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382 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is the gene responsible for proper organization along the dorsal-ventral axis?
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Wnt-7
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What gene is responsible for the lengthening of limbs?
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FGF
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What is the gene that is expressed at the base of limbs in a zone of polarizing activity?
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Sonic hedgehog gene
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How does the FGF gene cause limbs to lengthen?
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It stimulates mitosis of the underlying mesoderm
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Name two genes expressed at the apical ectodermal ridge (the thickened ectoderm at the distal end of each developing limb).
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Wnt-7 and FGF
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The sonic hedgehog gene regulates patterning along the _____ (anterior-posterior or cranial-caudal) axis.
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Anterior-posterior
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What phenotype would be seen if there were a mutation in the homeobox gene?
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There would be defects in segmental organization
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What is formed when a sperm fertilizes an ovum?
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The zygote
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During what part of embryonic development does organogenesis occur?
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Weeks 3-8
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The embryo exists as a bilaminar disk during the second week of development, which is composed of which two layers?
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The epiblast and the hypoblast
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What is a morula?
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The 16-cell stage of embryogenesis that begins on day 3
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The alar plate is on the _____ side of the neural tube, while the basal plate is on the _____ side.
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Dorsal; ventral
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During what week of embryonic development do the upper and lower limb buds begin to form?
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Week 4
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Name three early embryonic structures formed by neural precursor tissue after the primitive streak forms.
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Neural plate, neural crest, and neural tube
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What are the functions of the neurons that are derived from the alar and basal plates?
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Neurons derived from the alar plate are sensory, whereas neurons derived from the basal plate are motor
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During which week of development do embryos first have genitalia with either male or female characteristics?
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Week 10
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What is a zygote?
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Two haploid cells form a single diploid cell
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During what week of development does the heart of an embryo begin to beat?
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Week 4
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At what stage of development does implantation in the uterine wall occur?
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The blastocyst stage
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During fetal development, the process of _____ occurs during the third week, which gives rise to a trilaminar disk.
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Gastrulation
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When is the first time the fetus begins to move and looks like a baby?
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Week 8
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The embryo is most susceptible to teratogens during what time period?
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Weeks 3-8
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What is a blastocyst?
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The stage of embryogenesis with an outer layer of cells and an inner cell mass
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In an embryo, the neural tube forms from the neural plate how many days after fertilization
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Days 18-21
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If an embryo has a notochord and the neural plate is beginning to form, how many weeks old is the embryo?
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3 weeks of age
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During embryonic development, what event occurs on day 6?
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Implantation in the uterine wall
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What are the two cavities that are present during the second week of embryonic development?
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The amniotic sac and the yolk sac (remember: 2 cavities at 2 weeks)
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When is the earliest time in embryonic development that you expect to see four heart chambers?
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At 4 weeks (remember: 4 heart chambers at 4 weeks)
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What are the two cell layers that are present during the second week of embryonic development?
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The epiblast and the hypoblast (remember: 2 germ layers at 2 weeks)
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During fetal development, which cell layer of the bilaminar disk gives rise to the ectoderm?
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The epiblast
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An embryo with three germ cell layers is known as a _____.
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Gastrula
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What three cell layers are present during the third week of embryonic development?
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Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm (remember: 3 germ layers at 3 weeks)
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What are the two components of the placenta that are present during the second week of development?
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The cytotrophoblast and the syncytiotrophoblast (remember: 2 components of the placenta at 2 weeks)
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How long after fertilization do the four limb buds appear?
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At 4 weeks (remember: 4 limb buds at 4 weeks)
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Name two germ layers that arise from cells of the primitive streak.
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Endoderm and mesoderm
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Which germ cell layer gives rise to the cells in the retina?
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The neuroectoderm
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During fetal development, the follicular cells of the thyroid are derived from _____, whereas the parafollicular cells (C cells) are derived from the _____.
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Endoderm; neural crest cells
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During fetal development, bones are generally derived from the _____, except for the bones of the skull, which arise from the _____.
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Mesoderm; neural crest cells
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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the urogenital structures?
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The mesoderm
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During fetal development, the notochord induces the formation of what other germ cell population?
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The neuroectoderm
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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the pancreas?
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The endoderm
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Which cell type ultimately gives rise to the autonomic nervous system?
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The neural crest cells
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The heart is largely derived from _____, except for aorticopulmonary septum, which is derived from _____.
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Mesoderm; neural crest cells
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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the thymus?
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The endoderm
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What are common abnormalities seen in a neonate with defects in embryogenesis involving the mesodermal germ layer?
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VACTERL: Vertebral defects, Anal atresia, Cardiac defects, Tracheo-Esophageal fistula, Renal defects, Limb defects
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During fetal development, the spleen arises from what germ cell layer?
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The mesoderm, from the foregut mesentery
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During fetal development, the supporting cells of the central nervous system (the oligodendrocytes, the astrocytes, and the ependymal cells) are all derived from the _____, except for the microglia, which arise from the _____.
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Neuroectoderm; mesoderm
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During fetal development, the kidney arises from what germ cell layer?
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The mesoderm
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What germ cell layer is the notochord derived from?
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The mesoderm
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During fetal development, odontoblasts are derived from the _____.
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Neural crest cells (remember: odonto = teeth; think Crest toothpaste)
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During fetal development, the adenohypophysis is derived from the _____ _____, and the neurohypophysis is derived from the _____.
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Surface ectoderm; neuroectoderm
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During fetal development, _____ forms the central nervous system and brain, whereas _____ forms the peripheral nervous system and nonneural structures nearby.
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Neuroectoderm; neural crest
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During fetal development, epidermal cells are derived from the _____, whereas melanocytes are derived from _____.
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Ectoderm; neural crest cells
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An infant is born with a truncus arteriosus malformation; what germ layer is normally responsible for the aorticopulmonary septum?
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Neural crest cells
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During fetal development, cartilage is generally derived from the _____, except for the laryngeal cartilage, which arises from the _____.
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Mesoderm; neural crest cells
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During fetal development, which germ layer gives rise to central nervous system neurons?
