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382 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the gene responsible for proper organization along the dorsal-ventral axis?
Wnt-7

2010-118
What gene is responsible for the lengthening of limbs?
FGF

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What is the gene that is expressed at the base of limbs in a zone of polarizing activity?
Sonic hedgehog gene

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How does the FGF gene cause limbs to lengthen?
It stimulates mitosis of the underlying mesoderm

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Name two genes expressed at the apical ectodermal ridge (the thickened ectoderm at the distal end of each developing limb).
Wnt-7 and FGF

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The sonic hedgehog gene regulates patterning along the _____ (anterior-posterior or cranial-caudal) axis.
Anterior-posterior

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What phenotype would be seen if there were a mutation in the homeobox gene?
There would be defects in segmental organization

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What is formed when a sperm fertilizes an ovum?
The zygote

2010-118
During what part of embryonic development does organogenesis occur?
Weeks 3-8

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The embryo exists as a bilaminar disk during the second week of development, which is composed of which two layers?
The epiblast and the hypoblast

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What is a morula?
The 16-cell stage of embryogenesis that begins on day 3

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The alar plate is on the _____ side of the neural tube, while the basal plate is on the _____ side.
Dorsal; ventral

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During what week of embryonic development do the upper and lower limb buds begin to form?
Week 4

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Name three early embryonic structures formed by neural precursor tissue after the primitive streak forms.
Neural plate, neural crest, and neural tube

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What are the functions of the neurons that are derived from the alar and basal plates?
Neurons derived from the alar plate are sensory, whereas neurons derived from the basal plate are motor

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During which week of development do embryos first have genitalia with either male or female characteristics?
Week 10

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What is a zygote?
Two haploid cells form a single diploid cell

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During what week of development does the heart of an embryo begin to beat?
Week 4

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At what stage of development does implantation in the uterine wall occur?
The blastocyst stage

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During fetal development, the process of _____ occurs during the third week, which gives rise to a trilaminar disk.
Gastrulation

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When is the first time the fetus begins to move and looks like a baby?
Week 8

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The embryo is most susceptible to teratogens during what time period?
Weeks 3-8

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What is a blastocyst?
The stage of embryogenesis with an outer layer of cells and an inner cell mass

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In an embryo, the neural tube forms from the neural plate how many days after fertilization
Days 18-21

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If an embryo has a notochord and the neural plate is beginning to form, how many weeks old is the embryo?
3 weeks of age

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During embryonic development, what event occurs on day 6?
Implantation in the uterine wall

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What are the two cavities that are present during the second week of embryonic development?
The amniotic sac and the yolk sac (remember: 2 cavities at 2 weeks)

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When is the earliest time in embryonic development that you expect to see four heart chambers?
At 4 weeks (remember: 4 heart chambers at 4 weeks)

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What are the two cell layers that are present during the second week of embryonic development?
The epiblast and the hypoblast (remember: 2 germ layers at 2 weeks)

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During fetal development, which cell layer of the bilaminar disk gives rise to the ectoderm?
The epiblast

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An embryo with three germ cell layers is known as a _____.
Gastrula

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What three cell layers are present during the third week of embryonic development?
Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm (remember: 3 germ layers at 3 weeks)

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What are the two components of the placenta that are present during the second week of development?
The cytotrophoblast and the syncytiotrophoblast (remember: 2 components of the placenta at 2 weeks)

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How long after fertilization do the four limb buds appear?
At 4 weeks (remember: 4 limb buds at 4 weeks)

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Name two germ layers that arise from cells of the primitive streak.
Endoderm and mesoderm

2010-118
Which germ cell layer gives rise to the cells in the retina?
The neuroectoderm

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During fetal development, the follicular cells of the thyroid are derived from _____, whereas the parafollicular cells (C cells) are derived from the _____.
Endoderm; neural crest cells

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During fetal development, bones are generally derived from the _____, except for the bones of the skull, which arise from the _____.
Mesoderm; neural crest cells

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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the urogenital structures?
The mesoderm

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During fetal development, the notochord induces the formation of what other germ cell population?
The neuroectoderm

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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the pancreas?
The endoderm

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Which cell type ultimately gives rise to the autonomic nervous system?
The neural crest cells

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The heart is largely derived from _____, except for aorticopulmonary septum, which is derived from _____.
Mesoderm; neural crest cells

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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the thymus?
The endoderm

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What are common abnormalities seen in a neonate with defects in embryogenesis involving the mesodermal germ layer?
VACTERL: Vertebral defects, Anal atresia, Cardiac defects, Tracheo-Esophageal fistula, Renal defects, Limb defects

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During fetal development, the spleen arises from what germ cell layer?
The mesoderm, from the foregut mesentery

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During fetal development, the supporting cells of the central nervous system (the oligodendrocytes, the astrocytes, and the ependymal cells) are all derived from the _____, except for the microglia, which arise from the _____.
Neuroectoderm; mesoderm

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During fetal development, the kidney arises from what germ cell layer?
The mesoderm

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What germ cell layer is the notochord derived from?
The mesoderm

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During fetal development, odontoblasts are derived from the _____.
Neural crest cells (remember: odonto = teeth; think Crest toothpaste)

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During fetal development, the adenohypophysis is derived from the _____ _____, and the neurohypophysis is derived from the _____.
Surface ectoderm; neuroectoderm

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During fetal development, _____ forms the central nervous system and brain, whereas _____ forms the peripheral nervous system and nonneural structures nearby.
Neuroectoderm; neural crest

2010-119
During fetal development, epidermal cells are derived from the _____, whereas melanocytes are derived from _____.
Ectoderm; neural crest cells

