Study your flashcards anywhere!

Download the official Cram app for free >

  • Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/371

Click to flip

371 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)
What are the two categories of Helminths and the divisions of each?
•Flatworms – Trematodes (flukes) and Cestodes (tapeworms)
•Roundworms - Nematodes
What are the names of the three trematodes we are studying, the scientific name, and the location in the body it infests.
•Lung fluke (paragonimus westermani) – located in the bronchioles of the lungs
•Liver fluke (clonorchis sinensis) – located in the bile ducts of the liver
•Blood fluke (schistosoma) – located in blood vessels and bloodstream
Lung fluke:
Give the scientific name, Definitive host, Location, Intermediate host(s), and transmission of
Paragoninus westermani’s definitive host is the human – in the bronchioles of the lungs. The first intermediate host is the snail, the second intermediate host the crayfish or crab. Transmission occurs upon eating undercooked crayfish or crab.
Give the names of the different forms of the lung fluke throughout its life cycle.
•In the human, eggs are produced sexually and are swallowed and egested in feces. The eggs have larvae with miracidium – which have cilia.
•Once inside snails, the larvae are called Redia, and reproduce asexually producing cercariae – which have tails to swim through the water.
•Once inside its secondary intermediate host, the larvae are called metacercariae.
Liver Fluke:
Give the scientific name, location, Definitive host, Intermediate host(s), and transmission of.
Clonorchis sinensis lives in the bile ducts of the liver in humans – the definitive host. The intermediate host are snails, and the second intermediate host are fish. Transmission occurs upon ingestion of undercooked fish (sushi)
What disease does the liver fluke cause?
Jaundice – the bile ducts become blocked and bile is sent throughout the blood
Blood Fluke:
Give the scientific name, Location, Definitive host, Intermediate host(s), and transmission of.
• The Schistosoma’s definitive host is within the human, in blood vessels surrounding the rectum or bladder.
The intermediate host are snails, and the transmission is through the soft tissue between toes or fingers on humans.
Describe the life cycle of Schistosoma.
The male and female (which lives within a groove of the male) mate and produce eggs, which have a spike. This spike rolls around in the bloodstream and causes hemorrhaging. The eggs eventually hatch in water, producing miracidium. Once they have found their intermediate host, the snail, they release cercariae which swim in the water. These only have a two day life cycle, but hope to find their way back to the human through the toes and fingers.
What is the diagnosis for Schistosoma?
• Blood in urine, blood and eggs with urine or feces
Parogoninus westermani is located where in the human?
• The bronchioles of lungs
Where do schistosoma produce their eggs?
In blood vessels -- especially those surrounding the rectum and bladder
How is Clonorchis sinensis transmitted?
By eating undercooked fish – sushi.
None
What is the secondary intermediate host of Schistosoma?
There is no secondary intermediate host.
Where are redia found and what trematodes produce them?
Paragonimus Westermani and Clonorchis Sinensis both produce redia within snails.
None
Miracidium are a characteristic of larvae found in which Trematodes?
All three.
None
What are Metacercaria?
Larvae found in crayfish or crab with paragoninus westermani and in fish with Clonorchis Sinensis.
None
What is the life span of cercariae of Schistosoma?
Two days
How are the eggs of parogoninus westermani “dispensed”?
By the infested person swallowing the eggs and egesting them into the environment. Alternately, they are present in sputum.
None
Walking in wet soil or contaminated water will most likely make you the lucky recipient of what trematode?
The Schistosoma
If you just had a delicious evening of sushi and started to turn yellow a few weeks later -- what trematode have you?
Clonorchis sinensis – the onset of jaundice
None
What characteristic distinguishes Cercariae and miracidium?
Cercariae have tails -- miracidium have cilia
If you surprisingly see eggs and blood in your feces -- what trematode has made you its…play toy?
The Blood fluke: Schistosoma
Where does Parogoninus westermani mate?
Within the bronchioles of the lungs.
Fish are the secondary intermediate host of what trematode?
The Liver fluke: Clonorchis sinensis
None
True or False: Trematodes are flat worms.
True
T/F: Clonorchis sinensis penetrates human flesh through the toes and fingers.
False - Schistosoma do. The Liver fluke penetrates human flesh through the ingestion of undercooked fish.
None
T/F: The liver fluke can cause hemorrhaging.
False -- the blood fluke (Schistosoma) does.
T/F: Cercariae are found within snails.
False -- they are free floating in the water. Redia are found within snails.
T/F: The male lives in a ventral groove of the female schistosoma.
False -- the female lives within the male. Chauvinism at work.
T/F: Metacercaria are formed within Crayfish and crab during the life cycle of the Lung Fluke.
True
T/F: The reason for hemorrhaging with the blood fluke -- is the spikes on the eggs rolling around in the bloodstream.
True
What three tapeworms are we studying?
Echinococcus granulosus - Taenia Saginata and Taenia Solium.
Do tapeworms have a digestive system?
No - they obtain their nutrients through diffusion
Describe the anatomy of a tapeworm. Also, where do they usually live?
A tapeworm has a scolex (head) with four suckers •The body is divided into many units called proglottids
Tapeworms usually live in the intestine.
None
Give the Definitive host- Intermediate host(s)- and transmission of Echinococcus Granulosus.
The definitive host are dogs or carnivores - in the intestine. The intermediate host are humans cows or sheep, and the transmission is through the fur of dogs.
None
How do you kill a tapeworm?
By killing the scolex
Describe the anatomy of Echinococcus Granulosus
It is 3mm long and has three proglottids – the last one filled with eggs.
How are the eggs of Echinococcus granulosus spread?
The last proglottid, filled with eggs separates and is released into the environment where it ruptures.
How do the eggs of Echinococcus granulosus get onto the dog fur?
The eggs have six spikes which stick to the fur.
How can one prevent a dog from infestation of Echinococcus Granulosus?
Take care of dog and don’t let it eat outdoor meat. Keep the dog clean to wash away eggs.
Describe the life cycle of Echinococcus Granulosus.
Starting in the intestine of the dog, the last proglottid filled with eggs separates and ruptures in the environment. Humans cows and sheep pick up the eggs, and once in the intestine the eggs hatch and are now called oncospheres. Here they penetrate the wall of the intestine and travel to a desired location to form a Hydatid Cyst. The Hydatid cyst forms in the brain, heart, liver or lungs where it can grow quite large, even killing the patient, especially if growing in the brain.
