Difference Between Language And Dialect

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Dialect exists in every language and it is a part of spoken language in every culture, butdefinitions of this term tend to vary a little.Edward J. Vajda explains the meaning of dialect by underlining the difference between language and dialect. First of all, he claims that the crucial role occupies the “mutual intelligibility” of two various language forms. It means that when the speakers of two particular language forms can understand each other they use dialects, not two separate languages (Vajda “Dialectology”). Moreover, Martyn F. Wakelin states that the difference between language and dialect is connected not only with intelligibility, but also with the development of these two.
He says that language is “only one stage of development further
…show more content…
It is forming by some social groups in the United Kingdom, for instance, in the capital city of England, London, middle-class people are used to speak in 'lower' dialects like Cockney. Another group, also from London could use Posh i.e. dialect which is rather using by upper class speakers like progenys of aristocracy or even The Royal Family. Moreover, the social dialects could be used in the whole United Kingdom and it does not matter where these users come from, Northern England or Cornwall, but the Cockney exist only in London. In "Varieties of English, Second Edition" (page 75) by Dennis Freeborn social variable is dramatise as "The first, and most obvious, social grouping related to accent is social class. Although we often label regional accents as coming from particular geographical areas - a city of a county, for example - it is clear thet not everyone in that area will speak in the same way. Social class seems to stand in inverse relationship to regional accent. That is, the higher up the social and occupational ladder we look, the fewer regional features we fing. Thus, although people in proffesional job from different areas of the country may have some pronounciation features that are regional, the differences between them are less marked than for unskilled manual workers." so the conclusion is simple, an accent or even dialect depend on place where the speakers are or come from. But in social dialects the distance …show more content…
As it mentioned hereinbefore - it is connected with a history. In modern-day world it is said that "dialects are dying out", " the fact that the basis for dialects has shifted. Nowadays, people travel hundreds of miles and think nothing of it. People commute to work in London from as far afield as Birmingham. Such mobility would explain, for example, why 150 years ago there was a traditional Kentish dialect, while today it barely survives, such is the close and regular contact with London. . . . Instead of small relatively isolated communities where each person mingles with more or less the same people for a life-time, we have vast human melting-pots where people have diffuse social networks--mingling regularly with different people, adopting new speech forms and losing the old rural forms. Both developments in communication and the effects of urbanisation have contributed to dialect levelling, a term referring to the loss of original traditional dialectal distinctions." (http://grammar.about.com/od/rs/g/Regional-Dialect.htm) which means that nowadays, in the modern age, people have been changed because of public transport facilities and different places where people could find a job, then, they stay in other area and that is how dialects dying

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