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The neuroectoderm
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During fetal development, the dorsal root ganglia are derived from _____.
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Neural crest cells
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During fetal development, what germ layer gives rise to the muscle?
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The mesoderm
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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the blood vessels?
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The mesoderm
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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the blood cells?
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The mesoderm
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During fetal development, the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla are derived from the _____, and the adrenal cortex is derived from the _____.
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Neural crest cells; mesoderm
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During fetal development, central nervous system neurons are derived from the _____, whereas the cranial nerves are derived from _____.
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Neuroectoderm; neural crest cells
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Which germ cell layer gives rise to salivary, sweat, and mammary glands?
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The surface ectoderm
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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the gastrointestinal tract epithelium?
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The endoderm
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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the lung epithelium?
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The endoderm
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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the lymphatics?
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The mesoderm
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During fetal development, which germ cell layer gives rise to the pineal gland?
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The neuroectoderm
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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the serous linings of body cavities, such as the peritoneal membranes?
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The mesoderm
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During fetal development, which germ layer gives rise to the lens of the eye?
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The surface ectoderm
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An infant is born with vertebral defects, anal atresia, and limb defects; what other organ systems should you be concerned about?
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Cardiac, renal, and tracheoesophageal defects (remember: VACTERL: Vertebral defects, Anal atresia, Cardiac defects, Tracheo-Esophageal fistula, Renal defects, Limb defects)
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During fetal development, which germ layer gives rise to the epithelial linings of the oral cavity, eye, ear and nose, and to the epidermis?
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The surface ectoderm
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During fetal development, Schwann cells are derived from the _____, whereas oligodendrocytes are derived from the _____.
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Neural crest cells; neuroectoderm
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A young woman is diagnosed with clear cell carcinoma of the vagina. This cancer is associated with exposure to what teratogen in utero?
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Diethylstilbestrol
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A 2-week-old embryo is exposed to a teratogen; what is the likely effect on development?
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Before week 3 there is usually an all-or-none effect: either embryonal demise or no abnormalities
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What teratogen is known to cause severely shortened, undeveloped limbs?
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Thalidomide; the defect is known as phocomelia
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What birth defect might result if the mother is taking valproic acid?
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Valproic acid is a folate antagonist, which may cause neural tube defects
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What are the consequences of tobacco use during pregnancy?
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Preterm labor, intrauterine growth restriction, attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, placental problems
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Which is a better choice for a woman who needs anticoagulation during pregnancy: heparin or warfarin?
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Heparin; warfarin use during pregnancy is associated with bone deformities, fetal hemorrhage, and abortion
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What embryonic process is occurring when the fetus is most susceptible to teratogens?
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Organogenesis, between the third and eighth weeks of pregnancy
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What birth defects might result if the acne treatment 13-cis-retinoic acid (Accutane) is taken during pregnancy?
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Spontaneous abortions, cleft palate, cardiac abnormalities
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Exposure to diethylstilbestrol in utero leads to an increased incidence of what type of cancer?
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Vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
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A fetus is exposed to a teratogen after 8 weeks of pregnancy; will organogenesis be affected?
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No; typically after 8 weeks, growth and function are affected but not organogenesis
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What placental pathology are cocaine-using mothers susceptible to?
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Placental abruption
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Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors can lead to damage of what organ in the fetus?
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The kidney
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Name two teratogenic effects of iodine deficiency or excess in utero.
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Congenital goiter or hypothyroidism
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A baby is born with sirenomelia. The defect is associated with what maternal condition?
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Diabetes
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What deficit should you be sure to test for in an infant exposed to aminoglycoside antibiotics in utero?
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Deafness; aminoglycosides can cause cranial nerve VIII toxicity
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An infant is born with discolored teeth; what antibiotic was the fetus exposed to in utero?
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Tetracyclines
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What teratogen is the leading cause of mental retardation in children?
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Alcohol
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A woman undergoes chemotherapy with alkylating agents during her pregnancy; what fetal abnormalities are you concerned about?
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Multiple anomalies, including absence of digits
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Which cardiac anomaly is associated with lithium use in pregnancy?
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Ebstein's anomaly (atrialized right ventricle)
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What teratogen is commonly associated with microcephaly, facial abnormalities, limb dislocation, and heart and lung fistulas?
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Fetal alcohol syndrome
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What is the leading cause of congenital malformations in the United States?
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Fetal alcohol syndrome
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True or False? Twins who are born with two amniotic sacs but a single common chorion and placenta are always monozygotic twins.
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True; one zygote split evenly and formed all of the structures listed
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How many chorions and amniotic sacs do conjoined twins have?
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One chorion and one amniotic sac
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If a zygote splits within the first 3 days after fertilization, what type of twin pregnancy will result?
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The twins will be dichorionic and diamniotic
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If a zygote splits after day 8, what type of twin pregnancy will result?
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The twins will be monochorionic and monoamniotic
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If a zygote splits between day 3 and day 8, what type of twin pregnancy will result?
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The twins will be monochorionic and diamniotic
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On what day of fetal development is the amnion formed?
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Day 8
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True or False? Twins who are born with two placentas (which may or may not be fused), separate chorions, and separate amniotic sacs are always dizygotic twins.
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False; monozygotic twins may also form two placentas, two chorions, and two amniotic sacs
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On what day of fetal development is the chorion formed?
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Day 3
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At which point is the risk greatest for conjoined twins: if twinning occurs before 3 days, between 3 and 8 days, or after 8 days?
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After day 8 there is an increased risk for conjoined twins
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Is the decidua basalis derived from the maternal or fetal component of the placenta?
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Maternal endometrium
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What is the function of the placenta?
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The placenta is the primary site of nutrient and gas exchange between mother and fetus
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True or False? Blood from fetal capillaries in the branch villus is oxygenated by blood in maternal capillaries.
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False; the fetal branch villus is oxygenated by pooled maternal blood within lacunae of the decidua basalis
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The syncytiotrophoblast composes what layer of the chorionic villi?
