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592 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Types of Adjuvants

Alum
Freund's adjuvant (emulsified bacterial products)
Incomplete Freund's (water in oil)
Ribi adjuvant (Squalene–Tween80, water, oil)
Titermax (copolymers POP and POE)
Strep Pyogenes superantigen toxin and disease
SEC2 ––> food poisoning
TSST ––> toxic shock syndrome
SPE–C ––> strep toxic schock syndrome
Super antigens bind _____ on TCRS and ____ on MHC
V–beta region of TCR on the CDR4 and outside the peptide binding groove on Beta2 region of MHC
Characteristics of epitopes recognized by
(1) B cells
(2) T cells
(1) B cells ––> linear determinants or tertiary, carbs/4–8 aa residues / nucleic acids

(2) T cells ––> linear only, amino acids only
(8–30 aa in length; MHC Class I 8–11, MHC Class II 10–30)
Examples of Conjugated vaccines and purpose
Prevnar 13 (pneumococcal)
Hib
MCV4–Menactra, Menveo (meningococcal)

T independent antigens linked to a carrier protein ––> triggers a T dependent response and memory
Examples of polysaccharide vaccines and purpose for testing
MSPV4 (menomune) ––> meningococcal vaccine
Pneumococcal vaccine 23 valent
Type of cell that recognizes each antigen
(1) Protein
(2) Polysaccharide
(3) Nucleic acid
(4) Lipids
(1) T cells and B cells
(2) Marginal zone B cells and B1 cells (T indpdt)
(3) CTLs and DCs (via TLR9)
(4) NKT cells (via CD1) and gamma–delta T cells
MHC Class I
(1) Expression
(2) Genes
(3) polypeptide chains
(4) CD restriction
(5) Peptide binding site
(6) Antigenic sampling
(7) Inducting cytokines
(1) Most nucleated cells
(2) HLA–A, B, C
(3) CD8 binds a3
(4) alpha chain (a1, a2,a3) and beta–2 microglobulin
(5) alpha 1 and 2 to peptides 8–11 aa
(6) intracellular
(7) IFN alpha, beta, gamma
MHC Class II
(1) Expression
(2) Genes
(3) polypeptide chains
(4) CD restriction
(5) Peptide binding site
(6) Antigenic sampling
(7) Inducting cytokines
(1) APCs (DCs, macs, B cells), thymic epithelia, activated T cells
(2) HLA–DP, DQ, DR
(3) CD4 binds beta–2
(4) alpha chain (a1, a2) and beta chain (b1, b2)
(5) alpha 1 & beta 1 to peptides 10–30 aa
(6) extracellular
(7) IFN gamma
Products of MHC Class III region
Complement (Factor B, C4a, C4b, C2)
Cytokines (TNF alpha, lymphotoxins alpha, beta)
Heat Shock Proteins
Products of MHC Class I region
HLA A, B, C and Class I–like proteins...
HLA E ––> NK cell recognition (via NKG2C for activation and NKG2A/B for inhibition)
HLA F ––> localize to ER and golgi, also protects fetus from rejection
HLA G ––> on fetal derived placental cells, protects fetus from rejection
HLA H ––> iron metabolism
Products of MHC Class II region
DP, DQ, DR
TAP1 and TAP2 ––> two subunits that transport antigen peptides into ER
Steps of MHC Class I pathway
1. New MHC–I stay in ER b/c of calnexin, calreticulin, ERP57, tapasin
2. cytoplasmic proteins degraded by proteasome (made up of subunits LMPs)
3. peptides transported to ER by TAP proteins
4. peptides loaded on to NEW MHC
5. MHC–I and antigen are transported to surface
How HSV and CMV avoid presentation
HSV blocks TAP transportation (prevents antigen binding with MHC–I)
CMV removes MHC–I from the ER
Steps of MHC Class II pathway
1. extracellular antigen endocytosed into phagosomes
2. Phagosome and lysosome fusion ––> degradation of proteins
3. new MHC–II made in ER and transported to phagolysosome. Binding cleft occupied by invariant chain (Ii)
4. Ii degraded, leaving behind CLIP
5. HLA–DM removes CLIP and peptides are loaded
6. MHC class II and peptide are transported to surface
MHC Class I deficiency features (name, mutation, sx, lab, tx)
Name: Bare lymphocyte syndrome
Common: Both aut rec
Mutation: TAP.
Sx: inopulm infxn, granulomatous skin lesions, necrobiosis lipoidica
Lab: low CD8, no MHCI
Tx: treat pulm infections like CF (airway clearance and chest PT)
MHC Class II deficiency features (name, mutation, sx, lab, tx)
Name: Bare lymphocyte syndrome
Common: Both aut rec
Mutation: TFs required for MHC expression (MHC2TA, RFX5, FRXAP, FRXANK)
Sx: diarrhea, HSM, incr LFTs, sclerosing cholangitis (Cryptosporidium), pulm infxn(PJP, encapsulated bacteria, HSV, RSV), meningitis
Lab: low CD4, reversed CD4:8, no HLA DR/DP/DQ on lymphocytes, hypogam, missing germinal centers
Tx: HSCT
AIRE function and mutation leads to...
Fxn: promotes expression of nonthymic antigens in the thymus.
APS (autoimmune polyglandular syndrome)
lymphocytes not deleted or tolerized to endocrine–related self–anteigens
Maintenance of Anergy in T cells requires...
Blockade of TCR signaling
Ubiquitin ligases (target proteins for degradtion)
Inhibitor costim (CTLA4 & PD–1)
DCs expressing self antigen w/o co–stim to maintain anergy
T cell selection fate depends on _____ and ______.
Three fates are _____ and require _______.
Concentration and affinity.
Strong affinity to self antigen ––> apoptosis
Weak affinity ––> positive selection ––> effector cells
Intermediate affinity ––> T regs.
T reg markers
T reg survival factors
T reg maintenance factors
CD4, CD25 (IL–2R alpha chain), FoxP3
IL–2, TGF–beta
IL–10, TGF–beta
IPEX syndrome (mutation, features
FoxP3 mutation
Autoimmune disorder with triad of watery diarrhea, eczema, endocrinopathy
Neg selection via apoptosis happens via these pathways
1. Bim (part of Bcl–2 family) ––> apoptosis via mitochondrial pathway
2. Fas ligand (CD95L) on T cells ––> interacts with Fas (CD95) on same cell or nearby cells ––> apoptosis via caspase system. If caspase/FAS absent ––> ALPS
Mechanism of peripheral B cell tolerance
chronic antigen recognition without T cell help ––> downregulates CXCR5 ––> inhibits B cell homing and B/T interaction ––> death
What types of nucleic acids are A, G, T, C?
A & G are purines. T&C are pyrimidines (along with uracil for RNA)
In COPD, histone deacetylation is increased/decreased?
Decreased deacetylation = increased gene expression.
SNPs and Disease: Fillagrin
Disease: Eczema
Gene: fillagrin
Function: epidermal barrier
SNPs and Disease: ORMDL3
Disease: Asthma
Gene: 17q12–21
Function: unknown
SNPs and Disease: CD14
Disease: Incr and decr Atopy/Asthma
Gene: 5q22–32
Function: LPS receptor
SNPs and Disease: CCR5
Disease: protects a/nonatopic asthma
Gene: 3p21–22
Function: chemokine receptor
SNPs and Disease: TLR7 and 8
Disease: Incr risk of asthma/AR/AD/specific IgE
Gene: Xp22
Function: pattern recognition receptor for viral ssRNA
SNPs and Disease: IL–13
Disease: Incr risk asthma, hyperreactivity, SPT responsiveness. Linked to singulair response.
Gene: 5q31
Function: Induces IgE secretion, mucus, collagen synthesis
SNPs and Disease: Beta–2 adrenergic receptor
Disease: Arg/arg ––> decreased albuterol response (v. gly/gly 16)
Gene: ADRB2
Function: adrenaline/noradrenaline receptor
SNPs and Disease: Type 1 transmembrane protein
Disease: Incr risk asthma and hyperreactive airway
Gene: ADAM33
Function: Cell–to–cell interactions
Histone __________ opens chromatin to allow transcription.
Acetylation (deacetylation represses expression)
An adult human makes ______ Ig every day
2–3 grams
How many constant regions do the different Ig isotypes have?
G, A, D ––> three Ch domains
M, E ––> 4 Ch domains
Omalizumab binds to....
Ch3 on IgE
Where do papain and pepsin cleave Ig?
Papain cleaves Ig above the hinge ––> two Fab (antigen binding) fragments and one Fc (crystallizable) ––> Fabs can bind but not crosslink

