedback loop.
(d) The activating phosphatase (Cdc25) removes all phosphates from mitotic Cdk so that M-Cdk will be active.


18-19 MPF activity was discovered when cytoplasm from a Xenopus M-phase cell was injected into Xenopus oocytes, inducing the oocytes to form a mitotic spindle. In a control experiment, Xenopus interphase cytoplasm was injected into oocytes and shown not to induce the formation of a mitotic spindle. Which of the following statements is not a legitimate conclusion from the control experiment?
(d) Components of an interphase nucleus are insufficient to cause mitotic spindle formation.

(a) The piercing of the oocyte membrane by a needle is insufficient to cause mitotic spindle formation.
(b) An increased volume of cytoplasm is insufficient to cause mitotic spindle formation.
(c) Injection of extra RNA molecules is insufficient to cause mitotic spindle formation.
(d) Components of an interphase nucleus are insufficient to cause mitotic spindle formation.


18-20 Which of the following is not good direct evidence that the cell-cycle control system is conserved through billions of years of divergent evolution?
(d) Yeast cells have only one Cdk, whereas humans have many Cdks.

(a) A yeast cell lacking a Cdk function can use the human Cdk to substitute for its missing Cdk during the cell cycle.
(b) The amino acid sequences of cyclins in plants are similar to the amino acid sequences of cyclins in humans.
(c) The Cdk proteins in humans share conserved phosphorylation sites with the Cdk proteins in yeast.
(d) Yeast cells have only one Cdk, whereas humans have many Cdks.



18-22 Mitogens are _____.
(a) extracellular signals that stimulate cell division.

(a) extracellular signals that stimulate cell division.
(b) transcription factors important for cyclin production.
(c) kinases that cause cells to grow in size.
(d) produced by mitotic cells to keep nearby neighboring cells from dividing.


18-23 The Retinoblastoma (Rb) protein blocks cells from entering the cell cycle by ______.
(c) inhibiting cyclin transcription

(a) phosphorylating Cdk.
(b) marking cyclins for destruction by proteolysis.
(c) inhibiting cyclin transcription.
(d) activating apoptosis.



18-25 The G1 DNA damage checkpoint ________________.


(d) involves the inhibition of cyclin–Cdk complexes by p21.

(a) causes cells to proceed through S phase more quickly.
(b) involves the degradation of p53.
(c) is activated by errors caused during DNA replication.
(d) involves the inhibition of cyclin–Cdk complexes by p21.


18-26 Cells in the G0 state ________________.
(a) do not divide.

(a) do not divide.
(b) cannot re-enter the cell cycle.
(c) have entered this arrest state from either G1 or G2.
(d) have duplicated their DNA.


18-28 Which of the following statements is false?



18-29 How does S–Cdk help guarantee that replication occurs only once during each cell cycle?


(c) It phosphorylates the Cdc6 protein, marking it for destruction.

(a) It blocks the rise of Cdc6 concentrations early in G1.
(b) It phosphorylates and inactivates DNA helicase.
(c) It phosphorylates the Cdc6 protein, marking it for destruction.
(d) It promotes the assembly of a prereplicative complex.


18-30 You create cells with a version of Cdc6 that cannot be phosphorylated and thus cannot be degraded. Which of the following statements describes the likely consequence of this change in Cdc6?
(b) Cells will be unable to complete DNA synthesis.

(a) Cells will enter S phase prematurely.
(b) Cells will be unable to complete DNA synthesis.
(c) The origin recognition complex (ORC) will be unable to bind to DNA.
(d) Cdc6 will be produced inappropriately during M phase.



18-33 Which of the following does not occur during M phase in animal cells?


(a) growth of the cell

(a) growth of the cell
(b) condensation of chromosomes
(c) breakdown of nuclear envelope
(d) attachment of chromosomes to microtubules


18-34 Condensins ________________.
(b) assemble into complexes on the DNA when phosphorylated by M-Cdk.

(a) are degraded when cells enter M phase.
(b) assemble into complexes on the DNA when phosphorylated by M-Cdk.
(c) are involved in holding sister chromatids together.
(d) bind to DNA before DNA replication begins.



18-35 At the end of DNA replication, the sister chromatids are held together by the ___________.


(c) cohesins.