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Outer
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Cytotrophoblast cells form which part of the chorionic villi?
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Inner
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Which layer of the chorionic villi secretes human chorionic gonadotropin?
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Outer layer (the syncytiotrophoblast)
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The fetal component of the placenta consists of which two cell types?
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Cytotrophoblast; syncytiotrophoblast
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The umbilical arteries shunt blood to the placenta out of which arteries in the fetus?
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The fetal internal iliac arteries
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Upon cutting of the cord, why is the number of umbilical arteries documented in a neonate's record?
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A single umbilical artery is associated with congenital and chromosomal anomalies
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What structure connects the fetal bladder with the yolk sac?
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The urachus
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From which fetal structure are the umbilical arteries and veins derived?
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The allantois
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Does the umbilical vein carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?
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Oxygenated blood
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The _____ functions to remove nitrogenous waste from the fetal bladder.
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Urachus
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What is the embryologic origin of a Meckel's diverticulum?
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The vitelline duct
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A _____ (vitelline/urachal) fistula results in fecal discharge, whereas a _____ (vitelline/urachal) fistula results in urinary discharge.
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Vitelline; urachal
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What is the term for a fistula between the umbilicus and the bladder?
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Urachal fistula
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The umbilical cord contains how many arteries and veins?
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Two arteries and one vein
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Do the umbilical arteries carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?
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Deoxygenated blood
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What is the term for a fistula between the umbilicus and terminal ileum?
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Vitelline fistula
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In the embryonic heart, the primitive ventricle gives rise to the _____ (smooth/trabeculated) part of _____ (right/left/both) ventricle(s).
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Trabeculated; both
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In the embryonic heart, the right common cardinal vein and the right anterior cardinal vein jointly give rise to what vein in the adult?
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The superior vena cava
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In the embryonic heart, the smooth part of the right atrium is derived from what structure?
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The right horn of the sinus venosus
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In the embryonic heart, the bulbus cordis gives rise to the _____ (smooth/trabeculated) part of _____ (right/left/both) ventricle(s).
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Smooth; both
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In the embryonic heart, the smooth part of the ventricles is derived from the _____, whereas the trabeculated part is derived from the _____.
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Bulbus cordis; primitive ventricle
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In the embryonic heart, the truncus arteriosus gives rise to what two vessels?
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Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
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In the embryonic heart, the trabeculated part of the right atrium is derived from the _____, and the smooth part of the right atrium is derived from the _____.
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primitive atria; right horn of the sinus venosus
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In the embryonic heart, the coronary sinus is derived from what structure?
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The left horn of the sinus venosus
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In the embryonic heart, the primitive atria give rise to the _____ (smooth/trabeculated) part of _____ (right/left/both) atrium(a).
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Trabeculated; both
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Which two cardiac structures are created by neural crest cell migration?
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Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk are created from the truncus arteriosus
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Failure of neural crest cell migration during embryonic heart development is responsible for which two pathologic conditions?
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Transposition of great vessels and tetralogy of Fallot
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_____ forms to close the interventricular foramen and separate the two ventricles.
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The membranous interventricular septum
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What is the opening called in the early muscular ventricular septum?
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The interventricular foramen
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What two components make up the interventricular septum?
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The muscular septum and the membranous septum
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The aorticopulmonary septum meets and fuses with the muscular ventricular septum to form the _____.
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membranous interventricular septum
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_____ divides the truncus arteriosus into the aortic and pulmonary trunks.
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The aorticopulmonary septum
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During development of the interatrial septum, the _____ narrows as the septum primum grows toward the endocardial cushion.
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Foramen primum
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During development of the interatrial septum, as the _____ enlarges, the upper part of the septum primum degenerates.
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Foramen secundum
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Near the end of fetal heart development, what structure composes the valve of the foramen ovale?
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The remaining portion of the septum primum
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During development of the interatrial septum, the _____ maintains the right-to-left shunt as the septum secundum begins to grow.
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Foramen secundum
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During development of the interatrial septum, perforations in the septum primum form the _____ as the foramen primum disappears.
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Foramen secundum
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During development of the interatrial septum, what is the name of the opening in the septum secundum that remains patent throughout fetal life?
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Foramen ovale
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What is the composition of fetal hemoglobin compared to adult hemoglobin?
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Fetal hemoglobin is composed of α2γ2 whereas adult hemoglobin is composed of α2β2
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During fetal erythropoiesis, when does the bone marrow start producing fetal red blood cells?
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Week 28
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During fetal erythropoiesis, when does the liver produce fetal red blood cells?
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Weeks 6-30
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During fetal erythropoiesis, when does the spleen produce fetal red blood cells?
|
Weeks 9-28
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During fetal erythropoiesis, what is the first location to produce fetal red blood cells during development?
|
The yolk sac
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During fetal erythropoiesis, when does the yolk sac produce fetal red blood cells?
|
Weeks 3-8
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What is the order in which organs become the primary site of fetal erythropoiesis?
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The Yolk sac, Liver, Spleen, Bone marrow (remember: Young Liver Synthesizes Blood)
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Less-oxygenated blood from the superior vena cava mainly passes through which shunt to reach the lower limbs of the fetus?
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The ductus arteriosus
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Name the three important shunts in the fetal circulation.
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Foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus, and ductus venosus
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After a neonate has started breathing, the oxygen saturation in the blood _____ (increases/decreases), thereby leading to a(n) _____ (increase/decrease) in the synthesis of prostaglandins, which is responsible for the closure of the _____.
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Increases; decrease; ductus arteriosus
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The _____ shunts well-oxygenated blood from the placenta to the inferior vena cava to bypass the _____ in the fetus.