Pepsin cleaves below the hinge ––> F(ab')2 ––> can bind and crosslink

Neither fix complement or bind Fc receptor
Variable regions on Ig have ____ CDRs and which is most variable?
3 CDRs of 10 aa length,
CDR3 is most variable.
Glycosylation of Ig is ! for____
Conserved sites include____
(1) maintaining structural stability and effector functions (for IgG, binding Fc–gamma–R and C1q)
(2) Asparagine–297 on Ch2 of IgG
Decreased galatosylation is associated with...
Rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, Crohn's, TB,
This enrichment increases IVIG antiinflammatory properties
Sialic Acid
Which Ig form which ___–mers?
Monomers (all Ig)
Dimers (IgA)
Pentamers (IgM)
The IgG subclass with the shortest half life
IgG3
The Ig that fixes complement most efficiently
IgM
Rheumatoid factor is an _____ antibody against ___
RF is an IgM antibody against
Fc portion of IgG.
Ig super family consists of....
TCR, MHC, CD4, CD8, CD19, B7–1, B7–2, Fc receptors, KIR (Killer cell Ig–like receptor), VCAM–1

All 70–110 aa, and usu with disulfide loop.
Which Ig crosses the placenta
IgG
Which Ig has the highest plasma concentration
IgG
Which Ig has the highest total body concentration and daily production
IgA
What transports IgA across the mucosal epithelium
poly–Ig receptor (via transcytosis)
Ways Ig gets diversity...
Germline variation (diff inherited V, D, Js)
Combinatorial diversity (somatic recombination of V, D, Js)
Junctional diversity (+/– nucleotides at junctions)
Somatic hypermutation (point mut in V's in rapidly dividing lymphocytes, affinity maturation)
Receptor editing (changes in Ig specificity if self–reactive ab made)
Alternative Splicing is....
– splicing at different C regions to make membrane v. secreted Ig
– splicing at different location of IgM to make IgD (not conventional class switch).
Which cytokines induce which class switching for Ig?
G1 ––> IFN gamma, IL–4
G2 ––> IFN gamma, TGF beta
G3 ––> IFN gamma
G4 ––> IL4, 13
A ––> TGF beta, IL–5
M ––> n/a
E ––> IL–4, 13
D ––> n/a
Which Ig can activate complement
IgG1–3, IgM
Functions of Ig isotypes
IgG1 ––> Th1 response, opsonization, best at ADCC
IgG2 ––> antipolysaccharide. last to get to adult levels
IgG3 ––> opsonization
IgG4 ––> antipolysaccharide. Th2. Incr in IT.
IgA ––> mucosal immunity (A1 in serum/resp. A2 GI)
M ––> primary response
E ––> allergy. only ig that binds mast cells
D ––> B cell maturation marker. Function unknown.
Fc receptors for IgE (CD marker, affinity, cell distribution, function)
FceRI: high affinity, on mast/baso/eos, degranulation and ADCC
FceRII: aka CD23, low affinity, on neut/eos/monos, fxn unknown
Fc receptors for IgE (CD marker, affinity, cell distribution, function)
FcgRI: aka CD64, high affinity, macs/neut/eos, phagocytosis
FcgRIIa: aka CD32, low, macs/neut/eos/plt, poor phagocytosis
FcgRIIb: aka CD32, low, B, feedback inhibition of B cells
FcgRIIIA: aka CD16, low, NK/macs, ADCC
FCgRIIIb: aka CD16, low, neut/mac/eos, poor phagocytosis
Most important cytokine produced in activation of T cells (after TCR–HLA complex formed)
IL–2 (receptor CD25), T cell survival signal, stimulates clonal proliferation
What are the costim molecules/receptors/function?
(1) APC: CD80 (B7–1)/CD86 (B7–2) and CD28 on T ––> activates naive T cells (induces CD40L, OX40, CXR5, ICOS, CTLA4)
(2) APC: CD80 (B7–1)/CD86 (B7–2) and CTLA4(CD152) on T ––> T cell tolerance and Th1 devt
(3) APC: ICOS–L and ICOS on T ––> costim of effector T cells, class switching
(4) APC cD40 and CD40L on T ––> APC activation, germ ctr devt, class switch, stim AID for somatic hypermutation
(5) APC: PDL1/PDL2 & PD–1 on T –> neg regulation and cell death
Contents of tCR complex
TCR alpha/beta chains (or delta/gamma – not HLA restricted, don't need CD4/8)
CD3 (epsilon, gamma, delta, zeta chains)
CD4 or 8
TCR signaling pathway
HLA binds TCR, costim ––> SLAM (signaling lymphocytic activation molecule) binds SAP (SLAM associated protein linking SLAM to Fyn ––> Fyn associates with CD3 and Lck associates with CD4/8 and P–lates them ––> Zap70 binds to P on zeta chain, docks, P–lates LAT ––> LAT recruits adapter proteins
(1) Grb2–SoS ––> Ras GDP/GTP ––> MEK1 ––> ERK ––> ELK ––> Fox ––> AP–1 ––> IL–2
(2)PLC ––> DAG and IP3 ––> PKC ––> I kappaB ––> NFkappaB ––> IL2
(3) IP3 ––> Ca flux through CRAC (Ca release activated Ca chanel) ––> calmodulin ––> calcineurine ––> NFAT(TF for IL–2/IL4, TNF)
CD4 and CD8 bind which HLA, where?
CD4 ––> MHC 2, beta2
CD8 ––> MHC 1, alpha 3
Deficiency in SAP causes
X linked lymphoproliferative syndrome
