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94 Cards in this Set
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I have radiculopathy and complain of numbness and tingling of the thumb and weakness with extension at the wrist wears the lesion |
C6 |
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I have radiculopathy and complaint of numbness and tingling affecting the middle finger where his lesion |
C7 |
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if there is radiculopathy the patient complains of difficulty with overhead activities whereas the lesion |
C7 |
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the patient complains of difficulty with grip and has a radiculopathy with lesion |
C7 |
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the patient complains of deltoid and biceps weakness where is the lesion what of the physical exam finding |
C5 diminished biceps reflex |
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patient complains of weakness with wrist extension and paresthesias of the thumb wears the lesion what other physical exam findings |
C6 diminished brachial radialis reflex |
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patient complains of triceps and wrist flexion weakness and paresthesias of the middle index and ring fingers wears a lesion what other physical exam finding is that |
C7 diminished triceps reflex |
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patient complains of difficulty with fine motor that is weakness of the distal phalanx flexion of the middle and index fingers paresthesias of the little finger with a lesion |
C8 |
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what chemical mediators contributed to the pain associated with nerve root irritation and radiculopathy |
substance P, BRADYkiNAN, TNF alpha,
, I L1 IL6 |
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what physical exam provocative test relieves the pain of cervical radiculopathy |
shoulder abduction test |
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what Should be ordered prior to surgery if the patient has subacromial hardware and is causing artifact on the MRI |
CT myelography |
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what is the treatment of a foraminal disc herniation causing a single level radiculopathy |
posterior foraminotomy 91% success rate |
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after ACDF patient returns to the office with difficulty breathing (dyspnea) during physical activity.
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patient had an ACDF returns to the office in sticks the tongue on achieving deviates was a complication and wears the injury |
complication is hypoglossal nerve CN12 injury and it deviates to the side of the injury |
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A 49-year-old male presents with left arm pain of four weeks duration. A T2-weighted axial MRI is shown in Figure A. Which of the following statements would most accurately describe his diagnosis and physical exam findings? 1. A C5 radiculopathy leading to deltoid and biceps weakness. 2. A C5 radiculopathy leading to brachioradialis and wrist extension weakness. 3. A C5 radiculopathy leading to triceps and wrist flexion weakness. 4. A C6 radiculopathy leading to brachioradialis and wrist extension weakness. 5. A C6 radiculopathy leading to finger flexion weakness.
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C6 radiculopathy, which is most likely presents with dermatomal arm pain, paresthesias in the thumb, weakness to brachioradialis and and wrist extension, and a diminished brachioradialis reflex.Incorrect Answers: |
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A 33-year-old male presents with neck and left arm pain. He denies symptoms in his right arm. Based on the MRI image shown in Fig A, what findings would be expected on physical exam? 1. weakness to shoulder shrug 2. weakness to shoulder abduction and elbow flexion 3. weakness to elbow flexion and wrist extension 4. weakness to elbow extension and wrist flexion 5. weakness to finger abduction |
The MRI shows an axial T2-weighted image with a left sided disc herniation causing foraminal stenosis at the C4/5 level. This would affect the C5 nerve root, and lead to deltoid (shoulder abduction) and biceps (elbow flexion) weakness. |
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A 38-year-old male presents with a cervical disc herniation at the C7/T1 level with associated foraminal stenosis, but no significant central stenosis. What would be the expected symptoms and physical exam findings. 1. Numbness of the lateral shoulder and deltoid weakness 2. Numbness of 2nd and 3rd fingers and triceps weakness 3. Numbness of the thumb with weakness to wrist extension 4. Numbness of 5th finger with weakness to long flexor function in all digits and thumb 5. Numbness of the medial elbow and weakness to long finger flexion of the 4th and 5th digits only