Give the Definitive host, Intermediate host(s), and transmission of Taenia Saginata.
The definitive host is the Human, where it lives in the small intestine. The intermediate host is the muscle cells of cows and the transmission is by the eating of undercooked beef.
None
How is Taenia Saginata different from Taenia Solium anatomically?
Anatomically, T. Solium’s scolex has hooklets, where T. Saginata does not. T. Saginata is longer than T. Solium.
How is Taenia Saginata different from Taenia Solium in hosts and transmissions?
They differ in their intermediate host: T. Saginata lives in muscles cells of cow, where T. Solium lives in muscle cells of pigs. Naturally, the transmission is different: The eating of undercooked pork is the transmission of T. Solium, and the eating of undercooked beef is the transmission of T. Saginata.
Which is more dangerous: Taenia Saginata or Taenia Solium?
Taenia Solium. These can migrate through the wall of the intestine. If they land in the brain, they can kill you.
None
How are eggs of T. Solium released into the environment?
Through the feces of Pigs
What is the intermediate host of Echinococcus Granulosus?
Humans, Cows and Sheep
What is a Hydatid cyst?
A cyst which settles in the brain, heart, liver or lungs, and grows, causing that organ’s dysfunction
True or False: T. Saginata is transmitted by eating undercooked pork
False, T. Saginata is transmitted by eating undercooked beef
T/F: T. Saginata has hooklets.
False, T. Saginata doesn’t have hooklets, T. Solium does.
T/F: T. Saginata is more dangerous than T. Solium.
False, T. Solium is.
T/F: The intermediate host of T. Solium and T. Saginata is the pig and cow.
True
T/F: Humans can be the intermediate and definitive host of T. Saginata.
False, T. Solium.
T/F: You must kill the scolex to kill the worm, for cestodes.
True
T/F: Tapeworms don’t have digestive systems.
True, they obtain nutrients through diffusion
T/F: The reason dog’s fur is transmissable of Echinococcus Granulosus is the fact that the eggs have six spikes.
True
What general characteristic do the sexes of nematodes share?
Females are generally longer than males.
Give the Definitive host, Intermediate host(s), and transmission of Ascaris lumbricoides.
The definitive host is Humans in the small intestine. There is no intermediate host, and is transmitted by ingesting eggs from the environment.
Describe the life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides.
Located in the small intestine of humans, the female discharges 200,000 eggs (which have decoration). Eggs are released into the environment, and can survive extreme conditions. After the host ingests the eggs, larvae travel through the intestinal wall, travel through the bloodstream to the kidneys, liver, heart, lungs, trachea, esophagus, stomach, and to the small intestine. Complications arise when larvae travel through these organs, and is very dangerous in children when they vomit, allowing the ascaris to fall into the trachea.
Give the Definitive host, Intermediate host(s), and transmission of Trichinella Spiralis.
The definitive host is the human, and the intermediate host are pigs. Transmission occurs through eating undercooked pork.
Give the life cycle of Trichinella Spiralis.
After eating undercooked pork, where the trichinella spiralis is encysted in the striated muscle, the larvae are released and mature in the small intestine quickly. The females produce 2000 larvae which penetrate the intestinal wall and find their way into the blood stream, making their way to muscle fibers. The larvae cells form a cyst betwee fibers, called the encysted larva. Each ounce of meat can have 100,000 larva.
What is trichinosis?
Disease caused by Trichinella Spiralis where once encysted larva find their way into striated muscle begin to form thick cell walls which cause a lot of discomfort. Muscles become fatigued and pain accompanies muscle contractions. Trichinosis can be cured within 6 months, after, it is untreatable do to the thickness of the encysted larva’s cell wall.
Give the Definitive host, Intermediate host(s), and transmission of Neator Americanus (or Ancylostoma duodenale).
The definitive host is the small intestine of the human, there is no intermediate host, and the transmission is through the skin between toes.
Describe the life cycle of Neator Americanus.
After transmitted through the toes from moist soil, they travel through the bloodstream and through the major organs (Kidneys, liver, heart, lungs, trachea, esophagus, stomach) to the small intestine. Here they release eggs, which exit the body through the feces, and larvae develop in moist soil where they become infective.
Describe the appearance of the eggs of the hookworm.
They are of distinct shape, with a clear membrane with dividing cells.
Give the Definitive host, Intermediate host(s), and transmission of Dracuncolus Medinensis.
The definitive host is the human, where it lives subcutaneously. The intermediate host is the arthropod, Cyclops – a type of crustacean. Transmission occurs through drinking contaminated drinking water.
Describe the life cycle of Dracuncolus Medinensis.
The female lives under the skin, and release their larvae when the victim gets into water to relieve pain. In the water an arthropod crustacean, Cyclops picks up the larvae where they become infective. Drinking contaminated water starts the cycle again.
Give the Definitive host, Intermediate host(s), and transmission of Wuchereria Bancrofti.
The definitive host is Humans, in lymph vessels. The Intermediate Host are mosquitos, and transmission is by the bite of a mosquito.
Give the life cycle of Wuchereria Bancrofti.
Larvae circulate in blood of a victim, and mosquitos take the blood where the larvae become infective inside the mosquito. Transmission occurs by the bit of a mosquito, and the adult worm makes it way to live in lymph vessels blocking lymph circulation.
What is Elephantiasis?
Caused by Wuchereria Bancrofti, where organs become enlarged due to the blockage of lymph vessels.
Give the Definitive host, Intermediate host(s), and transmission of Enterobius vermicularis.
Definitive host is the human, in the large intestine near the Anus. There is No intermediate host, and the transmission is by contaminated fingernails.
Give the life cycle of Enterobius Vermicularis.
After mating in the large intestine of a human, the female migrates to the anus and lays eggs around it, causing severe itching. Children then itch their anus and inoculate themselves when putting their hands in their mouth – eggs getting trapped under the fingernails.
Which Nemotodes have no Intermediate host?
Ascaris Lumbricoides, the Hookworm (Neator Americanus or Ancylostoma duodenale), and Enterobius Vermicularis.
What Nemotode is known as the pinworm?
Enterobius Vermicularis
In which nematode is the intermediate host pigs?
Trichinella Spiralis
Which nematode causes Elephantiasis, and how?