Types of Src family kinaseas
Type of Syk family kinase
Type of MAP kinase
Lck, Fyn
ZAP70
ERK
B cell receptor signaling
BCR cross links and associates with IGa/Igb (similar to CD3) ––> lipid raft of Src family kinases (lyn, fyn, btk) P–late ITAMS ––> Syk docks and p–lates BLNK ––> activates Ras, RAC, PLC, BTK
– BTK ––> activates PLC ––> PIP2, IP3, DAG ––> NFkappaB pathway via DAG, NFAT pathway via IP3, AP–1 pathway via Grb2/SOs
Role of CD21 in BCR signaling
Signal enhancement from cD21 (CR2) if antigen opsonized by C3b ––> degraded to c3d which binds CD21 ––> brings CD21/CD19/CD81 complex into BCR ––> recruits Lyn and activates IP3 kinase
Cytokines of Innate Immune system
TNF, IL1, IL12, IFNa, IFNb, IL10, IL–6, IL15, IL18, IL–23, IL27
Chemokine Families (C, CC, CXC, CX3)
C
CC ––> Eos, Baso's, Mono ––> allergy
CXC ––> PMNs ––> Inflammation
CX3
Alternative pathway for complement
Baseline C3 tickover to c3b. C3b binds bacteria. C3b binds factor b ––> C3bB. Factor D cleaves B ––> C3bBb, stabilized by properdin.
Regulated by factor I mediated cleavage of C3b.
Factors H, MCP (CD46), and DAF (CD55) are cofactors
Classical pathway for complement
C1q binds Fc of Ig crosslinked by antigen. C1q asssociates with C1r serine proteases ––> cleave c1s proteins. C1s cleaves C4 and C2 ––> C4b2a = C3 convertase
C1 inhibitor blocks C1r and c1s.
C4b is bound by DAF, CR1, and C4bindingprotein to block cascade.
Factor I inactivates C4b into C4bi
Lectin pathway for complement
Absence of Ab!
MBL binds mannose on microbial polysaccharides. MBL binds MBL–assoc protease1 (MASP1 and 2) ––> cleaves C4 and C2 ––> C3 convertase C4b2a
Common path in all complement pathways
C3 cleaves C3 to C3b ––> C3b binds C3 convertase ––> C5 convertase (C3bBb3b in AP and C4b1a3b in CP/LP) ––> cleabes C5 ––> releases C5a and starts formation of MAC (C5b –8).
C9 siilar to perforin
S protein and CD59 block MAC formation
Chemotaxis of C5a and C3a
C5 a most potent mediator of basophil/cutaneous mast cell degranulation.
C5a chemotactic for neut/eos/monos/baso
C3a chemotactic for eos
ranking the isotypes in binding affinity for C1q
IgM>IgG3>IgG1>IgG2
CR3 or CR4 deficiency leads to...
LAD type 1 (due to rare mutation in beta chain CD18 common to CD11 and CD18)
CR1 (other name, ligand, function, deficiency disease, microbe that uses this receptor)
aka CD35
C3b, C4b, iC3b
regulates complement activation, phagocytosis, clearance of immune complexes
HIV
CR2 (other name, ligand, function, deficiency disease, microbe that uses this receptor)
aka CD21
C3d, iC3b, C3d
part of B cell co receptor
trapping antigesn in germinal center
EBV, HIV
CR3 (other name, ligand, function, deficiency disease, microbe that uses this receptor)
aka Mac–1, CD11b/CD18
iC3b, ICAM–1
Phagocytosis, leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells
LAD type I
TB, HIV, West Nile
CR4 (other name, ligand, function, deficiency disease, microbe that uses this receptor)
aka gp 150/95, CD11c/CD18)
iC3b
Phagocytosis
LAD type I
none
Cd46 (other name, ligand, function, deficiency disease, microbe that uses this receptor)
aka MCP
––
––
––
measles virus
Cd55 (other name, ligand, function, deficiency disease, microbe that uses this receptor)
aka DAF
C4b and capsid
regulates C3 convertase formation
PNH
echovirus and coxsackie virus
Cd59 (other name, ligand, function, deficiency disease, microbe that uses this receptor)
aka protectin
C5b–8 and C9
disrupts MAC formation
PNH
–––
What is C3 nephritic factor and what does it cause.
Autoantibody that stabilizes C3bBb and protects from degradation by factors H/I ––> unregulated C3 consumption
SLE, MPGN, partial lipodystrophy (fat loss in upper body due to gradient in factor D concentration which completes C3bBb formation)
What is anti–C1q antibody and what does it cause.
Autoantibody to C1q ––> activation of creatine phosphate pathway with immune complex deposition
Hypocomplemetemic urticarial vasculitis (HUVS) (tx with hydroxychloroquine)
Complement deficiency and disease:
(1) No CH50, AH50 ok
(2) CH50 ok, no AH50
(3) No CH50 and No AH50
(4) No CH50, AH50 or C3
(1) No c1q, C1r, c1s, c2 or c4
(2) No Factor B, D or properdin
(3) No C3, 5–9
(4) No Factor H, I
Disease and associated complement deficiency
SLE
MPGN
HUS
HAE
PNH
SLE ––> C1q, C1r, C1s, C4, C2, MBL
MPGN ––> C1q, C1r, C1s, C4, C2, C3, Factor H, Factor I, MCP
HUS ––> Factor H
HAE ––> C1 inhibitor
PNH ––> CD59 (MAC) and CD55 (DAF)
What is the bradykinin pathway
First simple way. Kallikrein cleaves LMW kininogen ––> lys–bradykinin. Cleaved by aminopeptidase ––> bradykinin.

