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73 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Many companies have very large groups of physical servers in a central location. Which of the following describes those large groups of servers?

A. IBM mainframes
B. Remote distributed processing
C. zBX
D. Server farms
D
Which of the following is the most common business application mainframe workload?

A. Batch and online transaction processing
B. Printing and distribution processing
C. Backup and archiving processing
D. Restoration and recovery processing
A
In addition to the z/OS and z/VM operating systems, which of the following operating systems run on IBM System z excluding zBX?

A. Windows, Linux on z, z/TPF
B. AIX, z/VSE, Linux on z
C. Windows, Linux on z, AIX
D. z/VSE, Linux on z, z/TPF
D
Which of the following describes the major difference between and FICON or ESCON channels?

A. ESCON channels are faster, FICON channels are slower
B. ESCON channels use hard copper connections, FICON channels use fibre connections
C. ESCON channels are more secure than FICON channels
D. FICON channels have higher capacity than ESCON channels
D
IBM mainframe offers specialty processors (zIIP, zAAP, SAP and IFL). Which of the following accurately describes a function of one of these specialty processors?

A. zAAP processors automatically turns off unnecessary computing components.
B. IFL is used by a Linux LPAR or Linux on z/VM
C. zIIP processors automatically run high priority jobs first
D. SAP processors are specially tuned to run the SAP application suite
B
Which of the following mainframe technologies requires a coupling facility?

A. CTC ring
B. Shared DASD
C. Parallel Sysplex
D. zAAP
C
Which of the following can identify a base software component?

A. Message format
B. Software update list
C. System log routing table descriptor
D. Three characters in message identifier
D
A system z architecture has two kinds of physical storage. There is central storage and auxiliary storage. Access to central storage is _________.

A. multi-synchronous
B. asychronous
C. synchronous
D. duplexed
C
The range of virtual addresses that z/OS can assign to a user or separately running program is called a(n) ___________ space.

A. Virtual
B. Physical
C. Address
D. Mapping
C
The subset of an address space’s pages in central storage at a given time is known as the ________.

A. Virtual set
B. Address set
C. Working set
D. Central set
C
Which of the following does the PA1 key denote in TSO/E?

A. Terminate
B. Attention
C. Cancel
D. Exit
B
In addition to telnet, which method can be used to log in directly to the z/OS UNIX shell through TCP/IP?

A. logon
B. rlogin
C. map
D. FTP
B
Which TSO command can be entered at the READY prompt to diagnose an error message?

A. ?
B. Help
C. Assist
D. Analyze
B
Which of the following languages can be executed as a single command from a list of commands without compiling it?

A. CLIST or REXX
B. Assembler
C. COBOL
D. PL/1
A
Which of the following is a characteristic of Native TSO?

A. It provides a full screen editor for updating datasets
B. It provides a ready prompt to enter commands
C. It provides a dataset list for editing data sets
D. It provides a menu to enter commands
B
Including all name segments and periods, the length of a dataset name cannot exceed how many characters?

A. 48
B. 44
C. 40
D. 36
B
When describing a data set, which of the following is a valid z/OS record format?

A. Partitioned
B. Standard
C. Shifting
D. Fixed
D
Whenever a new customer record is added, it is always added at the end of the data set. Whenever the customer data set records are processed, they are always processed starting at the beginning of the data set, each record is read and processed, and processing stops when the last record in the data set has been processed. What is the data set type?

A. Sequential
B. PDS/E
C. RRDS
D. PDS
A
Which of the following types of data sets contains a directory and members?

A. Partitioned
B. Sequential
C. VSAM
D. KSDS
A
Which of the following describes a non partitioned data set?

A. A collection of one or more recordsthat isstored in physical order
B. A collection of sequential data sets called members
C. A collection of logically related data records
D. A collection of directory and members
C
When creating new data sets, one must specify the NEW option for the DISP parameter of a DD statement. Which of the following is required in addition to the NEW option when allocating disk space?

A. The type of high speed memory in the system
B. The space allocated for the dynamic extents
C. A hierarchical file system name
D. A volume serial number
D
A programmer can select almost any name for a JCL DD name. There are a number of reserved DD names that a programmer cannot use. Which of the following is a reserved DD name?

A. //SYSDDUMP DD ?
B. //SYSABEND DD ?
C. //STOPLIB DD ?
D. //JOBLAB DD ?
B
Which of the following does IBM provide in SYS1.LINKLIB?