(a) kinetochores.
(b) securins.
(c) cohesins.
(d) histones.


18-36 Which of the following statements is true?
(d) The mitotic spindle helps segregate the chromosomes to the two daughter cells.


(a) The mitotic spindle is largely made of intermediate filaments.
(b) The contractile ring is made largely of microtubules and actin filaments.
(c) The contractile ring divides the nucleus in two.
(d) The mitotic spindle helps segregate the chromosomes to the two daughter cells.



18-40 The principal microtubule-organizing center in animal cells is the ____________.


(a) centrosome.

(a) centrosome.
(b) centromere.
(c) kinetochore.
(d) cell cortex.


18-48 Disassembly of the nuclear envelope ________________.
(d) must occur for kinetochore microtubules to form in animal cells.

(a) causes the inner nuclear membrane to separate from the outer nuclear membrane.
(b) results in the conversion of the nuclear envelope into protein-free membrane vesicles.
(c) is triggered by the phosphorylation of integrins.
(d) must occur for kinetochore microtubules to form in animal cells.

18-50 Which of the following statements about kinetochores is true?



18-52 A friend declares that chromosomes are held at the metaphase plate by microtubules that push on each chromosome from opposite sides. Which of the following observations does not support your belief that the microtubules are pulling on the chromosomes?


(a) the jiggling movement of chromosomes at the metaphase plate

(a) the jiggling movement of chromosomes at the metaphase plate
(b) the way in which chromosomes behave when the attachment between sister chromatids is severed
(c) the way in which chromosomes behave when the attachment to one kinetochore is severed
(d) the shape of chromosomes as they move toward the spindle poles at anaphase



18-54 Which of the following statements about the anaphase-promoting complex (APC) is false?


(c) It is continuously active throughout the cell cycle.


(a) It promotes the degradation of proteins that regulate M phase.
(b) It inhibits M-Cdk activity.
(c) It is continuously active throughout the cell cycle.
(d) M-Cdk stimulates its activity.


18-55 Which of the following statements is true?

(d) In anaphase B, microtubules associated with the cell cortex shorten.


(a) Anaphase A must be completed before anaphase B can take place.
(b) In cells in which anaphase B predominates, the spindle will elongate much less than in cells in which anaphase A dominates.
(c) In anaphase A, both kinetochore and interpolar microtubules shorten.
(d) In anaphase B, microtubules associated with the cell cortex shorten.



18-56 When introduced into mitotic cells, which of the following is expected to impair anaphase B but not anaphase A?


(d) an antibody against the motor proteins that move from the minus end of microtubules toward the plus end

(a) an antibody against myosin
(b) ATPγS, a nonhydrolyzable ATP analog that binds to and inhibits ATPases
(c) an antibody against the motor proteins that move from the plus end of microtubules to the minus end
(d) an antibody against the motor proteins that move from the minus end of microtubules toward the plus end



18-57 Which of the following precede the re-formation of the nuclear envelope during M phase in animal cells?


(a) assembly of the contractile ring


(a) assembly of the contractile ring
(b) decondensation of chromosomes
(c) reassembly of the nuclear lamina
(d) transcription of nuclear genes


18-58 A cell with nuclear lamins that cannot be phosphorylated in M phase will be unable to ________________.
(b) disassemble its nuclear lamina at prometaphase.

(a) reassemble its nuclear envelope at telophase.
(b) disassemble its nuclear lamina at prometaphase.
(c) begin to assemble a mitotic spindle.
(d) condense its chromosomes at prophase.


18-61 Cytokinesis in animal cells ________________.
(a) requires ATP.

(a) requires ATP.
(b) leaves a small circular “scar” of actin filaments on the inner surface of the plasma membrane.
(c) is often followed by phosphorylation of integrins in the plasma membrane.
(d) is assisted by motor proteins that pull on microtubules attached to the cell cortex.

18-62 Which of the following statements is false?



18-63 Which of the following statements is false?


(d) Motor proteins walking along the cytoskeleton are important for the contractile ring that guides formation of the new cell wall.

(a) Cytokinesis in plant cells is mediated by the microtubule cytoskeleton.
(b) Small membrane vesicles derived from the Golgi apparatus deliver new cell-wall material for the new wall of the dividing cell.
(c) The phragmoplast forms from the remains of interpolar microtubules of the mitotic spindle.
(d) Motor proteins walking along the cytoskeleton are important for the contractile ring that guides formation of the new cell wall.