Bradykinin binds B2 receptor

Contact Activation. Factor XII (HAgeman) binds neg charged surface ––> makes XIIa. Prekallikrein complexes with HMW kininogen, binds surface, gets cleaved by XIIa ––> kallikrein. Kallikrein digests HMW kininogen ––> bradykinin.
XIIa also cleaves XI to make XIa ––> coagulation

HSP90 and prolylcarboxypeptidase can also activated prekallikrein–HMWkininogen complex to make kallikrein.
What does C1 inhibitor inhibit?
What is it consumed by
Inmhibits factor XIIa and XIIf, kallikrein, factor XIa, and C1r & s.
Consumed by plasmin
Major enzyme responsible for bradykinin degradation
Kininase II (identical to angiotensin–converting enzyme)
In the bradykinin pathway, what receptors do factor XII and HK bind?
uPAR (urokinase plasminogen activator receptor)
cytokeratin 1
receptor for the globular head of C1q (gC1qR)
What are M cells
membranous cells that deliver antigens to peyer's patches (not APCs) by making a pocket where T/B cells can interact with antigen
REgions of the GI tract mucosa and their cells/functions
Epithelial: mostly CD8+ T cells. Also paneth

Lamina Propria: mostly mixed with activated CD4+ T. Also, epithelial, intraepithelial lymphs, activated B/plasma, Ts.

Peyer's: Mostly CD4+T. Also M

Other: Mac/mast/eos/B
How to T cells localize to the small intestine
alpha4Beta7 binding CCR9
MAdCAM–1
Intraepithelial lymphocytes (IELs)
where?
migration?
expression pattern?
Above basement membrane between epithelial cells

Migration by CCR9, or CCL25 & cD103 (E cadherin)

Express CD8alpha–alpha, common for activated mucosal T cells. Mostly effector cells
Intestinal immunity regulatory t cells
Th3 cells (subset of CD4+ that make TGFb)
TR1 (CD4 that make IL–10)
CD4+CD25+ T regs
CD8+ suppressor T cells
delta/gamma T cells
What cytokines trigger class switching to IgA
TGFb and IL–5
Main breast milk components
IgA, lysozyme, lactoferrin, TNF alpha.
Methods for detecting antibody mismatches
(1) Cross–matching. testing serum from recipient against cells from donor for RBC/HLA antigens. Absolute contraind.
(2) Donor–recipient matching: matching by HLA typing. Measure response of immunocompetetnt cells from recipient to antigens present on donor cells.
Types and Mechanisms of transplant rejection
(1) Hyperacute (<24h): from preformed ABO abs, HLA abs, complement. Neutrophils.
(2) Accelerated rejection (3–5d): Noncomplement fixing abs, NK, monos.
(3) Acute (6–90 d): T cells, antibodies.
(4) Chronic (>60d): Antibodies. (delayed type hypersensitivity)
Cytokines released in acute rejection
IL2, 4, 5, 7, 10, 15 TNFa, IFNg
Costimulation methods in transplant rejection for CD4+ and CD8+ T cells
4: Receptor ligand interactions
IL–1 and IL–6 on APCs