Wuchereria Bancrofti, by blocking lymph vessels.
Which nematode is most commonly found in children?
Enterobius Vermicularis
What disease must be diagnosed within six months of infection, which will cause extreme discomfort for life if not?
Trichinosis
Which nematode has eggs with a decoration on its eggs?
Ascaris lumbricoides
Which nematode’s eggs have a distinct shape with a clear membrane with dividing cells?
The hookworm (Neator Americanus or Ancylostoma duodenale)
Which nematode forms encysted larva?
Trichinella Spiralis
Which nematode lives near the anus in the large intestine?
Enterobius Vermicularis
Which nematode lives subcutaneously in humans?
Dracuncolus Medinensis
Which nematode is transmitted by the bite of a mosquito?
Wuchereria Bancrofti
Which nematode, when ingested, travels through major organs, causing complications along the way to its destination in the small intestine?
The hookworm, neator americanus or ancylostoma duodenale
Which nematode is very dangerous to children when they vomit?
Ascaris lumbricoides
What nematode’s intermediate host is the Cyclops?
Dracuncolus Medinensis
What nematode is transmitted through moist soil?
The hookworm, neator americanus or Ancylostoma duodenale
Which nematode is transmitted through contaminated fingernails?
Enterobius vermicularis
How is trichinella spiralis transmitted?
Eating undercooked pork
How is Dracuncolus Medinensis transmitted?
Drinking contaminated water
The hookworm’s definitive host is what and where?
In the small intestine of humans.
True or False: Nematodes are the most abundant animal on earth
True
T/F: Males are generally longer than female nematodes.
False, Females are longer
T/F: Trichinosis is caused by Ancylostoma duodenale.
False, it is caused by Trichinella Spiralis
T/F: The intermediate host of the hookworm is the mosquito.
False, the hookworm has no intermediate host.
T/F: Larvae travel through the body of a victim infested with Ascaris lumbricoides in the following way: through the intestinal wall, through the bloodstream, to the kidneys, to the liver, to the heart, to the esophagus, to the trachea, to the stomach to the small intestine.
T/F: Hookworms release their eggs with the feces of its host.
True
T/F: Larvae of Wuchereria bancrofti become infectious within the blood of humans.
False, within mosquitos
T/F: The male Dracuncolus medinensis lives under the skin in the subcutaneous tissue, visible from the surface.
False, it is the female that lives here
T/F: Muscles become fatigued and have intense pain when a patient is infested with Trichinosis.
False, when the patient is infested with Trichinella Spiralis. The disease is Trichinosis
T/F: There is no intermediate host to Ascaris lumbricoides.
True
Name four environmental factors which affect the growth of bacteria.
pH, Salt, Temperature, and Oxygen
What three cardinal temperatures are there for the growth of bacteria?
Minimum – the lowest temperature that permits microbial growth and metabolism

Maximum – the highest temperature at which growth and metabolism can proceed

Optimum – the temperature at which bacteria grow best – it promotes the fastest growth and metabolism
None
Microbes are classified into what three primary groups on the basis of their preferred temperatures?
Psychrophiles – cold loving microbes: 0-20 C

Mesophiles – intermediate temperature loving: 20-40 C

Thermophiles – heat loving microbes: 45-80 C
None
Most bacteria are in what primary temperature group?
Mesophiles
Why are thermophiles important to the study of genetic engineering?
These high temperature threshold enzymes are important in Annealing – the process of splitting DNA.
What mesophile is responsible for food spoilage, and why?
Staphylococcus Aureus is because it grows best between 5 and 44 degrees Celsius – room temperature and refrigerator temperature.
Define aerobe.
Conditions where bacteria grow well in the presence of oxygen and possess the enzymes needed to process toxic oxygen products
Define obligate aerobe and give an example.
Bacteria which cannot grow without oxygen, such as Micrococcus species are aerobic.
Define Faculative aerobe and give an example
Bacteria which do not require oxygen for its metabolism and are capable of growth in the absence of oxygen, such as E. Coli is a Faculative Aerobe
Define a microaerophile and give an example.
Bacteria that do not grow at normal atmospheric tension of oxygen but require small amounts of it, such as Treponema, the cause of syphilis, is a microaerophile
Define anaerobe
Bacteria which do not grow in normal atmospheric oxygen
Define strict anaerobe and give an example.
Bacteria which cannot tolerate any free oxygen and will die if exposed to it, such as Clostridium, the cause of tetanus, is a strict anaerobe
Define aerotolerant anaerobe and give an example.
Bacteria which do not utilize oxygen but can survive in its presence, such as Certain lactobacilli are aerotolerant anaerobes
Define capnophile and give an example.
A microbe which grows best at relatively high carbon dioxide concentrations, such as Neisseria and streptococcus pneumoniae are examples of a capnophile
What are the four toxic oxygen products produced in nature?
Singlet Oxygen, Superoxide free radicals, Hydrogen Peroxide, and Hydroxyl radicals
Define Singlet Oxygen.
Single Oxygen (1O2)is an extremely reactive molecule. It is one of the substances produced by phagocytes to kill invading bacteria
What are superoxide free radicals?
Superoxide free radicals (O2-) are toxic to cellular components of all organisms. They must attempting to grow in atmospheric oxygen
None
How are superoxide free radicals neutralized?
. It is neutralized by the production of an enzyme superoxide dismutase (SOD).
What does the superoxide dismutase produce when neutralizing superoxide free radicals?
Hydrogen peroxide and free oxygen are produced
None
What is the chemical reaction that Super Oxide Dismutase use to neutralize Superoxide free radicals?
O2- + O2- + H2 --> H2O2 + O2
None
What is Hydrogen Peroxide?
Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), produced from the neutralization of superoxide free radicals, is a toxic mixture. Bacteria have developed a way to neutralize it.
What are the two enzymes which convert Hydrogen Peroxide?
Catalase and Peroxidase
What bacteria use Peroxidase?
Peroxidase, found in species of Streptococci
What bacteria use Catalase?
Catalase, found in species of Staphylococcus
What is the chemical equasion for the transformation of H2O2 using Peroxidase?
convert Hydrogen Peroxide into only water, with no bubbles: H2O2 + 2H+ --> 2H2O
What is the chemical equasion for the transformation of H2O2 using Catalase?
convert Hydrogen peroxide to water and bubbles of Oxygen: 2H2O2 --> 2H2O + O2
What is a property of Hydroxyl radicals?