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A disc hernation at the C7/T1 level will most likely affect the C8 nerve root. A C8 radiculopathy usually presents with sensory symptoms in the medial border of the forearm and hand, and weakness in long flexor function in all digits and thumb. It is important to differentiate a C8 radiculopathy from a peripheral ulnar neuropathy which also presents with sensory symptoms in the ulnar hand and finger. One way to do so is to test DIP flexion of the middle and index finger. The function of the flexor digitorum profundus in the index and middle fingers can be affected by 8th cervical radiculopathy, but they are not affected by ulnar nerve entrapment. The reference by Rao is a review of the pathoanatomy of cervical spondylosis and the different clinical manifestations. They recommend a simplified clinical approach of dividing the presenting findings into the categories of axial neck pain, radiculopathy, myelopathy, or some combination of these three. ans4 |
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A 52-year-old woman underwent a C5/6 ACDF for cervical radiculopathy through a left-sided approach two years ago. Radiographs are shown in Figure A. She has had an altered voice since this operation. Recently, the patient has developed myelopathic symptoms including gait instability and dexterity problems with her hands. An MRI shows a fusion at C5/6, and an adjacent-level midline disc herniation at C4/5 with cord compression and myelomalacia. Laryngoscopy of the vocal cords demonstrates abnormal function of the vocal cords on the left hand side. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? Review Topic FIGURES: A QID: 1005
1. Physical therapy and NSAIDS 2. High dose methylprednisone 3. C5/6 hardware removal and C4/5 ACDF using a left sided anterior approach 4. C5/6 hardware removal and C4/5 ACDF using a right sided anterior approach 5. C5 to C7 posterior laminectomy and fusion
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. The most appropriate treatment at this time is hardware removal at C5/6 (she is fused) and anterior cervical discectomy and fusion at C4/5 utilizing a left sided approach through her old incision. One should avoid using a right-sided approach, as a right recurrent larygngeal nerve (RLN) injury would cause denervation of both vocal cords leading to breathing difficulties and aphonia. |
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what does AMBRI referred to |
A – atraumatic M– multidirectional B– bilateral R – rehabilitation I – inferior capsular shift |
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AMBRI what other general signs of hypermobility. The patient have-5 |
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what x-rays are included with complete trauma series of the shoulder |
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what arthroscopic findings diagnostic of a AMBRI/MDI? |
patient drive-through sign, although there are only 2 lb of traction, it is very easy to push the arthroscope between the humeral head and glenoid surfaces |
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what is the differential diagnosis for patient with MDI/AMBRI
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when arthroscopic surgery is done to treat MDI what areas must be addressed |
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postop on physical exam there is a positive liftoff test and excessive external rotationwith the diagnosis |
subscapular deficiency |
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postop there is loss of motion after treating an arthroscopic MDI what is the treatment |
the lengthening of the subscapularis |
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Which of the following is true regarding closure of the rotator interval in patients undergoing arthroscopic shoulder stabilization? 1. It can lead to recurrent instability 2. It restricts external rotation predominately in the "arm cocking" phase of throwing 3. It restricts combined flexion and cross-body adduction 4. It restricts external rotation predominately with the arm at 0 degrees of shoulder abduction 5. It restricts internal rotation predominately with the arm at 90 degrees of shoulder abduction |
Rotator interval closure involves plicating the anterior-superior region of the capsule by suturing the superior and middle glenohumeral ligaments together. This has been advocated as a treatment for certain recurrent instability patterns such as multi-directional instability (MDI). It was felt to address inferior subluxation in patients with a sulcus sign, however, the greatest effect is a decrease in external rotation at the patient's side (0 degrees of abduction). In general, a tighter anterior capsule tends to decrease external rotation most, and a tighter posterior capsule causes a decrease in internal rotation. ans4 |
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what is the primary biomechanical role on the rotator cuff muscles |