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Ductus venosus; liver
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What structure shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation?
|
The foramen ovale
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Well-oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava mainly passes through which shunt to reach the brain of the fetus?
|
The foramen ovale
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What is the approximate oxygen saturation of the blood returning from the placenta in the umbilical vein?
|
80%
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What structure shunts blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta in the fetal circulation?
|
The ductus arteriosus
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The drug _____ can close the ductus arteriosus. By contrast, _____ can keep the ductus arteriosus open.
|
Indomethacin; prostaglandins
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What structure connects the umbilical vein with the inferior vena cava in the fetal circulation?
|
The ductus venosus
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What is the drug of choice to constrict the ductus arteriosus in an infant with patent ductus arteriosus?
|
Indomethacin
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With an infant's first breath, the resistance in the pulmonary vasculature _____ (increases/decreases), which causes _____ (increased/decreased) left atrial pressure as compared with the right atrium. This change in the pressure gradient causes the closure of the _____.
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Decreases; increased; foramen ovale
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The _____ closes in response to alterations in the pressure gradient across the atria, whereas the _____ closes in response to decreased prostaglandin synthesis.
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Foramen ovale; ductus arteriosus
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During fetal life, is the pressure in the right atrium or the left atrium higher? How does the pressure change after birth?
|
The pressure in the right atrium is higher during fetal life; at birth, after the neonate takes a breath, the pressure in the left atrium is higher
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The foramen ovale in the fetus becomes what structure in the adult?
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The fossa ovalis
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The medial umbilical ligaments are derived from the _____, whereas the median umbilical ligament is derived from the _____.
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umbilical arteries; allantois (urachus)
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The ductus arteriosus in the fetus becomes what structure in the adult?
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The ligamentum arteriosum
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The allantois (urachus) in the fetus becomes what structure in the adult?
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The mediaN umbilical ligament comes from the allaNtois
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The ductus venosus in the fetus becomes what structure in the adult?
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The ligamentum venosum
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The umbilical arteries in the fetus become what structures in the adult?
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The mediaL umbilical ligaments come from the umbiLical arteries
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What is the name for the part of the allantoic duct that runs between the bladder and umbilicus?
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The urachus
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The umbilical vein of the fetus becomes what structure in the adult?
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The ligamentum teres hepatis
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The ligamentum teres hepatis is contained in what structure in the adult?
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The falciform ligament
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The notochord in the fetus becomes what structure in the adult?
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The nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disks
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The ligamentum teres hepatis is a remnant of what structure in the fetus?
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The umbilical vein
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The urachus connects the _____ to the _____.
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Bladder; umbilicus
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Embryologically, the third aortic arch gives rise to which two arteries?
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The common Carotid and proximal internal Carotid (remember: C is the third letter of the alphabet)
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Embryologically, the sixth aortic arch gives rise to part of what structure on both the right and the left?
|
The pulmonary artery
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Embryologically, the fourth aortic arch on the right gives rise to what structure?
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The subclavian artery (remember: 4th arch [4 limbs] = systemic circulation)
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Embryologically, the fourth aortic arch on the left gives rise to what structure?
|
The aortic arch (remember: 4th arch [4 limbs] = systemic circulation)
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Embryologically, the second aortic arch gives rise to what two arteries?
|
The stapedial artery and the hyoid artery (remember: Second = Stapedial)
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Embryologically, the first aortic arch gives rise to part of what artery?
|
The MAXillary artery (remember: the 1st arch is MAXimal)
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Embryologically, the left sixth aortic arch gives rise to part of the pulmonary artery, as well as what structure?
|
The ductus arteriosus
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Embryologically, the fourth aortic arch gives rise to the _____ on the left and the _____ on the right.
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Aortic arch; subclavian artery
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What are the adult derivatives of the telencephalon in the developing brain?
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The cerebral hemispheres and lateral ventricles
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|
What adult structure is derived from the cavity in the embryonic mesencephalon?
|
The aqueduct
2010-126 |
|
What is the adult derivative of the myelencephalon in the developing brain?
|
The medulla
2010-126 |
|
What adult structure is derived from the cavity in the embryonic metencephalon and myelencephalon?
|
4th ventricle
2010-126 |
|
What is the adult derivative of the mesencephalon in the developing brain?
|
Midbrain
2010-126 |
|
What are the adult derivatives of the diencephalon in the developing brain?
|
The thalami and the third ventricle
2010-126 |
|
What are the adult derivatives of the metencephalon in the developing brain?
|
The pons and the cerebellum
2010-126 |
|
Neural tube defects are associated with elevated levels of what substance in amniotic fluid and maternal serum?
|
α-Fetoprotein
2010-127 |
|
In the fetus, the failure of the bony spinal canal to close (without structural herniation) will result in what type of neural tube defect?
|
Spina bifida occulta
2010-127 |
|
True or False? In spina bifida occulta, the dura mater is malformed.
|
False; the dura is intact
2010-127 |
|
A _____ is characterized by the meninges and spinal cord herniating though a spinal canal defect.
|
Myelomeningocele
2010-127 |
|
A _____ is characterized by the meninges herniating through a spinal canal defect.
|
Meningocele
2010-127 |
|
Neural tube defects are associated with low intake of what substance during pregnancy?
|
Folic acid
2010-127 |
|
Identify the three types of spinal neural tube defects.
|
Spina bifida occulta, meningocele, and myelomeningocele
2010-127 |
|
Name two syndromes associated with holoprosencephaly.
|
Patau's syndrome and severe fetal alcohol syndrome
2010-127 |
|
What is the term for a malformation of the anterior neural tube, causing agenesis of the brain and calvarium?
|
Anencephaly
2010-127 |
|
What happens to the amount of amniotic fluid if the fetus has anencephaly?
|
There is polyhydramnios due to the lack of a swallowing center in the brain: the fetus cannot swallow amniotic fluid
2010-127 |
|
In anencephaly, levels of which molecule are elevated in amniotic fluid?
|
α-Fetoprotein
2010-127 |
|
What is the term for decreased separation of the cerebral hemispheres across the midline in a fetus?
|
Holoprosencephaly
2010-127 |
|
An infant has cyclopia; what neural defect are you worried about?
|
Holoprosencephaly
2010-127 |
|
A patient presents with syringomyelia, thoracolumbar myelomeningocele and hydrocephalus; what syndrome do you suspect?