They are very toxic.
How do bacteria make Oxygen non-toxic?
They must utilize an enzyme, superoxide dismutase (SOD) which converts free oxygen radicals into Hydrogen peroxide and free oxygen. This must then be converted by means of catalase or peroxidase to convert Hydrogen peroxide to water or water with oxygen.
Lactobacilli are an example of what oxygen requirement category?
Aerotolerant anaerobe
Treponema is an example of what oxygen requirement category?
Microaerophile
Superoxide dismutase is used to neutralize what toxic product of oxygen?
Superoxide free radicals
Streptococci have what enzyme to neutralize Hydrogen Peroxide?
Peroxidase
Micrococcus is an example of what oxygen requirement category?
Obligate Aerobe
20-40 degrees Celsius is ideal for what primary group of bacteria?
Mesophiles
The highest temperature at which growth and metabolism can proceed is what cardinal temperature?
Maximum
Neisseria and Streptococcus pnuemoniae are examples of what oxygen requirement category?
Capnophile
What is OH-?
Hydroxyl Radical
What is 1O2?
Singlet Oxygen
What toxic oxygen product does this chemical equation belong to: O2- + O2- + H2 -–SOD--> H2O2 + O2 ?
Superoxide free radicals
What is the chemical formula for the neutralization of Hydrogen Peroxide by a streptococcus bacteria?
H2O2 + 2H+ --peroxidase--> 2H2O
What is annealing?
The process of splitting DNA. Made possible in part by thermophiles’ enzymes.
Clostridium is an example of what oxygen requirement category?
Strict anaerobe
An aerobe which doesn’t require oxygen for its metabolism and is capable of growth in the absence of oxygen is an example of what oxygen requirement category?
Faculative Anaerobe
True or False: Cold loving microbes are called mesophiles.
False, Psychrophiles
T/F: The lowest temperature which permits microbial growth and metabolism is a minimum temperature.
True
T/F: A capnophile is a microbe which grows best at relatively high Carbon Dioxide levels.
True
T/F: Singlet Oxygens are an extremely reactive molecule produced by phagocytes to kill invading bacteria.
True
T/F: Catalase is produced by enterococci.
True
T/F: E. Coli is an example of a faculative anaerobe.
True
T/F: Staphylococcus Aureus is a bacteria known to be responsible for food spoilage.
True
T/F: Maximum temperatures promote the fastest growth and metabolism.
False, optimum temperatures do. Maximum are the highest temperature at which growth and metabolism can proceed.
T/F: Thermophiles’ range of temperature is from 45-80 degrees celsius.
True
T/F: 37 degrees Celsius, the human body temperature, is optimal for growth of bacteria living outside the human body.
False, for pathogens.
What is the pH scale?
A scale determining the acidity or alkaline nature of a solution depending on the concentration of Hydrogen Ions. The scale is from 0 to 14.
What is the pH of Blood?
7.35 to 7.45
What is the optimum pH range for bacterial growth?
6 to 8
What is a means of pH identification in Bacteria, and how do you read results?
A phenol red indicator. Yellow indicates acidity, red indicates alkaline.
What is acidosis?
Life threatening disease when blood pH becomes lower
Define Isotonic Solution.
Where the concentration in and out of cells is the same – bacteria live in these conditions
What type of solution inhibits the growth of bacteria?
Hyptonic salt solution where the concentration of salt outside the cell is greater than that inside.
Define plasmolysis.
When cells shrink, losing water, in hypotonic solutions.
What is the best concentration of salt in a hypotonic solution?
7 percent
Yellow indicates what in a phenol red indicator?
Acidic conditions
0 to 7 on the pH scale is of what quality?
Acidic.
How is osmotic pressure important to bacterial growth?
If the concentration of salt in a hypotonic solution is high, then bacterial cells shrink, inhibiting the growth of bacteria. The water within the cells goes to the area of high concentration: osmotic pressure.
True or False: pH is the potential power of Hydrogen Ions.
True
T/F: Red in a phenol red indicator test indicates acidic conditions.
False, yellow does.
T/F: Plasmolysis is the loss of blood fluids.
False, it is when cells shrink, losing water, in hypotonic solutions.
T/F: Bacteria live in Isotonic solutions.
True
T/F: The preferred range of pathogens is the same as the range of blood pH.
True
T/F: Water is at a pH of 7.
True
T/F: 17% salt solution is the best to kill bacteria.
False, 7 percent
Define binary fission.
When a cell divides into two cells: It replicates DNA, cell elongates, circular components of DNA move to both ends of splitting cell, the cell splits in two.
Define exponential growth.
When growth is exponential…i.e. 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, etc
What is the equation for rate of population growth in a bacterial colony?
Nf = (Ni)2n where f = final number, i = initial number, n = number of generations
Can bacteria grow indefinitely?
No, the death and birth rate will eventually be the same, and then bacterial growth will decline
What are the four phases of a normal growth curve for bacteria?
Lag, Log, Stationary Growth and Death
What is the Lag Phase?
where bacteria become situated with their environmen, very little growth
What is the Log Phase?
exponential growth phase
What is the Stationary Growth Phase?
where birth rate equals death rate
What is the Death Phase?
bacteria begin to die because of depletion of food, and their death do to their own waste
How long does the Stationary Growth Phase last?
15 hours approximately
How do we slow down the death phase of bacteria?
Refrigerate cultures
How long does the lag phase last?
Five hours
How long does the Log Phase last?
10 hours
What is an enzyme?
A protein made of polypeptide chains which speed up the rate of chemical reactions. They are three dimensional, have an active site for a substrate and are not consumed in chemical reactions – cells employ enzymes to lower activation energy.
What factors affect enzyme activity?
Temperature (35 to 40) and pH (6 to 8)
What is a cofactor?
Organic or inorganic molecules which facilitate the activity of enzymes
What are NAD+ and NADH?
Used in oxidation and reduction reactions involved in the transfer of Hydrogen Ions.
What is Oxidation?
The removal of Hydrogen Ions: NADH to NAD+
True or False: Enzymes can be used repeatedly.
True
T/F: Cells employ enzymes to lower activation energy of chemical reactions.
True
T/F: NADH to NAD+ is an example of Reduction.
False, this is an example of Oxidation – the removal of Hydrogen Ions
T/F: Enzymes are nonspecific.