in the dynamic restraint to stabilize the glenohumeral joint by compressing the humeral head against the glenoid |
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what is the primary role of the SGHL in the shoulder |
resistant to inferior translation and 0° abduction or neutral rotation |
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what is the primary role of the MGHL in the shoulder |
resistance anterior posterior translation in mid range abduction i.e. 45° in next all rotation |
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what is the primary role of the anterior band of the IGHL in the shoulder |
primary restraint to anterior inferior translation at 90° abduction and maximal external rotation that is late cocking phase of throwing |
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which ligament is a primary stabilizer to posterior subluxation with the shoulder in flexion abduction internal rotation and limits inferior translation and external rotation at the adduction position |
coracohumeral ligament CHL |
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which area of the labrum has a worst blood supply |
anterior superior labrum |
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what is the anatomic direction of the glenoid |
5° up or tilt 5° retroversion in relation to the axis of the scapular body and varies from 7° of retroversion to 10° anteversion |
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with vessel provides main blood supply to the humeral head what numberon this arteriogram |
#4 –posterior humeral circumflex artery |
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was the optimal position for arthrodesis of the shoulder joint |
30/30/30/ 30°-45° abduction 30° – 10° of flexion 30°– 45° of internal rotation |
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The superior glenohumeral ligament is under the greatest stress when the humeral head and arm are in which of the following positions? 1. Anteriorly translated with the arm in 90 degrees of abduction and externally rotated 2. Inferiorly translated with the arm in 5 degrees of adduction 3. Anteriorly translated with the arm in 90 degrees of abduction and internally rotated 4. Inferiorly translated with the arm in 45 degrees of abduction and internal rotation 5. Inferiorly translated with the arm in 90 degrees of abduction and neutral rotation |
The role of each glenohumeral ligament has been clearly defined by previous cadaveric studies that have sectioned different ligaments during different periods of stress on the glenohumeral joint. These studies have demonstrated that the superior glenohumeral ligament provides the most restraint to the shoulder joint when the arm is at zero degrees of abduction or in adduction and pulled inferiorly. Incorrect answers: |
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A 67-year-old female who sustained a proximal humerus fracture as a result of a fall goes on to develop avascular necrosis (AVN). An injury was most likely sustained to which of the following arteries labeled 1-5 in Figure A? 1. Artery labeled 1 2. Artery labeled 2 3. Artery labeled 3 4. Artery labeled 4 5. Artery labeled 5 NAME THE ARTERIES 1-5 |
The artery labeled 4 on the arteriogram is the posterior humeral circumflex artery, which is the primary blood supply to the humeral head, and most likely to lead to AVN when injured.
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Besides the biceps tendon, which of the following structures also pass through the rotator interval? 1. The coracohumeral ligament only 2. The coracohumeral and superior glenohumeral ligaments 3. The coracohumeral, superior and middle glenohumeral ligaments 4. The superior and middle glenohumeral ligaments 5. The superior glenohumeral ligament only |
The rotator cuff is perforated anterosuperiorly by the coracoid process, which separates the anterior border of the supraspinatus tendon from the superior border of the subscapularis tendon, creating the triangular rotator interval, which is bridged by capsule. The base of the interval is the coracoid process, from which capsular tissue (the coracohumeral ligament) originates. The transverse humeral ligament at the biceps intertubercular sulcus forms the apex of the rotator interval. The coracohumeral and superior glenohumeral ligaments are considered to be structural contents of the rotator interval capsule, but each have separate origins and insertions. These ligaments are considered to be the most constant structures of the fibrous joint capsule. ans2 |
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for patient to perform abduction what motion must they also have present in order for the bones to exhibit what kind of motion |
cannot have an internal rotation contracture or we'll be unable to abduct greater than 120° because the shoulder requires external rotation when performing abduction in order to clear the greater tuberosity to keep from impinging on the acromion |
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abduction comes from motion in