A. Links to other systems
B. Cataloged procedures
C. Application programs
D. System programs
D
Which of the following describes a JCL data definition statement?

A. Associates a program coded file name with JCL DDNAME
B. Associates a program coded file name with a JCL EXEC
C. Associates a JCL PROC with a symbolic file name
D. Associates a JCL EXEC with a program name
A
Which of the following is a JOB statement parameter?

A. SYSOUT=
B. PARM=
C. USER=
D. UNIT=
C
Which of the following resources processes the JCL statements for each job?

A. Initiator
B. Spool
C. JES2
D. WLM
A
Which of the following is the sequence of the job phases as they flow through the system?

A. Input, Purge, Convert, Output, Process, Print
B. Input, Output, Convert, Process, Purge, Print
C. Input, Convert, Process, Output, Print, Purge
D. Input, Process, Print, Convert, Purge, Output
C
Which of the following enables processing of a batch job in a z/OS environment?

A. UNIX Services
B. ISPF
C. TSO
D. JCL
D
Which of the following is the purpose of JES?

A. Receives and schedules jobs, and controls output processing
B. Creates new data sets as instructed by the JCL
C. Helps users design or update new programs
D. Validates login information to identify users
A
Which of the following is a valid function of the initiator?

A. Avoid program conflicts
B. Avoid data set conflicts
C. Access TSO terminals
D. Prioritize running jobs
B
Which of the following is included in the system test phase?

A. Unit test of a module or class
B. Performance or stress test
C. Client acceptance test
D. Logic test
B
Which of the following is the reason to design an application to run online?

A. The users require online access to data and fast response time
B. Users do not require to run the application as a batch program
C. Transactions are submitted for overnight processing
D. Data is stored on tape
A
Which of the following is an appropriate concern for the z/OS application developer?

A. Deciding whether business rules and policies are appropriate for the project
B. Selecting the right personnel to assist in the development of the application
C. Coding and testing the software being developed for a particular project
D. Selecting the correct hardware platform to support the application
C
Which of the following is the most commonly used interface for z/OS application programmers?

A. Rational Developer for System z (RDz)
B. TSO/E and ISPF
C. X Window
D. TN 3270
B
Which of the following best describes an assembler instruction?

A. A request to the assembler to do certain operations during the assembly of a source module
B. A request that must be parsed, interpreted, and executed each time that the program is run
C. A request to the assembler program to process a predefined sequence of instructions
D. The symbolic representation of a machine language instruction
A
In COBOL, which statement connects a file’s internal FD name to an external JCL DD name?

A. Record
B. Select
C. Read
D. Open
B
Which of the following languages can be interpreted or compiled?

A. Assembler
B. COBOL
C. REXX
D. CLIST
C
What term describes the output of a compiler?

A. Compile Module
B. Source Module
C. Object Module
D. Load Module
C
What types of modules are input to the binder or linkage editor?

A. Compiled Modules
B. Source Modules
C. Output Modules
D. Object Modules
D
Which of the following are used to create an executable module from an object deck?

A. Relocation program
B. Linkage editor
C. Preprocessor
D. Precompiler
B
Which of the following actions ensure the "atomic" property of a transaction processing system?

A. Restart and recovery
B. Commit and rollback
C. Accept and deny
D. Apply and retry
B
What is a CICS transaction?

A. The amount of data transferred by executing a single CICS command
B. A request issued by a synch point manager
C. A unit of work initiated by a single request
D. A request issued by a resource manager
C
After signing on to CICS, how does a user invoke a transaction?

A. By issuing a TSO command
B. By typing INVOKE CICS
C. By typing EXEC CICS
D. By typing a TRANSID
D
Which of the following DB2 address spaces is used to communicate with other DB2 subsystems?

A. Distributed Data Facility
B. Lock Manager Services
C. Database Services
D. System Services
A
Which of the following describes SQL where DB2 determines the access path at run time?

A. Determined
B. Dynamic
C. Static
D. Agile
B
Which of the following is a logical database structure made up of rows and columns?

A. Table space
B. Table
C. Index
D. DBMS
B
Which of the following is an application program defined to DB2 and managed by the DB2
subsystem, used to help limit the number of network calls to run queries against the database?

A. User Defined Function
B. User Defined Type
C. Stored Procedure
D. Trigger
C
Which of the following is one of DB2’s three required address spaces?

A. Distributed Data Facility Services
B. Message Processing Services
C. Stored Procedure Services
D. Lock Manager Services
D
Which of the following is a Java API to access different forms of tabular data?