False, they are very specific
What is Cellular Respiration?
The harvesting of energy by cells to produce ATP
What is the initial molecule to make ATP?
Glucose (C6H12O6)
Can cells use other sources of energy to make ATP?
Yes, such as lipids and proteins. Although brain cells need glucose.
What are the stages of cellular respiration under aerobic conditions?
Glycolysis, Krebs Cycle, ETS
Where does Glycolysis occur within the cell?
Glycolysis takes place within the cytoplasm of all cells.
Where does the Krebs Cycle occur within the cell?
The Krebs Cycle takes place within the mitochondria, and in the case of bacteria within the cytoplasm.
Where does the Electron Transport System take place in the cell?
The Electron Transport System takes place between the matrix and membrane of mitochondria, and in the case of bacteria between the cell membrane and the periplasmic space.
Define phosphorolation.
The addition of phosphates to sugar, which occurs during glycolysis
During glycolysis, what is done to produce a sugar diphosphate, and what is it called?
Cells invest two ADP to make two phosphates which energize the sugar through phosphorolation and make two sugar diphosphates: Pyruvates.
What does glycolysis produce?
2 ATP, 2 NADH
What are the stages of cellular respiration under anaerobic conditions?
Glycolysis, Fermentation, Electron Transport System
What happens during fermentation: Give two examples of it, and what it produces.
In alcoholic fermentation, pyruvates are converted into alcohol and Carbon Dioxide – yeasts primarily do this.
In lactic acid fermentation pyruvates are converted into lactic acid. (Acidosis can occur in muscles when lactic acid gets into blood stream from muscles)
Fermentation doesn’t produce any additional energy, but produces NAD+ from NADH
None
Where does the Krebs cycle take place?
The Krebs cycle takes place within the mitochondria or Cytoplasm (Bacteria).
What does the Krebs Cycle use as it’s raw materials?
Two pyruvates
What are the products of the Krebs Cycle?
2 NADH, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP, and 6 CO2 (The ATP is used by the cell and the Carbon Dioxide is released.)
What are the seven energy carriers in the cell membrane (of mitochondria or bacteria) in the ETS?
NADH dehydrogenase
FMN (Flavin mononucleotide)
CoEnzyme Q
Cytochrome D
Cytochrome C1
Cytochrome C
Cytochrome a & a3
None
The seven energy carriers in the ETS are associated with what enzyme, which does what?
ATP synthase, which makes ATP
What are the raw materials, and what are their functions in the ETS?
NADH & FADH2 are used as energy carriers.
What are the seven steps in the ETS?
1 – NADH and FADH2 pass electrons to the first protein in the ETS
2 – Electrons pass from energy carrier to the next
3 – With each transfer, energy is released
4 – This energy is used to pump hydrogen ions into the outer compartment of the mitochondria or the periplasmic space (in bacteria)
5 – Hydrogen Ions build up in the outer membrane: making a higher concentration.
6 – Hydrogen Ions flow back across the membrane through the enzyme ATP Synthase, synthesizing ATP
7 – The last protein in the ETS finally passes electrons to oxygen along with hydrogen ions, generating water
None
Do all bacteria have the seven energy carriers? Give an example using cyanide.
No, this is how we distinguish between some bacteria. The last Cytochrome a & a3 is very sensitive to cyanide (which blocks its function). Pseudomonas doesn’t have this, and can survive under conditions with cyanide.
What affects the amount of ATP produced, and how much is produced?
Bacterial ATP is more because it doesn’t use ATP to utilize mitochondria (which it doesn’t have). It instead takes place within the periplasmic space and cell membrane saving it two ATP, to bring the total ATP produced up to 38.

In Eukaryotes, mitochondria require 1 ATP to transfer ions to the matrix: producing 36 ATP.
None
In the last step of the ETS, the terminal step, give the chemical equation, and a bacterial example of an aerobic microbe.
2H + 2e- + ½ O2 --> H2O
Micrococcus luteus is an example of an organism living in the presence of oxygen
None
What happens in the terminal step in the absence of oxygen? Give two examples with chemical equations.
E. Coli can convert Nitrate to Nitrite using the enzyme nitrate reductase: NO3- + H2 --–Nitrate Reductase--> NO2- + H2O
Pseudomonas Aeroginose can convert nitrate to free nitrogen through many more enzymes: NO3- --> NO2- --> NO --> N2O --> N2
None
Does fermentation produce any additional energy?
No, only NAD+ from NADH
What happens, during the ETS, after energy is used to pump hydrogen ions into the outer compartment of mitochondria?
Hydrogen ions build up in the outer compartment. Then, they flow back through ATP synthase, synthesizing ATP.
Finally, the last protein in the ETS passes electrons to oxygen along with Hydrogen ions making water.
None
What is the chemical formula for glucose?
C6H12O6
Do all bacteria have the seven energy carriers?
No
Where does the Krebs cycle take place?
Within the mitochondria, or within the cytoplasm in bacteria
Alcoholic fermentation takes place where, and produces what?
Define Pyruvate.
A 3 carbon sugar phosphate molecule, produced during glycolysis, which will be used in fermentation or the Krebs Cycle to produce more materials for the ETS.
What is the main source of energy for Brain cells?
Glucose
What occurs during the ETS in bacteria?
NADH and FADH2, the energy carriers from the Krebs cycle, pass electrons to the first protein in the ETS. Electrons continue to flow from protein to protein producing energy (Electricity). This energy is used to pump Hydrogen ions from the cell into the periplasmic space. The hydrogen ions build up and they are pumped back into the cell using ATP Synthase, which converts them into ATP. The last protein in the chain passes electrons to oxygen along with hydrogen ions to form water.
True or False: Bacteria have all seven energy carriers
False
T/F: Nitrate reductase is used in aerobic conditions to convert Nitrate to Nitrite.
False, under anaerobic conditions
T/F: The Krebs cycle produces 2 NADH, 6 NADH, 3 FADH2, 2 ATP, 4 CO2
False, it produces 2 FADH2, and 6 CO2
T/F: Cytochrome C is sensitive to cyanide.
False, cytochrome a & a3
T/F: The initial molecule to make ATP is Glucose (C6H12O8), a 6 carbon molecule.
False, it is C6H12O6
T/F: Yeasts are an example of Lactic Acid Fermentation.