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An infant is born with a truncus arteriosus malformation; what germ layer is normally responsible for the aorticopulmonary septum?
Neural crest cells

2010-119
During fetal development, cartilage is generally derived from the _____, except for the laryngeal cartilage, which arises from the _____.
Mesoderm; neural crest cells

2010-119
During fetal development, which germ layer gives rise to central nervous system neurons?
The neuroectoderm

2010-119
During fetal development, the dorsal root ganglia are derived from _____.
Neural crest cells

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During fetal development, what germ layer gives rise to the muscle?
The mesoderm

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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the blood vessels?
The mesoderm

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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the blood cells?
The mesoderm

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During fetal development, the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla are derived from the _____, and the adrenal cortex is derived from the _____.
Neural crest cells; mesoderm

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During fetal development, central nervous system neurons are derived from the _____, whereas the cranial nerves are derived from _____.
Neuroectoderm; neural crest cells

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Which germ cell layer gives rise to salivary, sweat, and mammary glands?
The surface ectoderm

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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the gastrointestinal tract epithelium?
The endoderm

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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the lung epithelium?
The endoderm

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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the lymphatics?
The mesoderm

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During fetal development, which germ cell layer gives rise to the pineal gland?
The neuroectoderm

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During fetal development, what germ cell layer gives rise to the serous linings of body cavities, such as the peritoneal membranes?
The mesoderm

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During fetal development, which germ layer gives rise to the lens of the eye?
The surface ectoderm

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An infant is born with vertebral defects, anal atresia, and limb defects; what other organ systems should you be concerned about?
Cardiac, renal, and tracheoesophageal defects (remember: VACTERL: Vertebral defects, Anal atresia, Cardiac defects, Tracheo-Esophageal fistula, Renal defects, Limb defects)

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During fetal development, which germ layer gives rise to the epithelial linings of the oral cavity, eye, ear and nose, and to the epidermis?
The surface ectoderm

2010-119
During fetal development, Schwann cells are derived from the _____, whereas oligodendrocytes are derived from the _____.
Neural crest cells; neuroectoderm

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A young woman is diagnosed with clear cell carcinoma of the vagina. This cancer is associated with exposure to what teratogen in utero?
Diethylstilbestrol

2010-120
A 2-week-old embryo is exposed to a teratogen; what is the likely effect on development?
Before week 3 there is usually an all-or-none effect: either embryonal demise or no abnormalities

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What teratogen is known to cause severely shortened, undeveloped limbs?
Thalidomide; the defect is known as phocomelia

2010-120
What birth defect might result if the mother is taking valproic acid?
Valproic acid is a folate antagonist, which may cause neural tube defects

2010-120
What are the consequences of tobacco use during pregnancy?
Preterm labor, intrauterine growth restriction, attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, placental problems

2010-120
Which is a better choice for a woman who needs anticoagulation during pregnancy: heparin or warfarin?
Heparin; warfarin use during pregnancy is associated with bone deformities, fetal hemorrhage, and abortion

2010-120
What embryonic process is occurring when the fetus is most susceptible to teratogens?
Organogenesis, between the third and eighth weeks of pregnancy

2010-120
What birth defects might result if the acne treatment 13-cis-retinoic acid (Accutane) is taken during pregnancy?
Spontaneous abortions, cleft palate, cardiac abnormalities

2010-120
Exposure to diethylstilbestrol in utero leads to an increased incidence of what type of cancer?
Vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma

2010-120
A fetus is exposed to a teratogen after 8 weeks of pregnancy; will organogenesis be affected?
No; typically after 8 weeks, growth and function are affected but not organogenesis

2010-120
What placental pathology are cocaine-using mothers susceptible to?
Placental abruption

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Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors can lead to damage of what organ in the fetus?
The kidney

2010-120
Name two teratogenic effects of iodine deficiency or excess in utero.
Congenital goiter or hypothyroidism

2010-120
A baby is born with sirenomelia. The defect is associated with what maternal condition?
Diabetes

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What deficit should you be sure to test for in an infant exposed to aminoglycoside antibiotics in utero?
Deafness; aminoglycosides can cause cranial nerve VIII toxicity

2010-120
An infant is born with discolored teeth; what antibiotic was the fetus exposed to in utero?
Tetracyclines

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What teratogen is the leading cause of mental retardation in children?
Alcohol

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A woman undergoes chemotherapy with alkylating agents during her pregnancy; what fetal abnormalities are you concerned about?
Multiple anomalies, including absence of digits

2010-120
Which cardiac anomaly is associated with lithium use in pregnancy?
Ebstein's anomaly (atrialized right ventricle)

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What teratogen is commonly associated with microcephaly, facial abnormalities, limb dislocation, and heart and lung fistulas?
Fetal alcohol syndrome

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What is the leading cause of congenital malformations in the United States?
Fetal alcohol syndrome

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True or False? Twins who are born with two amniotic sacs but a single common chorion and placenta are always monozygotic twins.
True; one zygote split evenly and formed all of the structures listed

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How many chorions and amniotic sacs do conjoined twins have?
One chorion and one amniotic sac

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If a zygote splits within the first 3 days after fertilization, what type of twin pregnancy will result?
The twins will be dichorionic and diamniotic

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If a zygote splits after day 8, what type of twin pregnancy will result?
The twins will be monochorionic and monoamniotic

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If a zygote splits between day 3 and day 8, what type of twin pregnancy will result?
The twins will be monochorionic and diamniotic

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On what day of fetal development is the amnion formed?
Day 8

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True or False? Twins who are born with two placentas (which may or may not be fused), separate chorions, and separate amniotic sacs are always dizygotic twins.
False; monozygotic twins may also form two placentas, two chorions, and two amniotic sacs