|
A Chiari type II malformation
2010-127 |
|
What is the Dandy-Walker malformation?
|
A posterior fossa malformation that is associated with a large posterior fossa and an absent cerebellum with a cyst in its place
2010-127 |
|
What is an Chiari type II malformation?
|
Cerebellar tonsillar herniation through the foramen magnum resulting in aqueductal stenosis and hydrocephaly
2010-127 |
|
A magnetic resonance imaging scan of the cervical spine shows an enlargement of the central canal of the spinal cord; what is the term for this lesion?
|
Syringomyelia; syrinx is Greek for tube, as in syringe
2010-127 |
|
What other neurologic malformation is commonly associated with syringomyelia?
|
Chiari type II malformation
2010-127 |
|
A patient has syringomyelia; which neuronal fibers of the spinal cord may be damaged?
|
Crossing fibers of the spinothalamic tract are damaged by the expanding central canal
2010-127 |
|
You are seeing a patient who has developed loss of pain and temperature sensation in the hands, but touch is intact; where is the lesion?
|
This describes the "cape-like" distribution of syringomyelia; this is most commonly at C8-T1
2010-127 |
|
True or False? Syringomyelia typically presents with unilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation.
|
False; this is a midline lesion causing bilateral pain and temperature loss with preservation of touch sensation
2010-127 |
|
Embryologically, what are the three components of the branchial apparatus (also called the pharyngeal apparatus)?
|
Clefts, arches, and pouches
2010-128 |
|
Muscles and arteries are derived from which embryologic tissue?
|
Mesoderm
2010-128 |
|
The bones and cartilage that develop from the branchial arches are derived from which embryologic cell population?
|
Neural crest cells
2010-128 |
|
Embryologically, branchial pouches are derived from what primary germ layer?
|
The endoderm
2010-128 |
|
Embryologically, branchial arches are derived from which two cell populations?
|
The mesoderm and the neural crest
2010-128 |
|
Embryologically, branchial clefts are derived from what primary germ layer?
|
The ectoderm
2010-128 |
|
What are the branchial apparatus components from outside to inside?
|
Clefts, Arches, Pouches (remember: CAP covers outside from inside)
2010-128 |
|
Embryologically, branchial arch 1 derivatives are innervated by which two cranial nerves?
|
Cranial nerves V2 and V3
2010-128 |
|
Branchial arch 3 derivatives are innervated by which cranial nerve?
|
Cranial nerve IX
2010-128 |
|
Embryologically, branchial arches 4 and 6 derivatives are innervated by which cranial nerve?
|
Cranial nerve X
2010-128 |
|
Embryologically, cranial nerves V2 and V3 innervate the derivatives of which branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 1
2010-128 |
|
Embryologically, cranial nerve VII innervates the derivatives of which branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 2
2010-128 |
|
Embryologically, cranial nerve IX innervates the derivatives of which branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 3
2010-128 |
|
Branchial arch 2 derivatives are innervated by which cranial nerve?
|
Cranial nerve VII
2010-128 |
|
Which four cranial nerves are the only ones with both sensory and motor components?
|
Cranial nerves V3, VII, IX, and X
2010-128 |
|
Embryologically, cranial nerve X innervates the derivatives of which branchial arches?
|
Branchial arches 4 and 6
2010-128 |
|
Embryologically, the stapedius is derived from branchial arch _____, and the tensor tympani is derived from branchial arch _____.
|
2; 1
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the muscles of mastication (the temporalis, the masseter, and the medial and lateral pterygoids) are derived from which branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 1
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the stylohyoid is derived from which branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 2
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, all intrinsic muscles of the larynx (except the cricothyroid) are derived from what branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 6
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the anterior belly of the digastric is derived from branchial arch _____, and the posterior belly of the digastric muscle is derived from branchial arch _____.
|
1; 2
2010-129 |
|
Which muscles are derived from the second branchial arch?
|
The muscles of facial expression, Stapedius, Stylohyoid, and posterior belly of the digastric (Second branchial arch)
2010-129 |
|
Which bones are derived from the first branchial arch?
|
The mandible, malleus and incus (Meckel's cartilage)
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the cricothyroid muscle is derived from what branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 4
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the levator veli palatini is derived from what branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 4
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the stylohyoid muscle is derived from branchial arch ____, whereas the stylopharyngeus muscle is derived from branchial arch ____.
|
2; 3
2010-129 |
|
What is the embryonic origin of a congenital pharyngocutaneous fistula?
|
This is the persistence of a cleft and pouch creating a fistula between the tonsillar area and a cleft in the lateral neck
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the tensor tympani is derived from which branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 1
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the greater horn of the hyoid is derived from branchial arch _____, and the lesser horn of the hyoid is derived from branchial arch _____.
|
3; 2
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the stapedius is derived from which branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 2
2010-129 |
|
Which cartilages are derived from the fourth and sixth branchial arches?
|
Thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilage
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, most intrinsic muscles of the larynx are derived from branchial arch _____, except for the cricothyroid, which is derived from branchial arch _____.
|
6; 4
2010-129 |
|
Which muscles are derived from the sixth branchial arch?
|
All intrinsic muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid
2010-129 |
|
The muscles of facial expression are derived from branchial arch _____, whereas the muscles of mastication are derived from branchial arch _____.
|
2; 1
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, most pharyngeal constrictor muscles are derived from what branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 4
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the styloid process is derived from which branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 2
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the mylohyoid is derived from which branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 1
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the anterior two thirds of the tongue are derived from branchial arch _____, whereas the posterior third is derived from branchial arches _____ and _____.
|
1; 3; 4
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the anterior two thirds of the tongue are derived from which branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 1
2010-129 |
|
Which bones are derived from the second branchial arch?
|
The Stapes, Styloid process, and lesser horn of hyoid (Second branchial arch)
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the stylopharyngeus muscle is derived from which branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 3 (think of pharynx: stylopharyngeus innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve)
2010-129 |
|
Which muscles are derived from the first branchial arch?