A. JDBC
B. J2EE
C. JVM
D. JMS
A
SSI, Cookie Support, Tracing and Logging, and Persistent Connections are considered what type of z/OS-specific HTTP functions?

A. File Caching
B. Security
C. Add-on
D. Basic
D
Which of the following z/OS UNIX files determines the behavior of a z/OS HTTP Server request passed to a plug-in?

A. plugin-cfg.xml
B. plugin-cfg xml
C. polugin.conf
D. profile
A
Which of the following is true of Type 4 JDBC drivers?

A. Fully written in java, can be ported to any platform that supports DBMS protocol.
B. JDBC API calls platform and database specific code to access the database.
C. JDBC default driver for z/OS
D. Offers the best performance
A
Which of the following programming models is supported by the WebSphere Application Server
(WAS) for z/OS environment?

A. Parallel Object Oriented
B. Java macro level (JML
C. Procedural Architecture
D. J2EE
D
Which of the following describes the WebSphere Application Server (WAS) capability to detect application failures and to restart when a failure occurs?

A. ARM
B. ASM
C. RSM
D. SRM
A
When an MQ application sends a "request" message type, what message type is expected in return?

A. Datagram
B. Return
C. Result
D. Reply
D
Which of the following is required for an MQ application to send a message to another application on a different computing platform?

A. Establish an asynchronous communication channel to effect the transfer
B. Establish a synchronous communication channel to effect the transfer
C. Use an MQI bidirectional channel to effect the transfer
D. Use a logical MQ channel to effect the transfer
D
Which of the following disk volumes contains the IPL text?

A. SYSCAT
B. SYSRES
C. SYSDLB
D. SYSZOS
B
Which of the following processes is needed to load a mainframe operating system?

A. TSO/E
B. IML
C. JES
D. IPL
D
Which of the following items directs the system to locate z/OS data sets?

A. Storage Group
B. Master Catalog
C. DB2 Tables
D. SDSF
B
Which of the following elements allow different z/OS systems to share PARMLIB definitions while
retaining unique values in those definitions?

A. System Parameters
B. System Messages
C. System Symbols
D. System Codes
C
Which of the following z/OS components controls TSO, batch job and started task priority
assignments?

A. ASM
B. RSM
C. WLM
D. VSM
C
Which of the following are contained in the SMP/E CSI?

A. Element descriptions
B. APAR Elements
C. User Elements
D. PTF Elements
A
Which of the following belongs to the SYSMOD category?

A. SCHEDULER
B. FUNCTION
C. SPSF
D. APF
B
Which of the following is used to introduce new elements to the system using SMP/E?

A. Base and Dependent function SYSMODs
B. Hardware Management Console (HMC)
C. Initial Program Load (IPL)
D. APAR and PTF
A, D
Which of the following is a main responsibility of the RACF administrator?

A. Program Debugging
B. Software Installation
C. Security Planning
D. Job Scheduling
C
Which of the following z/OS features allows selected programs to reside in special libraries and
thereby access sensitive z/OS system functions (such as running in supervisor state or executing
privileged instructions)?

A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) Server
B. Resource Access Control Facility (RACF)
C. System Authorization Facility (SAF)
D. Authorized Program Facility (APF)
D
Which of the following enables an organization to define individuals and groups with access
privileges to z/OS?

A. RACF
B. APF
C. JES
D. SVC
A
Which of the following software products provides basic security for a mainframe system?

A. RACF
B. LDAP
C. PKI
D. SAF
A
Which of the following RACF structures retains information about users, resources, and access
authorities?

A. Templates
B. Groups
C. Profiles
D. Access
C
Which of the following describes TN3270?

A. VTAM 3270 common storage for telnet
B. SNA telnet standard for 3270 protocol
C. Telnet standard for 3270 data stream
D. TCP/IP standard RFC 3270
A
Which of the following allows a full panel of data entries and corrections to be sent to the receiving
SNA application when the Enter key is pressed?

A. 3270 data stream
B. OSI data network
C. VTAM
D. APPN
D
Which of the following enables network devices to communicate with SNA applications in the z/OS
environment?

A. BTAM
B. VSAM
C. VTAM
D. BDAM
C
Which of the following describes the z/OS Communications Storage Manager (CSM)?

A. Communications Server disk storage
B. Layered network model storage
C. RFC common storage standard
D. Shared I/O buffer for data flow
D