False, Alcoholic.
What is the causative bacteria for Gonorrhea? And is it gram negative or gram positive?
Gram Negative Neisseria gonorrhoeae
What two factors contribute to the pathogenicity of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
Fimbriae which increase attachment and colonization; and Protease which cleaves IgA – an immuno globulin for long term defense.
What is gonorrhea in males?
A mix of semen and pus
What is the IG test?
Immuno Globulin test which tests for a good immune system. It tests for three antibodies which fight against bacteria: IgA, IgG, IgM
What is the percentage of cloaked gonorrhea?
In females, it goes unnoticed in 50 percent. Males: 10 percent.
What are the symptoms of Gonorrhea in females and males?
In females: Bloody vaginal discharge, pain with urination.
In males: pain during urination, urethritis.
None
What complications can arise from Gonorrhea?
In females, it can move to the uterus, fallopian tubes and pelvic cavity causing PID
In males, it can move to epidydimis and prostate gland, leaving scars in urethra leading to sterility.
None
What is the Oxidase test? Describe what occurs.
• A selective lab test for Neisseria species.
• Specimens are streaked on MTM (Modified Thayer-Martin Medium) or Chocolate Agar. They are then incubated in a high Carbon dioxide atmosphere. Gram staining, followed by oxidase testing of isolated colonies gives identification of genus.
• The gram stain must confirm gram negative diplococci.
• The oxidase test: a drop of oxidase reagent is placed on a suspected colon. If the colony reacts to produce a purple or black color, it is oxidase positive. Those that remain white to tan are oxidase negative.
What is the enzyme found in Gonorrhea which cleaves IgA?
Protease
What shape are Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Round: Gram negative diplococci
In order for any pathogen to cause a disease, what must it do?
Attach, penetrate, and damage the tissue after making establishment.
What are three ways in which microorganisms enter a host?
Through mucous membranes, skin, and the Parenteral route
What are the three mucous membranes which microbes can enter into? Give an example for each.
• Respiratory tracts – the easiest portal of entry, just breathe. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Klebsiella pneumoniae
• G.I. Tracts – by swallowing: vibrio cholerae, salmonella typhi
• Genitourinary tracts – STDs: Chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis
How do microbes gain access to the skin?
Through soft tissues between fingers and toes, through cuts and wounds, and through sweat glands and hair follicles.
Define Parenteral Route.
A portal of entry for pathogens by deposition directly into tissues beneath skin or mucous membranes.
What microbe is the cause of the plague?
Yersinia Pestis
What are some factors of pathogenicity of Yersinia Pestis?
They are gram negative rods, they have a capsule, they envelope proteins, they have the enzyme coagulase (which causes blood clotting), they form an endotoxin: Murine toxin which is highly potent, and the number to initiate infection is only 30.
Give three examples of the plague and what organ systems they affect.
• The Bubonic plague (mortality rate 70%) causes swollen lymph nodes in the lymphatic system.
• The Pneumonic plague (mortality rate 10%) causes infection in the lungs in the respiratory system
• The Septisimic pague causes blood poisoning in the cardiovascular system.
What is the vector of Yersinia Pestis, and how does this vector transmit the disease.
The flea transmits yersinia pestis when it is infected. The Coagulase in the microbe causes solid blood clots in the intestine blocking the flow of nutrients from food, making them very hungry. The circulating blood, when it gets to the clot, also picks up Yersinia Pestis and when a flea is hungry it starts biting – happily donating some of its love potion to Mr. Potential Bubonic Pneumonic.
What is the way bacteria are guaged to their pathogenicity?
• LD50 – leathal dose for fifty percent of hosts: the number of baceria which cause death.
• ID50 – infectious dose for fifty percent of hosts: the number of bacteria which cause infection
Define adherence.
Surface molecules on a pathogen called adhesions, which bind to complementary surface receptors on cells of certain host tissues
What are six ways in which bacterial pathogens penetrate host defenses.
Capsules, M Protein in cell wall, Enzymes, Hemolysins, Coagulases, and Kinasis.
Define Capsules, and give an example.
A capsule can contribute to pathogenicity by helping bacteria escape phagocytosis, making it more virulent. Ie: Streptococcus Pneumoniae has a gene which forms a capsule.
Define and give an example of a component of the cell wall which contributes to pathogenicity.
The M Protein in the cell wall mediates attachment and helps the bacterium resist phagocytosis. Ie: Streptococcus Pyogenes, has M Proteins in its cell wal
Enzymes are mainly produced by what species of bacteria? Give an example of an enzyme.
Enzymes are mainly produced by Staphylococci and Streptococci. Ie: Leukocidins destroy leukocytes that are very active in phagocytosis
Define and give an example of Hemolysins.
Hemolysins cause the lysis of erythrocytes (digest blood). Ie: Staphylococcus aureus produces a clear zone around growth on blood agar.
Define Coagulases and its function in bacteria.
Coagulases coagulate (clot) the fibrinogen in blood. This is used by bacteria to isolate themselves from the surrounding environment. Fibrinogen, which is soluble in blood, is converted to Fibrin, which is non soluble.
Define Kinasis.
The breakdown of fibrin and resultantly dissolving clots
Define virulence.
Degree of pathogenicity.
Define toxins.
Poisonous substances that are produced by certain microorganisms. Antitoxins are usually produced by the body in response.
Define toxigenicity.
The capacity of a microbe to produce toxins
What are the two categories of toxins?
Exo- and endotoxins
STDs such as chlamydia and gonorrhea enter a host where?
Through Genitourinary tracts
Define Adhesions.
Surface molecules on pathogens which bind to complimentary surface receptors on cells of certain host tissues contributing to a pathogen’s adherence quality.
What pathogenic penetration device mediates attachment?
The M Protein in the cell wall.
None
Define Toxemia and give two conditions of it.
• Toxemia is the presence of toxins in the blood
• Bacteremia is the presence of bacteria in the blood.
• Septisemia is the presence of poison in the blood
Give some properties of Exotoxins.
• They are produced inside some gram positive bacteria as part of their growth and metabolism
• They are proteins
• The genes for most are carried in a plasmid
• They are soluble in body fluids and can easily diffuse into blood to their targets
• The bacteria is still alive after releasing its exotoxin – enabling it produce more.
Give some properties of Endotoxins.
• They are apart of the cell wall in the LPS (the lipid A) of gram negative bacteria only.