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what muscle is important stabilizer to posterior subluxation and external rotation |
subscapularis muscle AKA dynamics stabilized of the shoulder |
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when performing a deltopectoral approach to the shoulder what is considered the
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with the major disadvantage of surgical treatment of a grade 3 acromioclavicular joint separation |
high complication rate |
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For Grade III AC joint separations, surgical treatment results in which of the following when compared to non-operative management? 1. Faster return to play 2. Increased range of motion 3. Increased functional rotator cuff strength 4. Decreased funtional rotator cuff strength 5. Higher complication rate |
Treatment of grade III AC separations remains somewhat controversial. A recent systematic review by Spencer concluded that the results of surgical treatment were not clearly any better than non-operative, had a higher complication rate, and a longer recovery prior to return to sport/work. ans5 |
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Intralesional curettage and bone grafting is an accepted component of the treatment plan for all of the following conditions EXCEPT? 1. Giant cell tumor 2. Aneurysmal bone cyst 3. Chondroblastoma 4. Chondromyxoid fibroma 5. Osteofibrous dysplasia |
no role for curettage and bone grafting in patients with osteofibrous dysplasia. Nonoperative treatment is preferred for osteofibrous dysplasia until a child reaches maturity. These lesions usually regress and do not cause problems in adults unless the skeletal deformity requires surgical correction. Benign conditions that are OCCASIONALLY treated with curettage and bone grafting include unicameral bone cyst (UBC), enchondroma, and nonossifying fibroma (NOF). ans5 |
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A 12-year-old female is involved in a low speed motor vehicle accident and presents with a pathologic fracture in the ulna. A radiograph is shown in Figure A. A needle biopsy is performed and histology is shown in Figure B. What is the best next step in treatment? 1. Open biopsy for adequate diagnostic tissue 2. Open reduction internal fixation of the distal ulna 3. Immediate curettage and adjuvant chemo/radiotherapy 4. Nonoperative fracture management 5. Preoperative chemotherapy and resection of tumor |
small nondisplaced fracture through an aneurysmal bone cyst. While the plain radiograph is not diagnostic, it does not suggest an aggressive lesion. The "lakes of blood" seen on the histology confirm the diagnosis. Given the alignment of the fracture, nonoperative management is preferred. Once the fracture has healed, if the ABC continues to grow treatment is curretage and grafting. If the fracture stimulates the bone cyst to resolve then no further treatment is required. ans4 |
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what are the associated conditions with this diagnosis-4 |
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Which of the following shoulder motions is characteristically decreased in the throwing arm of athletes when compared to the nondominant side? 1. Internal rotation 2. External rotation 3. Abduction 4. Adduction 5. Forward elevation
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throwing shoulder in pitchers frequently exhibits excessive external rotation at the expense of decreased internal rotation. The cited study by Crockett et al is a CT study of athletes and nonathletes that showed that athletes had a significant increase in dominant shoulder humeral head retroversion, glenoid retroversion, external rotation at 90 degrees, and external rotation in the scapular plane when compared to the nondominant shoulder. Internal rotation was decreased in the dominant shoulder of athletes.ans1 |
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Proper tackling techniques should be taught to adolescent football players to prevent catastrophic cervical spine injury. These injuries most commonly occur through which of the following mechanisms? 1. Axial loading of the subaxial spine that occurs with spear tackling 2. Traction injury leading to nerve-root avulsion from arm tackling 3. Excessive lateral bending from high impact shoulder tackling 4. Flexion-distraction injuries due to a whiplash mechanism during cut blocking 5. Rotational injuries from pulling on the face mask during a tackle
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the most common type of traumatic neck injury involves fracture, dislocation, or ligamentous disruption of the subaxial cervical spine. These are typically due to axial loading mechanisms which, in football, most commonly occur during spear tackling by defensive backs. ans1 |