8: IL–2
Activation of CD4+ T cells (5 combos of ligand and receptor)
CD2 and CD58
CD11a/CD18 and CD54
CD5 and CD72
CD40L and CD40
CD28 and CD80/86
(T cell & APC)
Cyclosporine and tacrolimus (FK506) mechanism
Inhibits T cell and activation.
CSA binds cyclophilin ––> inhibition of calcineurin ––> blockade of NFAT activation ––> no transcription of IL2 ––> no T cell differentiation
Rapamycin mechanism
Inhibits T cell and activation

Rapamycin binds FKBP ––> binds and inhibits mTOR ––> blocks T cell prolif
Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) mechanism
Inhibits guanine nucleotide synthesis ––> stops T cell prolif
Azathioprine mechanism
Blocks lymphocyte precursors (less specific than MMF so higher toxicity)
Mechanism of Anti–CD3
Binds CD3 ––> promotes phagocytosis or complement mediated lysis of T cells
Mechanism of Anti–CD25 (alpha subunit of IL2R)
Blockade of IL2 binding to activated T cells expressing CD25 ––> prevention of T cell activation
Mechanism of corticosteroids
Block synthesis and secretion of cytokines from macrophages
Improved patient survival in cancer associated with...
TILs with a normal zeta chain. Usuall CD95+ (FAS)
Tumor immune inhibitors?
TNF ligands (FASL, TRAIL, TNF)
Cytokines (TGFbeta, IL–10, GMCSF, ZIP)
Small molecules (PGE2, epi, ROS)
Virally related products (p15E, EBI–3)
Tumor associated gangliosides – block IL–2 depdt prolif
What are KIR?
Inhibitor receptors on NK cell
Recognize MHC class I
Help scavenging for abnormal tumor cells
What are AMP?
Antimicrobial peptides.
Cationic proteins involved in innate immunity a/bacteria, fungi, viruses
Made by keratinocytes
Two families (defensins (HBD1,2,3), cathelicidins (LL37), Lactoferrins (hlF–11), Histatins
Interact with microbe membrane phospholipids, antiproliferative effects
What are PAMPs
Pathogen associated molecular patterns
Conserved microbial sequences
Ex: LPS (on gram neg bacteria), teichoic acid (GP)
Recognized by PRRs (pattern recognition receptors to detect infection
fMLP (full receptor name, location, class, structure, function)
Receptor: N–formyl Met–leu Phe receptors
Location: cell surface
Class: signaling
Structure: GPCR
Function: antibacterial
CARD (full receptor name, location, class, structure, function)
Caspase Activation and Recruitment Domains (ex: retinoic acid inducible gene I like receptors)
Location: cytoplasm
Class: signaling:
Structure: RNA helicase and caspase recruitment domains (part of inflammasome)
Function: cytoplasmic virus detection ––> type1 IFN production
CLR (full receptor name, location, class, structure, function)
C–type lectin receptors (MBL and macrophage mannose receptor)
Loc: cell surface
Class:secreted or endocytic
Structure: Ca dpdt carbohydrate binding domains
Fxn: antifungal
NLR or NACT–LRR (full receptor name, location, class, structure, function)
Nucleotide binding Oligomerization domains
Loc: cytoplasm
Class: signaling
Structure: C terminal leucine rich repeat and nucleotide binding domain (central proteins of inflammasome)
Fxn: IL–1b and IL18 secretion
TLR (full receptor name, location, class, structure, function)
Toll–like receptors
Loc: cell–surface cytoplasm (TLR3)
Class: signaling
Fxn: antibacterial/fungal/viral
Function of the inflammasome (associated diseases)
Located in cytoplasm, activates caspases 1 and 5 ––> production/secretion of IL–1 and IL–18

Activating mutations in Cold induced autoinflammatory syndrome (CIAS1), Muckle–wells, familial cold urticaria, CINCA
TLR 1 (ligand and source)
Lipoarabinomannan
Mycobacteria
TLR 2 (ligand and source)
Zymosan
Fungi
TLR 3 (ligand and source)
dsRNA
Virus
TLR 4 (ligand and source)
LPS, peptidoglycan, RSV fusion protein, HSP70, HSP90

Gram neg bacteria, gram positive bacteria, RSV, acute phase proteins
TLR 5 (ligand and source)
Flagellin

Flagellated bacteria
TLR 6 (ligand and source)
Diacyl lipopeptides

Mycoplasma
TLR 7 (ligand and source)
Imidazoloquinolones

Synthetic
TLR 8 (ligand and source)
ssRNA

Virus
TLR 9 (ligand and source)
Unmethylated CpG motifs

Bacteria and DNA viruses
TLR 10 (ligand and source)
Unknown
TLR 11 (ligand and source)
Profilin

Toxoplasma gondii
TLR 4 signaling MyD88 dependent pathway
TLR4 & MD2 ––> TIRAP ––> MyD88 ––> IRAK + TRAF6 ––> NEMO/IKKg + IKKa + IKKb ––> NFkB ––> into nucleus ––> transcription of inflammatory cytokines
TLR4 signaling MyD88 independent pathway
TLR4 & MD2 –> TRAM –> TRIF