|
The Muscles of Mastication (temporalis, Masseter, lateral and Medial pterygoids), Mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini, anterior 2/3 of tongue
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the levator veli palatini is derived from branchial arch _____, whereas the tensor veli palatini is derived from branchial arch _____.
|
4; 1
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage is derived from which branchial arches?
|
Branchial arches 4 and 6
2010-129 |
|
What syndrome occurs when neural crest cells in the first branchial arch fail to migrate, causing mandibular hypoplasia and facial abnormalities?
|
Treacher Collins syndrome
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the malleus, stapes, and incus are derived from which branchial arches?
|
The malleus derives from branchial arch 1, the stapes and incus from branchial arch 2
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the anterior belly of the digastric muscle is derived from which branchial arch? From which arch is the posterior belly derived?
|
The anterior belly is derived from branchial arch 1 whereas the posterior belly is derived from branchial arch 2
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the tensor veli palatini is derived from which branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 1
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the muscles of facial expression are derived from which branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 2
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the malleus is derived from branchial arch _____, the incus is derived from branchial arch _____, and the stapes is derived from branchial arch _____.
|
1; 1; 2
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the mandible is derived from which branchial arch?
|
Branchial arch 1
2010-129 |
|
Which muscles are derived from the fourth branchial arch?
|
Most pharyngeal constrictors, the cricothyroid, and the levator veli palatini
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the cartilaginous derivatives from branchial arch 2 are called what?
|
Reichert's cartilage
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, the arytenoids are derived from which branchial arches?
|
Branchial arches 4 and 6
2010-129 |
|
Embryologically, branchial arch 3 is innervated by which cranial nerve?
|
Cranial nerve IX (think of pharynx: stylopharyngeus innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve)
2010-129 |
|
Which opening is derived from the first branchial cleft?
|
The external auditory meatus
2010-130 |
|
On imaging, where would you expect to find a persistent cervical sinus?
|
On the lateral aspect of the neck, as this arises from a branchial cleft cyst
2010-130 |
|
Branchial clefts 2 through 4 develop into _____ _____, which are temporary.
|
Cervical sinuses
2010-130 |
|
Embryologically, the thymus is derived from which branchial pouch?
|
The ventral wings of branchial pouch 3 (remember: 3rd pouch structures end up below 4th pouch structures)
2010-130 |
|
Embryologically, the inferior parathyroid glands are derived from which branchial pouch?
|
The dorsal wings of branchial pouch 3 (remember: 3rd pouch structures end up below 4th pouch structures)
2010-130 |
|
Embryologically, the superior parathyroid glands are derived from branchial pouch _____, and the inferior parathyroid glands are derived from branchial pouch _____.
|
4; 3
2010-130 |
|
Embryologically, aberrant development of branchial pouches 3 and 4 leads to what syndrome?
|
DiGeorge syndrome
2010-130 |
|
Embryologically, the superior parathyroid glands are derived from which branchial pouch?
|
The dorsal wings of branchial pouch 4 (remember: 3rd pouch structures end up below 4th pouch structures)
2010-130 |
|
Embryologically, the epithelial lining of the palatine tonsils are derived from which branchial pouch?
|
Branchial pouch 2
2010-130 |
|
DiGeorge syndrome involves aberrant fetal development of the _____, which leads to T-lymphocyte deficiency, and of the _____ _____, which leads to hypocalcemia.
|
Thymus; parathyroid glands
2010-130 |
|
What are the derivatives of the first branchial pouch?
|
The middle ear cavity, eustacian tube, and mastoid air cells
2010-130 |
|
The tympanic membrane is derived from what fetal structure?
|
The first branchial membrane
2010-130 |
|
The tensor tympani muscle in the ear is innervated by what nerve?
|
Cranial nerve V3
2010-130 |
|
The stapedius muscle in the ear is derived from what fetal structure?
|
Branchial arch 2
2010-130 |
|
The stapedius muscle in the ear is innervated by what nerve?
|
Cranial nerve VII
2010-130 |
|
Taste in the anterior two thirds of the tongue is mediated by cranial nerve _____, whereas taste in the posterior third of the tongue is mediated by cranial nerve _____.
|
Cranial nerve VII; IX
2010-130 |
|
Sensation in the anterior two thirds of the tongue is mediated by cranial nerve _____, whereas sensation in the posterior third of the tongue is mediated by cranial nerve _____.
|
Cranial nerve V3; IX
2010-130 |
|
Which cranial nerve mediates taste and sensation in the extreme posterior portion of the tongue?
|
Cranial nerve X
2010-130 |
|
Sensation in the posterior third of the tongue is mediated by which cranial nerve?
|
Cranial nerve IX; as well as taste
2010-130 |
|
Cranial nerves that mediate the sense of taste project to the _____ nucleus.
|
Solitary
2010-130 |
|
Which cranial nerves mediate the sense of taste?
|
Cranial nerves VII, IX, and X
2010-130 |
|
Taste in the anterior two thirds of the tongue is mediated by which cranial nerve?
|
Cranial nerve VII
2010-130 |
|
Which cranial nerve supplies motor innervation to the tongue?
|
Cranial nerve XII
2010-130 |
|
Which cranial nerves mediate the sense of pain in the tongue?
|
Cranial nerve V3, IX, and X
2010-130 |
|
Sensation in the anterior two thirds of the tongue is mediated by which cranial nerve?
|
V3
2010-130 |
|
Taste in the extreme posterior of the tongue is mediated by which cranial nerve?
|
Cranial nerve X
2010-130 |
|
What is the embryologic origin of the thyroid?
|
The floor of the primitive pharynx
2010-131 |
|
The thyroglossal duct normally disappears during development, but it may persist as the _____ lobe of the thyroid.
|
Pyramidal
2010-131 |
|
How can a thyroglossal duct cyst be differentiated from a branchial cleft cyst on physical exam?
|
A thyroglossal duct cyst will move with swallowing, unlike a branchial cleft cyst
2010-131 |
|
What is the name of the normal remnant of the thyroglossal duct?