• Endotoxins are rleased when the bacteria die and cause septic shock.
• The lipid A carries the toxin.
Staphylococcus Aureus uses this pathogenic penetration device.
What is Hemolysins, Alex.
The breakdown of fibrin and the dissolving of clots is what penetration device?
Kinasis
The capacity of microbes to produce toxins is what factor of pathogens causing damage to most cells?
Toxigenicity
This kind of toxemia shows the presence of bacteria in blood.
Bacteremia
The Murine toxin is produced by what pathogen?
Yersinia Pestis
The bubonic plague causes what symptoms?
Swollen lymph nodes
What is the easiest portal of entry for microbes?
The respiratory tract
The portal of entry for pathogens by deposition directly into tissues beneath the skin or mucous membrane is what type of portal of entry?
The Parenteral route
The number of bacteria to cause infection in fifty percent of hosts is what measuring device?
ID50
What type of plague causes blood poisoning?
Septisimic
Leukocidins are what pathogenic penetration device used by what two primary genera of bacteria?
Enzymes used by Staph and Strep to destroy very active leukocytes, like macrophages.
What part of the LPS is responsible for endotoxin’s potency?
The Lipid A
The genes for most eotoxins are carried where?
In the Plasmid
How do exotoxins reach their target?
They are soluble in bodily fluids and can easily diffuse into blood to get to their target.
Exotoxins are produced where?
Inside some gram positive bacteria as part of their growth and metabolism
What type of bacteria is Yersinia Pestis?
Gram Negative Rod
Streptococcus Pyogenes carries what pathogenic penetration device?
The M Protein of the cell wall
Streptocoocus Pneumoniae has a gene to form what pathogenic penetration device?
A gene to form a capsule
What is the number of bacteria to initiate infection of the plague?
30
Streptococcus Pneumoniae uses what portal of entry?
The respiratory tract
Swallowing leads bacteria down this wonderful ride of a tract.
The GI Tract
What pathogenic penetration device is used by bacteria to isolate themselves from the surrounding environment?
Coagulases
What pathogenic penetration device can contribute to the pathogenicity of bacteria?
Capsules
This is produced by the body in response to this poisonous substance produced by microbes.
Antitoxins are produced in response to toxins
This is released when gram negative bacteria die.
Endotoxins
Yersinia pestis forms what category of toxin?
Endotoxin
True or False: Fibrin is soluble in blood plasma
False, it is non-soluble
T/F: Hemolysins cause the lysis of leukocytes.
False, erythrocytes
T/F: Yersinia Pestis has more than one portal of entry.
True
T/F: Salmonella typhi is an example of an organism who’s portal of entry is through the skin.
False, it is an example of a POE through the GI tract
T/F: Coagulase causes the breakdown of fibrin and the dissolving of clots.
False, it causes the clotting of fibrinogen in blood. It is used by bacteria to isolate themselves from the surrounding environment.
T/F: Endotoxins are produced inside some gram positive bacteria as part of their growth and metabolism.
False, Exotoxins.
T/F: Exotoxins can cause septic shock.
False, Endotoxins
T/F: Staphylococcus Pyogenes has M Protein in its cell wall.
False. There’s no such thing as Staphylococcus Pygenes (anymore), silly. Streptococcus Pyogenes.
T/F: Staph Aureus has hemolysins.
True
T/F: Salmonella and Shigella’s portal of entry is the Respiratory tract.
False, GI tract
T/F: In order for any pathogen to cause a disease it must: Attach, penetrate, and damage the tissue after making establishment.
True
What are the three categories of Exotoxins and what do they do? Give an example of each.
• Cytotoxins – interfere with function of cell. The Diphtheria toxin produces this
• Neurotoxins – Affects motor nuerons and their junctions between muscles. They interfere with the contractino of muscles leading to paralysis. Botulinum Toxin is an example of this.
• Enterotoxins – affects cells lining the intestine. The cholera toxin is an example of this.
What is the scientific name, type of bacteria, and characteristic of the Diphtheria toxin?
Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a gram positive rod, and is in a pallisades arrangement.
Define Transduction.
The transmission of genes from a virus to a bacterium
What are the two phases of corynebacterium diphtheriae?
• It first establishes itself in the throat – the local infection – and forms a membrane. This membrane causes fever, swollen lymph nodes, neck and pain. The removal of the membrane causes excessive bleeding.
• The second phase is when the bacteria in the membrane release their cytotoxin into the bloodstream. This targets many organs, primarily the heart, where it can cause myocarditis in the muscle cells. The cytotoxin causes paralysis as well. The cytotoxin is composed of two polypeptide chains: A for active (interferes with protein synthesis), B for binding.
What is the causative bacterium and type for Botulinum toxin, and what are some characteristics of it?
Clostridium Botulinum is a gram positive rod, which forms heat resistant endospores. They are obligate anaerobes, and grow best without competition.
Describe Infant Botulism.
Honey, a ripe media for bacteria, can cause infant botulism. Since clostridium don’t grow in an adult intestine because of all the other bacteria, the endospores simply are egested. In an infant under 1 years old, there is no competition and the bacterium can grow.
Describe the symptoms of Botulism.
• Paralysis for two weeks
• Double vision
• Difficulties in swallowing and speaking.
What are the physical effects of botulinum toxin?
• It disrupts the relationship between the motor neuron and the muscle at the neuromuscular junction.
• Normally acetylcholine is released at the synapse and crosses to the muscle and creates an impulse which stimulates muscle contraction.
• In botulism, the toxin enters the motor end plate and attaches to the presynaptic membrane. This blocks the release of the transmitter, preventing impulse transmission. This keeps the muscle from contracting.
What is the causative and type of bacterium for the Vibrio enterotoxin, and what are some symptoms for a patient infected?
• Vibrio cholerae is a gram postive curved rod with flagella.
• It causes severe diarrhea, and the patient loses 50 percent of their body weight, losign one liter of fluids every hour. They die within 48 hours from acidosis.
Describe the action of the cholera toxin on the body.
The bacteria stick to the lining of villi in the intestine, but do not enter the cell. They release their toxin and the Cholera Toxin (CT) action on the epithelial cells heightens the activity of an enzyme called Adenyl cyclase. This enzyme stimulates high levels of Cyclic Adenosine Monophosphate (CAMP). Higher concentrations of CAMP promotes the removal of anions by the cell membrane. Under constant action of CAMP the cell begins to secrete large quantities of chloride and bicarbonate ions into the intestinal lumen. This electrolyte loss results in water loss from epithelial cells, and the body experiences mass fluid depletion.