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On what day of fetal development is the chorion formed?
Day 3

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At which point is the risk greatest for conjoined twins: if twinning occurs before 3 days, between 3 and 8 days, or after 8 days?
After day 8 there is an increased risk for conjoined twins

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Is the decidua basalis derived from the maternal or fetal component of the placenta?
Maternal endometrium

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What is the function of the placenta?
The placenta is the primary site of nutrient and gas exchange between mother and fetus

2010-122
True or False? Blood from fetal capillaries in the branch villus is oxygenated by blood in maternal capillaries.
False; the fetal branch villus is oxygenated by pooled maternal blood within lacunae of the decidua basalis

2010-122
The syncytiotrophoblast composes what layer of the chorionic villi?
Outer

2010-122
Cytotrophoblast cells form which part of the chorionic villi?
Inner

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Which layer of the chorionic villi secretes human chorionic gonadotropin?
Outer layer (the syncytiotrophoblast)

2010-122
The fetal component of the placenta consists of which two cell types?
Cytotrophoblast; syncytiotrophoblast

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The umbilical arteries shunt blood to the placenta out of which arteries in the fetus?
The fetal internal iliac arteries

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Upon cutting of the cord, why is the number of umbilical arteries documented in a neonate's record?
A single umbilical artery is associated with congenital and chromosomal anomalies

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What structure connects the fetal bladder with the yolk sac?
The urachus

2010-122
From which fetal structure are the umbilical arteries and veins derived?
The allantois

2010-122
Does the umbilical vein carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?
Oxygenated blood

2010-122
The _____ functions to remove nitrogenous waste from the fetal bladder.
Urachus

2010-122
What is the embryologic origin of a Meckel's diverticulum?
The vitelline duct

2010-122
A _____ (vitelline/urachal) fistula results in fecal discharge, whereas a _____ (vitelline/urachal) fistula results in urinary discharge.
Vitelline; urachal

2010-122
What is the term for a fistula between the umbilicus and the bladder?
Urachal fistula

2010-122
The umbilical cord contains how many arteries and veins?
Two arteries and one vein

2010-122
Do the umbilical arteries carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?
Deoxygenated blood

2010-122
What is the term for a fistula between the umbilicus and terminal ileum?
Vitelline fistula

2010-122
In the embryonic heart, the primitive ventricle gives rise to the _____ (smooth/trabeculated) part of _____ (right/left/both) ventricle(s).
Trabeculated; both

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In the embryonic heart, the right common cardinal vein and the right anterior cardinal vein jointly give rise to what vein in the adult?
The superior vena cava

2010-123
In the embryonic heart, the smooth part of the right atrium is derived from what structure?
The right horn of the sinus venosus

2010-123
In the embryonic heart, the bulbus cordis gives rise to the _____ (smooth/trabeculated) part of _____ (right/left/both) ventricle(s).
Smooth; both

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In the embryonic heart, the smooth part of the ventricles is derived from the _____, whereas the trabeculated part is derived from the _____.
Bulbus cordis; primitive ventricle

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In the embryonic heart, the truncus arteriosus gives rise to what two vessels?
Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk

2010-123
In the embryonic heart, the trabeculated part of the right atrium is derived from the _____, and the smooth part of the right atrium is derived from the _____.
primitive atria; right horn of the sinus venosus

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In the embryonic heart, the coronary sinus is derived from what structure?
The left horn of the sinus venosus

2010-123
In the embryonic heart, the primitive atria give rise to the _____ (smooth/trabeculated) part of _____ (right/left/both) atrium(a).
Trabeculated; both

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Which two cardiac structures are created by neural crest cell migration?
Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk are created from the truncus arteriosus

2010-123
Failure of neural crest cell migration during embryonic heart development is responsible for which two pathologic conditions?
Transposition of great vessels and tetralogy of Fallot

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_____ forms to close the interventricular foramen and separate the two ventricles.
The membranous interventricular septum

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What is the opening called in the early muscular ventricular septum?
The interventricular foramen

2010-123
What two components make up the interventricular septum?
The muscular septum and the membranous septum

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The aorticopulmonary septum meets and fuses with the muscular ventricular septum to form the _____.
membranous interventricular septum

2010-123
_____ divides the truncus arteriosus into the aortic and pulmonary trunks.
The aorticopulmonary septum

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During development of the interatrial septum, the _____ narrows as the septum primum grows toward the endocardial cushion.
Foramen primum

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During development of the interatrial septum, as the _____ enlarges, the upper part of the septum primum degenerates.
Foramen secundum

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Near the end of fetal heart development, what structure composes the valve of the foramen ovale?
The remaining portion of the septum primum

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During development of the interatrial septum, the _____ maintains the right-to-left shunt as the septum secundum begins to grow.
Foramen secundum

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During development of the interatrial septum, perforations in the septum primum form the _____ as the foramen primum disappears.
Foramen secundum

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During development of the interatrial septum, what is the name of the opening in the septum secundum that remains patent throughout fetal life?
Foramen ovale

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What is the composition of fetal hemoglobin compared to adult hemoglobin?
Fetal hemoglobin is composed of α2γ2 whereas adult hemoglobin is composed of α2β2

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During fetal erythropoiesis, when does the bone marrow start producing fetal red blood cells?
Week 28

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During fetal erythropoiesis, when does the liver produce fetal red blood cells?
Weeks 6-30

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During fetal erythropoiesis, when does the spleen produce fetal red blood cells?
Weeks 9-28

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During fetal erythropoiesis, what is the first location to produce fetal red blood cells during development?
The yolk sac