––> TRAF ––> NFkB
––> RIP1 ––> NFkB
––> TBK1 + IKKe/i ––> IRF3
all lead to IFN beta transcription
What is in the TLR4 complex?
TLR4 (binds LPS via LPS binding protein)
MD2 (lymphocyte antigen 96)
CD14
Only TLR that never signals through MyD88
TLR3
TLRs or pathway involved in HSV1 encephalitis
TLR 3, 7, 8, 9
TLRs or pathway involved in aspergillosis
TLR4
TLRs or pathway involved in ADrenal insufficiency
TLR2 and 4
TLRs or pathway involved in Crohn's dsease or Blau's syndrome
NOD2
TLRs or pathway involved in Leprosy and TB
TLR2
TLRs or pathway involved in IRAK44 or MyD88 deficiency
Recurrent infections with pyogenic bacteria
All TLRs
PID with infectious and mycobacterial susceptibility ––> think ___
NEMO
Th9 cells:
induced by...
produce...
differentiation requires...
induced by TGFb
produce IL9 +/– IL4
differentiation requires IRF4 and PU.1
Th1 cells:
induced by...
produce...
TFs...
major function...
induced by IL–12, IL–27, IL–18
produce IFNg, IL–2, TNF
TFs are Tbet, STAT4, STAT1
major function is intracellular defense

also, express CXCR3 and CCR5. Associated with type I DM, and MS
Th2 cells:
induced by...
produce...
TFs...
major function...
induced by IL–4, IL25, IL–33, TSLP
produce IL–4, IL–5, IL–13, IL–6, 10, 21, 25, 31, 33
TFs are GATA3, STAT6, STAT5
major function is humoral immunity, antiparasitic, allergy
Th17 cells:
induced by...
produce...
TFs...
major function...
induced by IL–6, IL–1, IL–21, IL–23, TGFb
produce IL–17, IL1, 6, 21, 22, TNFa, GMCSF
TFs are RORgT, STAT3
major function is extracellular defense, neut recruitment, autoimmunity

Express CCR6, involved in rA< IBD, MS, psoriasis
Treg cells:
induced by...
produce...
TFs...
major function...
induced by TGFb and retinoic acid
produce IL–10, TGFb
TFs are FOXp3, STAT5
major function is immunosuppression, autoimmunity
Tfh cells:
produce...
TFs...
major function...
produce IL–21
TF: BCL–6 (causes downreg CCR7 and upreg CXCR5)
major funcion is helping B cells make abs in germinal ctr follicles
CTL cells:
produce:
TF:
major function
produce IFNg, TNF, lymphotoxin
TF is EOMES (eomesodermin homologs)
major function: kill virally infected and tumor cells using perforin and granzyme
gd T cells:
produce:
function
produce IFNg and TNF
function is to bind lipids and heat shock proteins
Natural T regs v. Induced T regs
Derived:
Expression:
Other features:
N: thymically in response to autologus Ag
I: peripherally in response to self and external Ag

N: consitutive IL–2Ra (CD25)
I: inducible IL2Ra (CD25)

N: FOXP3+, mediates self tolerance
I: types Tr1 (make IL–10 and ! in immunotherapy). Th3 (make TGFb, ! for IgA production)
Markers of NK cells
CD16 (FCgRIII)
CD56 (NCAM)
natural cytotoxicity receptors (NCRs)
killer inhibitory receptors (KIRS)
NKs don't epxress CD3
Markers of NK T cells
function
produce...
CD3+
CD16+
CD56+
usually CD4+

Function: recognize glycolipid in context of CD1
Produce IFNg and iL–13
Innate lymphoid cells
aka...
proliferate in response to...
produce...
function
aka ILC2 or nuocytes
proliferate in response to IL25, IL33
produce IL5, IL9, IL13
function: central role in type 2 mediated immunity
NK cell activating receptors (and ligands)
2B4 (binds CD48 on EBV infected cell)
NKG2D (binds MICA/B & ULBP on stressed cell)
NKp44/46 (binds viral hemagllutinin)
NKG2C (binds HLA–E on NK cell)
FCgRIIIA (binds IgG on target cell)
Inhibitory receptors
KIR (binds MHC class I)
NKG2A/B (binds HLA–E)
Where do B cells and T cells stay in the lymph node
What do they express to get there and what does that bind?
T cells in parafollicular zone, B cells in follicles

T express CCR7 which binds CCL19/21
B express CXCR5 which binds CXCL13
Early maturation of B and T cells requires this cytokine and if missing leads to this.
IL–7

SCID
VDJ recominbation occurs by recognition of ______ but only following _____ rule
recombination signal sequences (RSS)

12/23 rule (one segment flanked by 12 nucleotide spacer and the other by 23)
Enzymes involved in VDJ recombination and function
RAG 1/2 (cleaves dsDNA btwn coding and RSS)
Ku (binds DNA ends or makes hairpin)
DNA–PK and Artemis (open hairpin randomly)
TdT (terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase, adds nucleotides for junctional diversity)
Endonuclease (removes nucleotides for diversity)
DNA ligase IV & XRCC4: ligates DNA
B cell maturation order
Pro B cell
Pre B cell
Immature Naive B cell
Mature Naive B cell
Memory B cell or Plasma cell
Pro B cell markers and major event
CD19, CD20
heavy chain DJ and VDJ rearrangement
Pre B cell markers and major event
cytoplasmic mu chain
signaling through preB cell receptor
light chain VJ rearrangement
Immature Naive B cell markers and major event
IgM
Kappa/lambda binds mu heavy making igM
Receptor editing
Mature B cell markers and major event
IgM and IgD
Alternative splicing to express IgM and IgD
Memory B cell markers and major event
Isotype switching
Somatic hypermutation
Plasma B cell markers and major event
Alternative splicing to get Ig isotypes
Enzymes needed for class switching
AID
UNG
CD40
CD40L
TFs associated with B cell differentiation
PU.1
IKAROS
E2A
EBF
PAX5
IRF8
Peripheral B cell survival signals and the receptors
BLYSS
BAFF
APRIL

bind receptors on B cells
early: BR3 and TACI
late: BCMA
Mature B cell types
B1 cells (innate, similar to gamma–delta T, make natural abs for microbes and lipids, found in peritoneum & fetus, T indpdt)