18-64 Which organelle fragments during mitosis?
(b) Golgi apparatus

(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Golgi apparatus
(c) mitochondrion
(d) chloroplast



18-65 Programmed cell death occurs ________________.


(a) by means of an intracellular suicide program.

(a) by means of an intracellular suicide program.
(b) rarely and selectively only during animal development.
(c) only in unhealthy or abnormal cells.
(d) only during embryonic development.


18-66 Apoptosis differs from necrosis in that necrosis ________________.
c) causes cells to swell and burst, whereas apoptotic cells shrink and condense.

(a) requires the reception of an extracellular signal.
(b) causes DNA to fragment.
(c) causes cells to swell and burst, whereas apoptotic cells shrink and condense.
(d) involves a caspase cascade.


18-67 Which of the following statements about apoptosis is true?
(d) Apoptosis is promoted by the release of cytochrome c into the cytosol from mitochondria.

(a) Cells that constitutively express Bcl2 will be more prone to undergo apoptosis.
(b) The prodomain of procaspases contains the catalytic activity necessary for procaspase activation.
(c) Bax and Bak promote apoptosis by binding to procaspases in the apoptosome.
(d) Apoptosis is promoted by the release of cytochrome c into the cytosol from mitochondria.

18-72 Of the following mutations, which are likely to cause cell-cycle arrest? If you predict a cell-cycle arrest, indicate whether the cell will arrest in early G1, late G1, or G2. Explain your answers.
A. a mutation in a gene encoding a cell-surface mitogen receptor that makes the receptor active even in the absence of the mitogen
B. a mutation that destroyed the kinase activity of S-Cdk


A. a mutation in a gene encoding a cell-surface mitogen receptor that makes the receptor active even in the absence of the mitogen
B. a mutation that destroyed the kinase activity of S-Cdk
C. a mutation that allowed G1-Cdk to be active independently of its phosphorylation status
D. a mutation that removed the phosphorylation sites on the Rb protein
E. a mutation that inhibited the activity of Rb

A mutant yeast strain stops proliferating when shifted from 25°C to 37°C. When these cells are analyzed at the two different temperatures, using a machine that sorts cells according to the amount of DNA they contain, the graphs in Figure Q18-3 a...

A mutant yeast strain stops proliferating when shifted from 25°C to 37°C. When these cells are analyzed at the two different temperatures, using a machine that sorts cells according to the amount of DNA they contain, the graphs in Figure Q18-3 are obtained. Which of the following would not explain the results with the mutant?

b) inability to begin M phase

(a) inability to initiate DNA replication
(b) inability to begin M phase
(c) inability to activate proteins needed to enter S phase
(d) inappropriate production of a signal that causes the cells to remain in G1
18-41 Which word or phrase below best describes the phase in mitosis depicted in Figure Q18-41?

18-41 Which word or phrase below best describes the phase in mitosis depicted in Figure Q18-41?

(d) metaphase

(a) anaphase
(b) prometaphase
(c) S-phase checkpoint
(d) metaphase
 




18-42 Which letter is associated with the line that is pointing to the interpolar microtubules in Figure Q18-41?


 



18-42 Which letter is associated with the line that is pointing to the interpolar microtubules in Figure Q18-41?


(e) E

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

18-50 Which of the following statements about kinetochores is true?

(a) Kinetochores assemble onto chromosomes during late prophase.


(a) Kinetochores assemble onto chromosomes during late prophase.
(b) Kinetochores contain DNA-binding proteins that recognize sequences at the telomere of the chromosome.
(c) Kinetochore proteins bind to the tubulin molecules at the minus end of microtubules.
(d) Kinetochores assemble on chromosomes that lack centromeres.


18-62 Which of the following statements is false?
(d) The cleavage furrow always forms in the middle of the cell.


(a) The cleavage furrow is a puckering of the plasma membrane caused by the constriction of a ring of filaments attached to the plasma membrane.
(b) The cleavage furrow will not begin to form in the absence of a mitotic spindle.
(c) The cleavage furrow always forms perpendicular to the interpolar microtubules.
(d) The cleavage furrow always forms in the middle of the cell.