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During fetal erythropoiesis, when does the yolk sac produce fetal red blood cells?
Weeks 3-8

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What is the order in which organs become the primary site of fetal erythropoiesis?
The Yolk sac, Liver, Spleen, Bone marrow (remember: Young Liver Synthesizes Blood)

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Less-oxygenated blood from the superior vena cava mainly passes through which shunt to reach the lower limbs of the fetus?
The ductus arteriosus

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Name the three important shunts in the fetal circulation.
Foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus, and ductus venosus

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After a neonate has started breathing, the oxygen saturation in the blood _____ (increases/decreases), thereby leading to a(n) _____ (increase/decrease) in the synthesis of prostaglandins, which is responsible for the closure of the _____.
Increases; decrease; ductus arteriosus

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The _____ shunts well-oxygenated blood from the placenta to the inferior vena cava to bypass the _____ in the fetus.
Ductus venosus; liver

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What structure shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation?
The foramen ovale

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Well-oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava mainly passes through which shunt to reach the brain of the fetus?
The foramen ovale

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What is the approximate oxygen saturation of the blood returning from the placenta in the umbilical vein?
80%

2010-125
What structure shunts blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta in the fetal circulation?
The ductus arteriosus

2010-125
The drug _____ can close the ductus arteriosus. By contrast, _____ can keep the ductus arteriosus open.
Indomethacin; prostaglandins

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What structure connects the umbilical vein with the inferior vena cava in the fetal circulation?
The ductus venosus

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What is the drug of choice to constrict the ductus arteriosus in an infant with patent ductus arteriosus?
Indomethacin

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With an infant's first breath, the resistance in the pulmonary vasculature _____ (increases/decreases), which causes _____ (increased/decreased) left atrial pressure as compared with the right atrium. This change in the pressure gradient causes the closure of the _____.
Decreases; increased; foramen ovale

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The _____ closes in response to alterations in the pressure gradient across the atria, whereas the _____ closes in response to decreased prostaglandin synthesis.
Foramen ovale; ductus arteriosus

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During fetal life, is the pressure in the right atrium or the left atrium higher? How does the pressure change after birth?
The pressure in the right atrium is higher during fetal life; at birth, after the neonate takes a breath, the pressure in the left atrium is higher

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The foramen ovale in the fetus becomes what structure in the adult?
The fossa ovalis

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The medial umbilical ligaments are derived from the _____, whereas the median umbilical ligament is derived from the _____.
umbilical arteries; allantois (urachus)

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The ductus arteriosus in the fetus becomes what structure in the adult?
The ligamentum arteriosum

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The allantois (urachus) in the fetus becomes what structure in the adult?
The mediaN umbilical ligament comes from the allaNtois

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The ductus venosus in the fetus becomes what structure in the adult?
The ligamentum venosum

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The umbilical arteries in the fetus become what structures in the adult?
The mediaL umbilical ligaments come from the umbiLical arteries

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What is the name for the part of the allantoic duct that runs between the bladder and umbilicus?
The urachus

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The umbilical vein of the fetus becomes what structure in the adult?
The ligamentum teres hepatis

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The ligamentum teres hepatis is contained in what structure in the adult?
The falciform ligament

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The notochord in the fetus becomes what structure in the adult?
The nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disks

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The ligamentum teres hepatis is a remnant of what structure in the fetus?
The umbilical vein

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The urachus connects the _____ to the _____.
Bladder; umbilicus

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Embryologically, the third aortic arch gives rise to which two arteries?
The common Carotid and proximal internal Carotid (remember: C is the third letter of the alphabet)

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Embryologically, the sixth aortic arch gives rise to part of what structure on both the right and the left?
The pulmonary artery

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Embryologically, the fourth aortic arch on the right gives rise to what structure?
The subclavian artery (remember: 4th arch [4 limbs] = systemic circulation)

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Embryologically, the fourth aortic arch on the left gives rise to what structure?
The aortic arch (remember: 4th arch [4 limbs] = systemic circulation)

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Embryologically, the second aortic arch gives rise to what two arteries?
The stapedial artery and the hyoid artery (remember: Second = Stapedial)

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Embryologically, the first aortic arch gives rise to part of what artery?
The MAXillary artery (remember: the 1st arch is MAXimal)

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Embryologically, the left sixth aortic arch gives rise to part of the pulmonary artery, as well as what structure?
The ductus arteriosus

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Embryologically, the fourth aortic arch gives rise to the _____ on the left and the _____ on the right.
Aortic arch; subclavian artery

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What are the adult derivatives of the telencephalon in the developing brain?
The cerebral hemispheres and lateral ventricles

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What adult structure is derived from the cavity in the embryonic mesencephalon?
The aqueduct

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What is the adult derivative of the myelencephalon in the developing brain?
The medulla

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What adult structure is derived from the cavity in the embryonic metencephalon and myelencephalon?
4th ventricle

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What is the adult derivative of the mesencephalon in the developing brain?
Midbrain

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What are the adult derivatives of the diencephalon in the developing brain?
The thalami and the third ventricle

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What are the adult derivatives of the metencephalon in the developing brain?
The pons and the cerebellum

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Neural tube defects are associated with elevated levels of what substance in amniotic fluid and maternal serum?
α-Fetoprotein

2010-127
In the fetus, the failure of the bony spinal canal to close (without structural herniation) will result in what type of neural tube defect?
Spina bifida occulta

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True or False? In spina bifida occulta, the dura mater is malformed.
False; the dura is intact

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A _____ is characterized by the meninges and spinal cord herniating though a spinal canal defect.
Myelomeningocele