Marginal zone B cells (present by 2 years, first responders esp polysaccharides, T indpdt)

B2 cells (memory and plasma, T dpdt)
T cell maturation
Immature DN T cells:
DN1, DN2 (DJ/VDJ recomb), DN3 (preTCR signaling), DN4 (prolif)
DP T cells (+ selection (cortex), – selection (medulla))
SP T cells
Leave lymphoid organs (S1P receptor)
Central memory T cells
Effector memory T cells
function of notch
commits T cells to develop
Central and Effector memory T cell markers
Central: CD45 RA–, CD27 +, CCR7+, CD62L+

Effector: CD45RA–, CD27–, CCR7–, CD62L–
Two types of lymphocyte apoptosis and associated molecules
Passive/Intrinsic Pathway:
– d/t neglect, Caspase 9
– BCL2 and bCL–XL are antiapoptotic
– BID/BIM are proapoptotic

Active/Extrinsic pathway:
– d/t repeated lymphocyte activation, Caspase 8
– fAS (cD95)/FasL(CD178) ––> FADD (fas assoc protein c death domain)
Monocyte markers
CD14, CD16
Macrophage
markers
growth factors
activated by
produce
Markers: CD14, CD11b/CD18 (Mac1), CD36

Growth factors: GM–CSF, M–CSF

Activated by: IFNg, LPS binding CD14

Produce: TNFa, IL12/18/1/6
Macrophage subtypes by location
Kupffer cells in liver
histiocytes in tissue
osteoclasts in bone
mesangial cells in kidney
alveolar macrophages in lung
Macrophages associated with... (diseases)
Granuloma formation in sarcoid, TB (promoted by TNFa)

Uncontrolled activation in HLH (common in boys with XLP and EBV infection)
XLP is due to ___ mutations
SH2D1A gene (encodes SAP protein)
HLH diagnosis
5 of 8 criteria:
Fever
splenomegaly
cytopenia with 2+ cell lines
hyperTGs or hypofibrinogenemia
Hemophagocytosis on BM bx
Hepatitis
Low/absent NK
Ferritin>500
CD25 (soluble Il–2R) >2400
Dendritic Cell subsets

What stimulates development
DC1 (myeloid/conventional)
DC2 (plasmacytoid)
Langerhans
Interstitial

GM–CSF, IL4
DC1
markers
precursor
function
Markers: CD1, CD11b/c, CD13, CD14
Precursor: Myeloid
Function: Phagocytosis and Antigen presentation
DC2
markers
precursor
function
Markers: CD1, CD11b/c, CD13, CD14
Precursor: Lymphoid
Function: Secretion of IFNa, assoc c viral infections
Langerhans
markers
precursor
function
Markers: CD11c, CD207, Birbeck granules (tennis racket shaped)
Precursor: Myeloid (CLA+)
Function:Prime CD8 T cells
Interstitial
markers
precursor
function
Markers: CD2, CD9, CD68
Precursor: Myeloid (CLA–)
Function: Activate B cells
Mast cells
derived from...
mature in...
types...
derived from pluripotent kit+ (CD117+) CD34+ stem cells

mature in the tissue (unlike baso/eos)