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pneumonic – ASEPTIC A – alcohol, age S– Steroids, sickle cell, SLE E-ERLENMEYER flask (the Gaucher's disease) P – pancreatitis T – trauma 4 part fracture dislocation 100% AVN and 4 part displaced 45% AVN I – idiopathic/infection C –Caisson’s (the bends)
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patient presents with insidious onset shoulder pain loss of motion and crepitus weakness limited range of motion no history of trauma patient being treated with steroids
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A 66-year-old male presents with a three-month history of increasing right shoulder pain. He denies any trauma or prior shoulder problems, and has good rotator cuff strength. His medical history is significant for Crohn's disease which is controlled medically with prednisone therapy during flares. A current MRI image of his shoulder is shown in Figure A. What is the most likely diagnosis? 1. Gaucher disease 2. Osteoarthritis 3. Chronic rotator cuff tendinopathy 4. Osteonecrosis 5. Calcific tendinitis |
atraumatic lesion shown in Figure A is most consistent with osteonecrosis (also known as avascular necrosis, or AVN). Initial MRI findings of AVN include decreased signal intensity in the subchondral region on both T1- and T2-weighted images, suggesting edema in early disease. In the shoulder, this is most commonly associated with the chronic use of corticosteroids, such as prednisone. ans4 |
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In college level football players with symptoms of arm numbness and tingling following contact, which of the following is an indication for a cervical MRI prior to return to play? 1. Unilateral symptoms do not resolve within 15 minutes. 2. Symptoms follow a short period of loss of conciousness. 3. Player has had unilateral symptoms on two prior occasions. 4. Transient unilateral weakness in the deltoid and biceps is present. 5. Symptoms and physical exam findings are found in both upper extremities. |
In football player with numbness and tingling in the arms, it is critical to differentiate between a transient brachial plexopathy (burner) and cervical neuropraxia. In the latter, symptoms are bilateral, and an MRI is indicated prior to return to play.Incorrect Answers: |
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When performing an arthroscopic distal clavicle excision for acromioclavicular joint arthrosis, which of the following structures must be preserved to prevent post-operative anteroposterior instability of the clavicle? 1. Trapezoid ligament 2. Anterior and inferior acromioclavicular joint capsule 3. Superior and posterior acromioclavicular joint capsule 4. Coracohumeral ligament 5. Conoid ligament |
primary restraint to anteroposterior translation of the clavicle is the ligamentous thickenings of the acromioclavicular joint capsule. Debski et al showed in one such study that the strongest of these ligaments is the superior one, verifying the findings of several other authors. They reported that the superior ligament supplies around 50% of the strength against anteroposterior translation, and it is thickest in its posterior aspect. Additionally, the posterior AC ligament adds an additional 25% of the overall strength. For this reason, these ligaments should be preserved when performing a distal clavicle resection. ans3 |
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A 21-year-old collegiate football player has been diagnosed with a left superior trunk brachial plexus injury following a tackle. Which of the following would most likely be normal on physical exam? 1. Sensation over the lateral aspect of shoulder 2. Biceps reflex 3. Shoulder abduction 4. Sensation over radial aspect of forearm 5. Finger abduction |
Examination of finger abduction would be normal in a patient with an isolated superior trunk brachial plexus injury. Finger abduction is performed by the ulnar nerve, which is supplied by the inferior trunk of the brachial plexus. Incorrect Answers: |
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A patient sustains a transection of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus from a knife injury. This injury would affect all of the following muscles EXCEPT? 1. Subscapularis 2. Latissimus dorsi 3. Supraspinatus 4. Teres minor 5. Brachioradialis |
posterior cord of the brachial plexus gives rise to the 1) upper subscapular nerve 2) lower subscapular nerve 3) thoracodorsal nerve 4) axillary nerves 5) radial nerve. The upper subscapular nerve innervates the subscapularis. The lower subscapular nerve innervates teres major and also subscapularis. The thoracodorsal nerve innervates latissimus dorsi. The axillary nerves innervates deltoid and teres minor. The radial nerve innervates the triceps, brachioradialis, wrist extensors, and finger extensors. The supraspinatus is innervated by the suprascapular nerve off the upper trunk and therefore would not be affected by an injury to the posterior cord. The anatomy of the brachial plexus is shown in Illustration A.ans3
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