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A _____ is characterized by the meninges herniating through a spinal canal defect.
Meningocele

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Neural tube defects are associated with low intake of what substance during pregnancy?
Folic acid

2010-127
Identify the three types of spinal neural tube defects.
Spina bifida occulta, meningocele, and myelomeningocele

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Name two syndromes associated with holoprosencephaly.
Patau's syndrome and severe fetal alcohol syndrome

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What is the term for a malformation of the anterior neural tube, causing agenesis of the brain and calvarium?
Anencephaly

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What happens to the amount of amniotic fluid if the fetus has anencephaly?
There is polyhydramnios due to the lack of a swallowing center in the brain: the fetus cannot swallow amniotic fluid

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In anencephaly, levels of which molecule are elevated in amniotic fluid?
α-Fetoprotein

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What is the term for decreased separation of the cerebral hemispheres across the midline in a fetus?
Holoprosencephaly

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An infant has cyclopia; what neural defect are you worried about?
Holoprosencephaly

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A patient presents with syringomyelia, thoracolumbar myelomeningocele and hydrocephalus; what syndrome do you suspect?
A Chiari type II malformation

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What is the Dandy-Walker malformation?
A posterior fossa malformation that is associated with a large posterior fossa and an absent cerebellum with a cyst in its place

2010-127
What is an Chiari type II malformation?
Cerebellar tonsillar herniation through the foramen magnum resulting in aqueductal stenosis and hydrocephaly

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A magnetic resonance imaging scan of the cervical spine shows an enlargement of the central canal of the spinal cord; what is the term for this lesion?
Syringomyelia; syrinx is Greek for tube, as in syringe

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What other neurologic malformation is commonly associated with syringomyelia?
Chiari type II malformation

2010-127
A patient has syringomyelia; which neuronal fibers of the spinal cord may be damaged?
Crossing fibers of the spinothalamic tract are damaged by the expanding central canal

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You are seeing a patient who has developed loss of pain and temperature sensation in the hands, but touch is intact; where is the lesion?
This describes the "cape-like" distribution of syringomyelia; this is most commonly at C8-T1

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True or False? Syringomyelia typically presents with unilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation.
False; this is a midline lesion causing bilateral pain and temperature loss with preservation of touch sensation

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Embryologically, what are the three components of the branchial apparatus (also called the pharyngeal apparatus)?
Clefts, arches, and pouches

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Muscles and arteries are derived from which embryologic tissue?
Mesoderm

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The bones and cartilage that develop from the branchial arches are derived from which embryologic cell population?
Neural crest cells

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Embryologically, branchial pouches are derived from what primary germ layer?
The endoderm

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Embryologically, branchial arches are derived from which two cell populations?
The mesoderm and the neural crest

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Embryologically, branchial clefts are derived from what primary germ layer?
The ectoderm

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What are the branchial apparatus components from outside to inside?
Clefts, Arches, Pouches (remember: CAP covers outside from inside)

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Embryologically, branchial arch 1 derivatives are innervated by which two cranial nerves?
Cranial nerves V2 and V3

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Branchial arch 3 derivatives are innervated by which cranial nerve?
Cranial nerve IX

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Embryologically, branchial arches 4 and 6 derivatives are innervated by which cranial nerve?
Cranial nerve X

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Embryologically, cranial nerves V2 and V3 innervate the derivatives of which branchial arch?
Branchial arch 1

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Embryologically, cranial nerve VII innervates the derivatives of which branchial arch?
Branchial arch 2

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Embryologically, cranial nerve IX innervates the derivatives of which branchial arch?
Branchial arch 3

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Branchial arch 2 derivatives are innervated by which cranial nerve?
Cranial nerve VII

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Which four cranial nerves are the only ones with both sensory and motor components?
Cranial nerves V3, VII, IX, and X

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Embryologically, cranial nerve X innervates the derivatives of which branchial arches?
Branchial arches 4 and 6

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Embryologically, the stapedius is derived from branchial arch _____, and the tensor tympani is derived from branchial arch _____.
2; 1

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Embryologically, the muscles of mastication (the temporalis, the masseter, and the medial and lateral pterygoids) are derived from which branchial arch?
Branchial arch 1

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Embryologically, the stylohyoid is derived from which branchial arch?
Branchial arch 2

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Embryologically, all intrinsic muscles of the larynx (except the cricothyroid) are derived from what branchial arch?
Branchial arch 6

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Embryologically, the anterior belly of the digastric is derived from branchial arch _____, and the posterior belly of the digastric muscle is derived from branchial arch _____.
1; 2

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Which muscles are derived from the second branchial arch?
The muscles of facial expression, Stapedius, Stylohyoid, and posterior belly of the digastric (Second branchial arch)

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Which bones are derived from the first branchial arch?
The mandible, malleus and incus (Meckel's cartilage)

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Embryologically, the cricothyroid muscle is derived from what branchial arch?
Branchial arch 4

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Embryologically, the levator veli palatini is derived from what branchial arch?
Branchial arch 4

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Embryologically, the stylohyoid muscle is derived from branchial arch ____, whereas the stylopharyngeus muscle is derived from branchial arch ____.
2; 3

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What is the embryonic origin of a congenital pharyngocutaneous fistula?
This is the persistence of a cleft and pouch creating a fistula between the tonsillar area and a cleft in the lateral neck

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Embryologically, the tensor tympani is derived from which branchial arch?
Branchial arch 1

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Embryologically, the greater horn of the hyoid is derived from branchial arch _____, and the lesser horn of the hyoid is derived from branchial arch _____.
3; 2

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Embryologically, the stapedius is derived from which branchial arch?
Branchial arch 2