What is the function of Bicarbonate (CO3-)?
Bicarbonate is a buffer which utilizes hydrogen ions from a solution and neutralizing it – producing water and carbon dioxide. If it can’t, acidosis results: the high concentration of Hydrogen Ions.
What group of endotoxins affects cells lining the intestine?
Enterotoxins
What is the most potent toxin ever?
Botulinum toxin
Does clostridium botulinum form endospores?
Yes
Transmission of genes from a virus to a bacteria is called what?
Transduction
Double vision and paralysis are symptoms of what disease?
Botulism
What media is ripe with bacteria?
Honey
CO3 + H+ --> CO2 + H2O is the chemical formula for the action of what electrolyte?
Bicarbonate
What is Adenyl Cyclase?
An enzyme in the intestine which is stimulated by the Cholera Toxin, which in turn stimulates the levels of CAMP which promotes the removal of anions by the cell membrane, thus secreting electrolytes and water.
What is the diphtheria toxin composed of?
Two polypeptide chains: B for binding to a cell, and A, the active part which delivers a package of “good” news
What disease causes severe diarrhea?
Cholera
The category of exotoxins which interferes with the function of a cell is called what?
Cytotoxins
True or False: Difficulty in swallowing and speaking is a symptom of Botulism.
True
T/F: Diphtheria Toxin is a neurotoxin.
False, it is a Cytotoxin
T/F: High concentrations of CAMP stimulates the release of Chloride and Bicarbonate.
True
T/F: Cholera is pandemic and epidemic.
True
T/F: Clostridium botulinum grows under aerobic conditions.
False, Anaerobic.
T/F: Corynebacterium Dipththeria grows in palisades arrangements.
True
T/F: Vibrio Cholerae can be transmitted with contaminated water.
True
T/F: The local infection of Corynebacterium Diphtheriae is through the bloodstream.
False, it is in the throat
What are some characteristics of Endotoxins?
• They are part of the cell wall in gram negative bacteria (lipid A)
• They act the same way regardless of bacteria.
• They are released when the bacteria die, and the cell wall breaks apart.
• All endotoxins produce the same signs and symptoms
• They activate the blood-clotting proteins causing the formation of blood clots – leading to the disease DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Clotting)
How do Endotoxins cause fever?
The macrophage engulfs a gram negative bacteria, and ingests it with its lysozymes. The bacteria releases the endotoxin which induces the macrophage to release IL1 (Interleukin 1). IL1 is released into the bloodstream where it circulates and eventually ends up in the temperature control center, the hypothalamus. IL1 stimulate the hypothatlamus to release another chemical called prostaglandins (whose normal function is to reset the “thermostat”). The IL1 then raises the body temperature causing fever.
What is septic shock?
Hypotension due to fluid loss, causing death. It causes the dysfunction of organs.
What are the two factors produced by Macrophags which cause Septic Shock? What is the normal function of these factors?
• The Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF) normally released by macrophages is involved in the breakdown of tumor cells
• Nitric Oxide (NO) normally kills bacteria and cancer cells
How does NO cause septic shock?
Macrophages are stimulated to produce NO (through NO synthase enzyme) by endotoxins. The macrophages produce excess amounts of NO, which naturally relaxes smooth muscle. Blood vessels are affected, and this increases their permeability, causing fluid loss leading to septic shock.
How does TNF cause septic shock?
By over stimulation of the release of TNF by bacterial endotoxins, the TNF increases the permeability of blood vessels, causing fluid loss, leading to low blood pressure, leading to septic shock.
What are the four terms for frequency of a disease in a population?
Endemic, Sporadic, Epidemic, and pandemic
Define Sporadic.
Occasional cases are reported
Define and give an example of Pandemic.
A disease affecting an increased proportion of the population worldwide. Ie: HIV, and Influenza are examples
Compare Endemic and Epidemic. Give examples of each.
• Endemic is the number of cases reported in a local region – a native disease that prevails continuously geographically. For example, lime disease – where ticks are found.
• Epidemic is an increase in the number of cases of diseases in a community – a sudden outbreak. For example, Cholera, typhoid, tuberculosis.
Tyleonl and Aspirin lower prostaglandins. How does this affect fevers?
Prostaglandin activity raises fever. Lowering their activity will subdue the fever.
What organelles of a macrophage ingests bacteria?
Lysosymes
Why do endotoxins cause DIC?
They activate the blood-clotting proteins, causing the formation of blood clots
When are endotoxins released?
When the cell wall breaks apart, when the bacteria dies
What affect does NO have in the body?
It relaxes and dilates smooth muscle
When does interleukin 1 become harmful?
When in high amounts, stimulated by endotoxins. They eventually target the hypothalamus, and raise body temperature by increasing the activity of prostaglandins
An increase in the number of diseases in a community is called what?
Epidemic – a sudden outbreak
Hypotension and dysfunction of organs is characteristic of what condition?
Septic Shock
What enzyme produces NO?
NO synthase
True or False: An endemic is a disease affecting an increased proportion of the population worldwide.
False, Endemic is a number of cases localized natively to a geographic region. Pandemic is given.
T/F: Cholera is an example of endemic.
True
T/F: Cholera is an example of pandemic.
True
T/F: Exotoxins also produce the same signs and symptoms as Endotoxins.
False
T/F: Prostaglandins, stimulated by endotoxins, raise the temperature in the hypothalamus.
False, Interleukin 1 stimulates prostaglandins
T/F: Hypertension and dysfunction of organs is characteristic of Septic Shock.
False, Hypotension
T/F: Exotoxins act the same way regardless of bacteria, endotoxins do not.
False, Endotoxins act the same, Exotoxins do not
T/F: There are three factors which induce septic shock.
False, two: NO and TNF
T/F: Tuberculosis is an example of an Epidemic disease.
True
T/F: Occasional reported cases of a disease is termed Spastic.
False, Sporadic
T/F: You’re going to do well on the third midterm examination.
True, Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
Where is Clonorchis sinesis located in the human?
• The bile ducts of the liver
What helminth has a smaller female worm living in the ventral grove on the back of the male?
Schistosoma