|
The foramen cecum
2010-131 |
|
What is the name of the structure that connects the thyroid gland with the tongue?
|
The thyroglossal duct
2010-131 |
|
A thyroglossal duct cyst is commonly found and felt where?
|
In the midline neck
2010-131 |
|
What is the most common site of ectopic thyroid tissue?
|
The tongue
2010-131 |
|
A branchial cyst is commonly found in the _____ (lateral/midline) neck, while a thyroglossal duct cyst is commonly found in the _____ (lateral/midline) neck.
|
Lateral; midline
2010-131 |
|
Cleft palate results from failure of which structures to fuse?
|
The lateral palatine process, the nasal septum and the median palatine process
2010-131 |
|
Cleft lip results from the failure of which structures to fuse?
|
Maxillary nasal process and medial nasal process
2010-131 |
|
Cleft lip is a defect in the formation of the _____ (primary/secondary) palate, and cleft palate is a defect in the formation of the _____ (primary/secondary) palate.
|
Primary; secondary
2010-131 |
|
What does the dorsal mesentery become in the mature diaphragm?
|
The diaphragmatic crura
2010-131 |
|
What nerves innervate the diaphragm?
|
C3, C4, and C5 (remember: C3, 4, 5 keeps the diaphragm alive)
2010-131 |
|
A neonate has an x-ray of the chest that shows abdominal contents in the chest cavity. This defect is likely the result of the incomplete development of the _____, resulting in a congenital _____ _____.
|
Diaphragm; diaphragmatic hernia
2010-131 |
|
Name 3 clinical findings seen with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia.
|
Hypoplasia of thoracic organs, scaphoid abdomen, and cyanosis
2010-131 |
|
How does the position of the diaphragm relative to the rest of the body change during embryogenesis?
|
It descends from its original formation to its final location in the body
2010-131 |
|
What does the septum transversum become in the mature diaphragm?
|
The central tendon
2010-131 |
|
What four structures contribute to the diaphragm?
|
The Septum transversum, the Pleuroperitoneal folds, the Body wall, and the Dorsal mesentery of the esophagus (remember: Several Parts Build Diaphragm)
2010-131 |
|
In embryologic terms, what part of the gastrointestinal tract is derived from the midgut?
|
The duodenum to the transverse colon
2010-132 |
|
In embryologic terms, what part of the gastrointestinal tract is derived from the foregut?
|
The pharynx to the duodenum
2010-132 |
|
An _____ is the persistence of herniated abdominal contents into the umbilical cord.
|
Omphalocele
2010-132 |
|
In fetal development, _____ is due to the failure of lateral body folds to fuse and the extrusion of abdominal contents outside the body wall.
|
Gastroschisis
2010-132 |
|
In embryologic terms, what part of the gastrointestinal tract is derived from the hindgut?
|
The distal transverse colon to the rectum
2010-132 |
|
What are some symptoms seen with the most common subtype of tracheoesophageal fistula?
|
Polyhydramnios in utero; cyanosis, choking and vomiting with feeding, air bubble on x-ray of the chest
2010-132 |
|
What is the most common subtype of tracheoesophageal fistula?
|
A blind pouch upper esophagus with the lower esophagus connected to the trachea
2010-132 |
|
A newborn is noted to choke and vomit with routine feedings; the mother had polyhydramnios during pregnancy; what is the most likely diagnosis?
|
Tracheoesophageal fistula
2010-132 |
|
At about what age do infants with congenital pyloric stenosis typically start projectile vomiting?
|
2 weeks
2010-132 |
|
What are the two classic clinical findings in an infant with congenital pyloric stenosis?
|
A palpable epigastric olive-sized mass and projectile vomiting
2010-132 |
|
In congenital pyloric stenosis, hypertrophy of the pylorus leads to what problem?
|
Gastric outlet obstruction
2010-132 |
|
Congenital pyloric stenosis often occurs in what demographic group?
|
Male first-born infants
2010-132 |
|
What is the treatment for congenital pyloric stenosis?
|
Surgical incision (a pyloromyotomy)
2010-132 |
|
If inspected, the vomit from a patient with congenital pyloric stenosis is noted as lacking what substance?
|
Bile
2010-132 |
|
The head of the pancreas is derived from the _____ (ventral/dorsal) pancreatic bud, the body is derived from the _____ (ventral/dorsal) pancreatic bud, and the tail is derived from the _____ (ventral/dorsal) pancreatic bud.
|
Ventral; dorsal; dorsal
2010-133 |
|
A patient has a congenital malformation of the pancreas in which the ventral bud abnormally encircles the second part of the duodenum and forms a ring of tissue; what is the name of this abnormality?
|
Annular pancreas
2010-133 |
|
True or False? The spleen arises as a diverticulum off of the gastrointestinal tract.
|
False; the spleen arises from the dorsal mesentery and is mesodermal
2010-133 |
|
Is the pancreas derived from the foregut, the midgut, or the hindgut?
|
The foregut
2010-133 |
|
True or False? The spleen receives its blood supply from the foregut vasculature, although it is not derived from the foregut.
|
True; it is supplied via the celiac artery
2010-133 |
|
The main pancreatic duct is derived from the _____ (ventral/dorsal) pancreatic bud, whereas the accessory pancreatic duct is derived from the _____ (ventral/dorsal) pancreatic bud.
|
Ventral; dorsal
2010-133 |
|
Of the following fetal structures, which ultimately contributes to the male genital system: the pronephros, mesonephros, or metanephros?
|
The mesonephros
2010-133 |
|
The _____ develops into the bladder, urethra, and allantois.
|
Urogenital sinus
2010-133 |
|
With regard to the embryologic development of the kidney, when does the pronephros develop?
|
During week 4
2010-133 |
|
After week 4, what happens to the pronephros?
|
The pronephros degenerates
2010-133 |
|
The urogenital sinus develops into what three structures?
|
Bladder, urethra, and allantois
2010-133 |
|
What adult structures in the urinary tract are derived from the metanephros?