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Which cartilages are derived from the fourth and sixth branchial arches?
Thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilage

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Embryologically, most intrinsic muscles of the larynx are derived from branchial arch _____, except for the cricothyroid, which is derived from branchial arch _____.
6; 4

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Which muscles are derived from the sixth branchial arch?
All intrinsic muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid

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The muscles of facial expression are derived from branchial arch _____, whereas the muscles of mastication are derived from branchial arch _____.
2; 1

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Embryologically, most pharyngeal constrictor muscles are derived from what branchial arch?
Branchial arch 4

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Embryologically, the styloid process is derived from which branchial arch?
Branchial arch 2

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Embryologically, the mylohyoid is derived from which branchial arch?
Branchial arch 1

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Embryologically, the anterior two thirds of the tongue are derived from branchial arch _____, whereas the posterior third is derived from branchial arches _____ and _____.
1; 3; 4

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Embryologically, the anterior two thirds of the tongue are derived from which branchial arch?
Branchial arch 1

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Which bones are derived from the second branchial arch?
The Stapes, Styloid process, and lesser horn of hyoid (Second branchial arch)

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Embryologically, the stylopharyngeus muscle is derived from which branchial arch?
Branchial arch 3 (think of pharynx: stylopharyngeus innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve)

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Which muscles are derived from the first branchial arch?
The Muscles of Mastication (temporalis, Masseter, lateral and Medial pterygoids), Mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini, anterior 2/3 of tongue

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Embryologically, the levator veli palatini is derived from branchial arch _____, whereas the tensor veli palatini is derived from branchial arch _____.
4; 1

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Embryologically, thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage is derived from which branchial arches?
Branchial arches 4 and 6

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What syndrome occurs when neural crest cells in the first branchial arch fail to migrate, causing mandibular hypoplasia and facial abnormalities?
Treacher Collins syndrome

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Embryologically, the malleus, stapes, and incus are derived from which branchial arches?
The malleus derives from branchial arch 1, the stapes and incus from branchial arch 2

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Embryologically, the anterior belly of the digastric muscle is derived from which branchial arch? From which arch is the posterior belly derived?
The anterior belly is derived from branchial arch 1 whereas the posterior belly is derived from branchial arch 2

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Embryologically, the tensor veli palatini is derived from which branchial arch?
Branchial arch 1

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Embryologically, the muscles of facial expression are derived from which branchial arch?
Branchial arch 2

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Embryologically, the malleus is derived from branchial arch _____, the incus is derived from branchial arch _____, and the stapes is derived from branchial arch _____.
1; 1; 2

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Embryologically, the mandible is derived from which branchial arch?
Branchial arch 1

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Which muscles are derived from the fourth branchial arch?
Most pharyngeal constrictors, the cricothyroid, and the levator veli palatini

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Embryologically, the cartilaginous derivatives from branchial arch 2 are called what?
Reichert's cartilage

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Embryologically, the arytenoids are derived from which branchial arches?
Branchial arches 4 and 6

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Embryologically, branchial arch 3 is innervated by which cranial nerve?
Cranial nerve IX (think of pharynx: stylopharyngeus innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve)

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Which opening is derived from the first branchial cleft?
The external auditory meatus

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On imaging, where would you expect to find a persistent cervical sinus?
On the lateral aspect of the neck, as this arises from a branchial cleft cyst

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Branchial clefts 2 through 4 develop into _____ _____, which are temporary.
Cervical sinuses

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Embryologically, the thymus is derived from which branchial pouch?
The ventral wings of branchial pouch 3 (remember: 3rd pouch structures end up below 4th pouch structures)

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Embryologically, the inferior parathyroid glands are derived from which branchial pouch?
The dorsal wings of branchial pouch 3 (remember: 3rd pouch structures end up below 4th pouch structures)

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Embryologically, the superior parathyroid glands are derived from branchial pouch _____, and the inferior parathyroid glands are derived from branchial pouch _____.
4; 3

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Embryologically, aberrant development of branchial pouches 3 and 4 leads to what syndrome?
DiGeorge syndrome

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Embryologically, the superior parathyroid glands are derived from which branchial pouch?
The dorsal wings of branchial pouch 4 (remember: 3rd pouch structures end up below 4th pouch structures)

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Embryologically, the epithelial lining of the palatine tonsils are derived from which branchial pouch?
Branchial pouch 2

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DiGeorge syndrome involves aberrant fetal development of the _____, which leads to T-lymphocyte deficiency, and of the _____ _____, which leads to hypocalcemia.
Thymus; parathyroid glands

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What are the derivatives of the first branchial pouch?
The middle ear cavity, eustacian tube, and mastoid air cells

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The tympanic membrane is derived from what fetal structure?
The first branchial membrane

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The tensor tympani muscle in the ear is innervated by what nerve?
Cranial nerve V3

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The stapedius muscle in the ear is derived from what fetal structure?
Branchial arch 2

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The stapedius muscle in the ear is innervated by what nerve?
Cranial nerve VII

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Taste in the anterior two thirds of the tongue is mediated by cranial nerve _____, whereas taste in the posterior third of the tongue is mediated by cranial nerve _____.
Cranial nerve VII; IX

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Sensation in the anterior two thirds of the tongue is mediated by cranial nerve _____, whereas sensation in the posterior third of the tongue is mediated by cranial nerve _____.
Cranial nerve V3; IX

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Which cranial nerve mediates taste and sensation in the extreme posterior portion of the tongue?
Cranial nerve X

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Sensation in the posterior third of the tongue is mediated by which cranial nerve?
Cranial nerve IX; as well as taste

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Cranial nerves that mediate the sense of taste project to the _____ nucleus.
Solitary

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Which cranial nerves mediate the sense of taste?
Cranial nerves VII, IX, and X

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Taste in the anterior two thirds of the tongue is mediated by which cranial nerve?
Cranial nerve VII

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Which cranial nerve supplies motor innervation to the tongue?
Cranial nerve XII

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Which cranial nerves mediate the sense of pain in the tongue?
Cranial nerve V3, IX, and X

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Sensation in the anterior two thirds of the tongue is mediated by which cranial nerve?
V3

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Taste in the extreme posterior of the tongue is mediated by which cranial nerve?
Cranial nerve X

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What is the embryologic origin of the thyroid?
The floor of the primitive pharynx

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The thyroglossal duct normally disappears during development, but it may persist as the _____ lobe of the thyroid.
Pyramidal

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How can a thyroglossal duct cyst be differentiated from a branchial cleft cyst on physical exam?
A thyroglossal duct cyst will move with swallowing, unlike a branchial cleft cyst

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What is the name of the normal remnant of the thyroglossal duct?
The foramen cecum

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What is the name of the structure that connects the thyroid gland with the tongue?
The thyroglossal duct

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A thyroglossal duct cyst is commonly found and felt where?
In the midline neck

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What is the most common site of ectopic thyroid tissue?
The tongue

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A branchial cyst is commonly found in the _____ (lateral/midline) neck, while a thyroglossal duct cyst is commonly found in the _____ (lateral/midline) neck.
Lateral; midline

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Cleft palate results from failure of which structures to fuse?
The lateral palatine process, the nasal septum and the median palatine process

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Cleft lip results from the failure of which structures to fuse?
Maxillary nasal process and medial nasal process

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Cleft lip is a defect in the formation of the _____ (primary/secondary) palate, and cleft palate is a defect in the formation of the _____ (primary/secondary) palate.
Primary; secondary

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What does the dorsal mesentery become in the mature diaphragm?
The diaphragmatic crura

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What nerves innervate the diaphragm?
C3, C4, and C5 (remember: C3, 4, 5 keeps the diaphragm alive)

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A neonate has an x-ray of the chest that shows abdominal contents in the chest cavity. This defect is likely the result of the incomplete development of the _____, resulting in a congenital _____ _____.
Diaphragm; diaphragmatic hernia

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Name 3 clinical findings seen with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia.
Hypoplasia of thoracic organs, scaphoid abdomen, and cyanosis

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How does the position of the diaphragm relative to the rest of the body change during embryogenesis?
It descends from its original formation to its final location in the body

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What does the septum transversum become in the mature diaphragm?
The central tendon

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What four structures contribute to the diaphragm?
The Septum transversum, the Pleuroperitoneal folds, the Body wall, and the Dorsal mesentery of the esophagus (remember: Several Parts Build Diaphragm)

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In embryologic terms, what part of the gastrointestinal tract is derived from the midgut?
The duodenum to the transverse colon

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In embryologic terms, what part of the gastrointestinal tract is derived from the foregut?
The pharynx to the duodenum

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An _____ is the persistence of herniated abdominal contents into the umbilical cord.
Omphalocele

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In fetal development, _____ is due to the failure of lateral body folds to fuse and the extrusion of abdominal contents outside the body wall.
Gastroschisis

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In embryologic terms, what part of the gastrointestinal tract is derived from the hindgut?
The distal transverse colon to the rectum

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What are some symptoms seen with the most common subtype of tracheoesophageal fistula?
Polyhydramnios in utero; cyanosis, choking and vomiting with feeding, air bubble on x-ray of the chest

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What is the most common subtype of tracheoesophageal fistula?
A blind pouch upper esophagus with the lower esophagus connected to the trachea

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A newborn is noted to choke and vomit with routine feedings; the mother had polyhydramnios during pregnancy; what is the most likely diagnosis?
Tracheoesophageal fistula

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At about what age do infants with congenital pyloric stenosis typically start projectile vomiting?
2 weeks

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What are the two classic clinical findings in an infant with congenital pyloric stenosis?
A palpable epigastric olive-sized mass and projectile vomiting

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In congenital pyloric stenosis, hypertrophy of the pylorus leads to what problem?
Gastric outlet obstruction

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Congenital pyloric stenosis often occurs in what demographic group?
Male first-born infants

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What is the treatment for congenital pyloric stenosis?
Surgical incision (a pyloromyotomy)

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If inspected, the vomit from a patient with congenital pyloric stenosis is noted as lacking what substance?
Bile

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The head of the pancreas is derived from the _____ (ventral/dorsal) pancreatic bud, the body is derived from the _____ (ventral/dorsal) pancreatic bud, and the tail is derived from the _____ (ventral/dorsal) pancreatic bud.
Ventral; dorsal; dorsal

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A patient has a congenital malformation of the pancreas in which the ventral bud abnormally encircles the second part of the duodenum and forms a ring of tissue; what is the name of this abnormality?
Annular pancreas

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True or False? The spleen arises as a diverticulum off of the gastrointestinal tract.
False; the spleen arises from the dorsal mesentery and is mesodermal

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Is the pancreas derived from the foregut, the midgut, or the hindgut?
The foregut

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True or False? The spleen receives its blood supply from the foregut vasculature, although it is not derived from the foregut.
True; it is supplied via the celiac artery

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The main pancreatic duct is derived from the _____ (ventral/dorsal) pancreatic bud, whereas the accessory pancreatic duct is derived from the _____ (ventral/dorsal) pancreatic bud.
Ventral; dorsal