|
The kidney from the glomerulus to the distal convoluted tubule
2010-133 |
|
During which trimester of fetal development does the mesonephros arise?
|
During the first trimester
2010-133 |
|
From what part of the developing kidney is the ureteric bud derived?
|
The mesonephros
2010-133 |
|
What fetal structure functions as the interim kidney for the first trimester?
|
Mesonephros
2010-133 |
|
What adult structures in the urinary tract are derived from the mesonephros?
|
The collecting ducts, calyces, pelvises, and ureters
2010-133 |
|
What is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in a fetus?
|
Ureteral obstruction
2010-133 |
|
What is the most likely site of congenital urinary tract obstruction? Why?
|
The uteropelvic junction with the kidney is the most common site of obstruction because it is the last to canalize
2010-133 |
|
In Potter's syndrome, what pathophysiologic consequence of bilateral renal agenesis leads to the hallmark features of limb deformities, facial deformities, and pulmonary hypoplasia?
|
Oligohydramnios (remember: babies with Potter's can't !Pee" in utero)
2010-133 |
|
What syndrome results from bilateral renal agenesis?
|
Potter's syndrome
2010-133 |
|
What embryonic structure is malformed in patients with Potter's syndrome?
|
The ureteric bud
2010-133 |
|
What is the name of the anatomic abnormality resulting from the fusion of the inferior poles of the kidneys?
|
Horseshoe kidney
2010-134 |
|
During the embryologic development of the renal system, do the kidneys ascend or descend in the abdomen?
|
Ascend
2010-134 |
|
Horseshoe kidneys remain low in the abdomen because, during fetal development, they get trapped under what artery?
|
The inferior mesenteric artery
2010-134 |
|
What four structures are derived from the mesonephric duct?
|
The Seminal vesicles, the Epididymis, the Ejaculatory duct, and the Ductus deferens (remember: SEED)
2010-134 |
|
Which embryologic structure of the genitals degenerates in the female?
|
Mesonephric duct
2010-134 |
|
The paramesonephric duct is also known as what?
|
The müllerian duct
2010-134 |
|
In male development, the mesonephric duct develops into all genitourinary internal structures except the _____.
|
Prostate
2010-134 |
|
The mesonephric duct is also known as what?
|
The Wolffian duct
2010-134 |
|
What structure becomes the lower two-thirds of the vagina?
|
The urogenital sinus
2010-134 |
|
In female development, the _____ duct degenerates and the _____ duct develops.
|
Mesonephric; paramesonephric
2010-134 |
|
Is male or female development the default fetal development?
|
Female; in the absence of a Y chromosome, female reproductive organs will develop
2010-134 |
|
What class of hormones promotes the development of the mesonephric ducts in males?
|
Androgens
2010-134 |
|
What hormone inhibits the development of the paramesonephric duct in males?
|
Müllerian-inhibiting substance
2010-134 |
|
What three structures are derived from the paramesonephric duct?
|
The fallopian tubes, the uterus, and upper one-third of the vagina
2010-134 |
|
Which cells produce the androgens that promote development of the mesonephric ducts?
|
Leydig cells
2010-134 |
|
In male development, the _____ gene on the _____ chromosome codes for testis-determining factor.
|
SRY; Y
2010-134 |
|
Which cells produce müllerian-inhibiting substance in males?
|
Sertoli cells
2010-134 |
|
What are 2 complications associated with a bicornuate uterus?
|
Bicornuate uterus is associated with urinary tract abnormalities and infertility
2010-134 |
|
What is the name of the congenital pathology that is associated with incomplete fusion of the paramesonephric ducts?
|
Bicornuate uterus
2010-134 |
|
Embryologically, the genital tubercle develops into what structure in the male and what structure in the female?
|
The glans penis in the male and the glans clitoris in the female
2010-135 |
|
Embryologically, the urogenital folds develop into what structure in the male and what structure in the female?
|
The ventral shaft of the penis in the male and the labia minora in the female
2010-135 |
|
The labioscrotal swelling develops into what structure under the influence of dihydrotestosterone in the male embryo?
|
The scrotum
2010-135 |
|
The genital tubercle forms what two structures under the influence of dihydrotestosterone?
|
The glans penis and the corpus spongiosum
2010-135 |
|
The urogenital folds develop into what structure under the influence of dihydrotestosterone in the male embryo?
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The ventral shaft of the penis (penile urethra)
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The genital tubercle forms what two structures under the influence of estrogen?
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The glans clitoris and the vestibular bulbs
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The urogenital sinus forms what two structures under the influence of dihydrotestosterone in the male embryo?
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The prostate and the bulbourethral glands
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The labioscrotal swelling develops into what structure under the influence of estrogen in the female embryo?
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The labia majora
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The urogenital folds develop into what structure under the influence of estrogen in the female embryo?
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The labia minora
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The urogenital sinus forms what two structures under the influence of estrogen in the female embryo?
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The greater vestibular glands (of Bartholin) and the urethral and paraurethral glands (of Skene)
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Embryologically, the labioscrotal swellings develop into what structure in the male and what structure in the female
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The scrotum in the male and the labia majora in the female
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What condition results from an abnormal opening of the penile urethra on the inferior (ventral) side of the penis as a result of the failure of urethral folds to close?
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Hypospadias (remember: Hypo is below)
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What common complication is prevented by fixing hypospadias?
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Urinary tract infections
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What condition results from an abnormal opening of the penile urethra on the superior (dorsal) side of the penis as a result of the faulty positioning of the genital tubercle?
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Epispadias (remember: when you have Epispadias you hit your Eye when you p,EE)
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Which is associated with exstrophy of the bladder: epispadias or hypospadias?
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Epispadias (remember: Exstrophy of the bladder is associated with Epispadias)
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What are the embryologic etiologies of epispadias and hypospadias?
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Epispadias results from faulty positioning of the genital tubercle; hypospadias results from failed closure of the urethral folds
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Which is a more common congenital penile abnormality: epispadias or hypospadias?
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Hypospadias
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