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Of the following fetal structures, which ultimately contributes to the male genital system: the pronephros, mesonephros, or metanephros?
The mesonephros

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The _____ develops into the bladder, urethra, and allantois.
Urogenital sinus

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With regard to the embryologic development of the kidney, when does the pronephros develop?
During week 4

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After week 4, what happens to the pronephros?
The pronephros degenerates

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The urogenital sinus develops into what three structures?
Bladder, urethra, and allantois

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What adult structures in the urinary tract are derived from the metanephros?
The kidney from the glomerulus to the distal convoluted tubule

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During which trimester of fetal development does the mesonephros arise?
During the first trimester

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From what part of the developing kidney is the ureteric bud derived?
The mesonephros

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What fetal structure functions as the interim kidney for the first trimester?
Mesonephros

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What adult structures in the urinary tract are derived from the mesonephros?
The collecting ducts, calyces, pelvises, and ureters

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What is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in a fetus?
Ureteral obstruction

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What is the most likely site of congenital urinary tract obstruction? Why?
The uteropelvic junction with the kidney is the most common site of obstruction because it is the last to canalize

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In Potter's syndrome, what pathophysiologic consequence of bilateral renal agenesis leads to the hallmark features of limb deformities, facial deformities, and pulmonary hypoplasia?
Oligohydramnios (remember: babies with Potter's can't !Pee" in utero)

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What syndrome results from bilateral renal agenesis?
Potter's syndrome

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What embryonic structure is malformed in patients with Potter's syndrome?
The ureteric bud

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What is the name of the anatomic abnormality resulting from the fusion of the inferior poles of the kidneys?
Horseshoe kidney

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During the embryologic development of the renal system, do the kidneys ascend or descend in the abdomen?
Ascend

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Horseshoe kidneys remain low in the abdomen because, during fetal development, they get trapped under what artery?
The inferior mesenteric artery

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What four structures are derived from the mesonephric duct?
The Seminal vesicles, the Epididymis, the Ejaculatory duct, and the Ductus deferens (remember: SEED)

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Which embryologic structure of the genitals degenerates in the female?
Mesonephric duct

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The paramesonephric duct is also known as what?
The müllerian duct

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In male development, the mesonephric duct develops into all genitourinary internal structures except the _____.
Prostate

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The mesonephric duct is also known as what?
The Wolffian duct

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What structure becomes the lower two-thirds of the vagina?
The urogenital sinus

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In female development, the _____ duct degenerates and the _____ duct develops.
Mesonephric; paramesonephric

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Is male or female development the default fetal development?
Female; in the absence of a Y chromosome, female reproductive organs will develop

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What class of hormones promotes the development of the mesonephric ducts in males?
Androgens

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What hormone inhibits the development of the paramesonephric duct in males?
Müllerian-inhibiting substance

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What three structures are derived from the paramesonephric duct?
The fallopian tubes, the uterus, and upper one-third of the vagina

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Which cells produce the androgens that promote development of the mesonephric ducts?
Leydig cells

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In male development, the _____ gene on the _____ chromosome codes for testis-determining factor.
SRY; Y

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Which cells produce müllerian-inhibiting substance in males?
Sertoli cells

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What are 2 complications associated with a bicornuate uterus?
Bicornuate uterus is associated with urinary tract abnormalities and infertility

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What is the name of the congenital pathology that is associated with incomplete fusion of the paramesonephric ducts?
Bicornuate uterus

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Embryologically, the genital tubercle develops into what structure in the male and what structure in the female?
The glans penis in the male and the glans clitoris in the female

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Embryologically, the urogenital folds develop into what structure in the male and what structure in the female?
The ventral shaft of the penis in the male and the labia minora in the female

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The labioscrotal swelling develops into what structure under the influence of dihydrotestosterone in the male embryo?
The scrotum

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The genital tubercle forms what two structures under the influence of dihydrotestosterone?
The glans penis and the corpus spongiosum

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The urogenital folds develop into what structure under the influence of dihydrotestosterone in the male embryo?
The ventral shaft of the penis (penile urethra)

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The genital tubercle forms what two structures under the influence of estrogen?
The glans clitoris and the vestibular bulbs

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The urogenital sinus forms what two structures under the influence of dihydrotestosterone in the male embryo?
The prostate and the bulbourethral glands

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The labioscrotal swelling develops into what structure under the influence of estrogen in the female embryo?
The labia majora

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The urogenital folds develop into what structure under the influence of estrogen in the female embryo?
The labia minora

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The urogenital sinus forms what two structures under the influence of estrogen in the female embryo?
The greater vestibular glands (of Bartholin) and the urethral and paraurethral glands (of Skene)

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Embryologically, the labioscrotal swellings develop into what structure in the male and what structure in the female
The scrotum in the male and the labia majora in the female

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What condition results from an abnormal opening of the penile urethra on the inferior (ventral) side of the penis as a result of the failure of urethral folds to close?
Hypospadias (remember: Hypo is below)

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What common complication is prevented by fixing hypospadias?
Urinary tract infections

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What condition results from an abnormal opening of the penile urethra on the superior (dorsal) side of the penis as a result of the faulty positioning of the genital tubercle?
Epispadias (remember: when you have Epispadias you hit your Eye when you p,EE)

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Which is associated with exstrophy of the bladder: epispadias or hypospadias?
Epispadias (remember: Exstrophy of the bladder is associated with Epispadias)

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What are the embryologic etiologies of epispadias and hypospadias?
Epispadias results from faulty positioning of the genital tubercle; hypospadias results from failed closure of the urethral folds

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Which is a more common congenital penile abnormality: epispadias or hypospadias?
Hypospadias

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