Types: MCt, MCtc, MCc
MCt mast cells
mediators:
location:
other features
Mediators: tryptase
Location: respiratory tract, intestinal mucosa
Other features: don't express C5aR (CD88), scroll like appearance, development is T dpdt, don't respond to opiates, C5a, C3a, vancomycin
MCtc mast cells:
Mediators:
Location:
Otherfeatures:
Mediators: Tryptase, Chymase, carboxypeptidase, cathepsin G
Location: skin, blood vessels, eyes, synovium, intestinal/resp submucoas
Other: Do express C5aR (cD88), whorled appearance, T cell indpendent development, respond to opiates, C5a, C3a, vanc
MCc mast cells
Mediators:
Location:
Chymase
Location: lymph nodes, intestinal submucosa, salivary glands
High Affinity IgE receptor
(name of receptor, structure, expressed on which cells, binding site for IgE)
Fc–episilon–RI
1 alpha chain (c Ig domains binding IgE), 1 beta chain (4 transmembrane domains, ITAM), 2 gamma chains (ITAMS, main signaling)
Found on mast cells, basophils, and in trimeric form (alpha and gamm only) on DCs/monos/eos
IgE binds alpha and signals via Lyn/Fyn/Syk.
Low Affinity IgE receptor
(name of receptor, structure, expressed on which cells, What cleaves from the cell surface)
Fc episilon RII (CD23)
C type lectin
On mature B cells, activated macs, eos, DC, plt
Der–p–! cleaves CD23 from the surface, increasing the production of allergen specific IgE
Mast cell activation methods (9)
IgE binding high affinity IgE receptor
IgG binding Fcgamma RI
bacterial antigens binding TLR 2/6 or 4
C3a/C5a anaphylotoxins (MCtc only)
cytokines
neuropeptides
physical stimuli (heat pressure)
substance P
drugs (contrast, opiods, muscle relaxants)
Mast cell response to stimulation (timeframe, mediators and cytokines
<15 min: preformed release (histamine, tryptase, chymase, TNF, heparin)
10–30min: lipid derived mediators ( PGD2, LTC4, LTB4, PAF)
hrs–days: cytokine/chemokine release (IL3,4,5,6,8,10,13, GMCSF, TNFa, MCP–1, MIP1a, RANTES (CCL–5))
List function for histamine
smooth muscle contraction
mucus production
vasodilation
gastric acid secretion
wakefulness
List function for tryptase
serine protease endopetidase
List function for Carboxypeptidase
peptidase for C terminal end of peptide
List function for chymase
serine (protease) endopeptidase
List function for Prostaglandin D2
increases vascular permeability
bronchoconstriction
platelet aggregation
chemoattraction
List function for LTC4 LTB4
increase vascular permeability
bronchoconstriction
Platelet activating factor
bronchoconstriction
vasodilation
platelet aggregation
Bsophil Growth
– where do they mature
– where do they end up
Key cytokine for differentiation
Mature in bone marrow
Found in blood and BAL
CD123 (IL–3 receptor) and IL3
Mast cell mediator that is both preformed and found in late phase of reaction
TNF
Basophil response to stimulation (timeframe, mediators and cytokines
<15 min: preformed release (histamine, chondroitin, MBP, charcot–leyden protein)
10–30min:lipid dervied mediators (LTC4)
min–days: cytokines (IL 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10, 13, GMCSF, TNFa, MCP1, MIP1a, RANTES, PAF)
Differences between mast cells and basophils (8)
Location: Mast tissues, Baso blood
Nucleus: Mast unsegmented, Baso bilobed
Granules: Mast more/small, Baso less/large
Tryptase: Mast has more
Chymase/Carboxypeptidase: only in Mast
LTB4/PGD2: only in mast
IL3 receptor: only in baso
C5a receptor: only in mast
Eosinophil granules and contents
Primary granules: Charcot–Leyden crystals
Specific/2ndary granules: preformed mediators – major basic protein (MBP), eosinophil cationic protein (ECP), eosinophil peroxidase, eosinophil derived neurotoxin
Eosinophil receptors
Fc receptors for immunoglobulins
Beta–2 integrins (CD11a–cCD18)
Beta–1 integrin (VLA–4)
Beta–4 integrin (alpha4beta7)
PSG1–1
Eosinophil growth/differentiation
– cytokines
– where it matures
–migration chemokines
– where they reside
–half life
differentiation/activation cytokines: GM–CSF, IL3, IL5
Matures in bone marrow (GATA1 TF !)
Migrate to tissue in response to RANTES (CCL–5), eotaxins (eostaxin–1, CCL–11, eotaxin–2, CCL24)
Resides in the tissue (lower GI, mammary gland, female reproductive tract, lymph tissue, 1–2% in blood)
Half life– 18hrs
Eosinophil functions (6)
Modulate immune response:
– release toxic granule proteins
– release reactive oxygen species
– release leukotrienes and prostglandins
– rleease cytokines (IL1,2,4,5,6,8,13,TNF)
Mammary gland development
Wound repair and tissue remodeling
Disorders associated with hypereosinophilia
Allergic disease/asthma
Rheum: Collagen vascular disorders, Kimura's dz, Churg–strauss vasculitis, Adrenal insufficiency (ADdison's dz)
Skin: Eczema, Pemphigoid
Resp: ABPA, eosinophilic pneumonia, LOeffler's syndrome,
GI: EoE
ID: HIV, parasites, Protozoa (isospora belli, sarcocystis) TB
Onc: Neoplasm (Hodgkin's lymphoma)
Other: Drug rxn,
Heme: Hypereosinophilic syndrome, mastocytosis,
Neutrophils:
Ig surface receptors
Cytokines for suvival/maturation
Chemokines:
Ig surface receptors IgG and IgA
Survival cytokines: IL–3, GMCSF, G CSF
Chemokines: IL8 (CXCL8)
Also, IFNg, fMLP, MIP–1, LTB4, C5a, Sialyl–lewix X, E/P selectins, LFA1/ICAM1
Neutrophil granules
Primary granules (azurophilic) – myeloperoxidase, defensins, elastase, lysozyme, cathepsin
Specific granules (secondary) – lactoferrin, cathelicidin, fMLP, CD11b
Gelatinase – fMLP, CD11b, lysoszyme, gelatinase
Secretory – fMLP, CD11b, alkaline phosphatase
Platelet:
surface receptors
Surface receptors for IgG and CD23
Thrombus formation
Endothelial damage ––> exposed collagen and vWF activate plts ––> plts release granules (contain ADP/ATP, Ca, serotonin, TGFb, plt factor 4, PDGF, vWF, fibrinogen) ––> arachidonic acid pathway initiated producing thromboxane A2 (activates more plts) ––> Plts clump with fibrinogen and vWF binding GP2b/3a receptor ––> cytokine release
Thrombocytopenia and associated diseases
Aplastic anemia
Bernard–soulier syndrome
Drug induced thrombocytopenia
Gaucher's disease
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
HELLP
Hemophilia
Hermansky–Pudlak
Wiskott–Aldrich
ITP (abs to GP2b3a)
TTP (abs to ADAMTS13)
von willebrand's disease
HIT (abs to PF4)
Epidermal layers:
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Stratum Basale
Stratum Spinosum
Stratum Granulosum
Stratum Lucidum
Stratum Corneum
Protein among the keratinized epithelial layers of skin
Transglutaminase
Skin adhesion moecules
e cadherins in desmosomes
integrins in hemidesmosomes
Pathogens that use epithelial receptors for infection
Rhinovirus ––> ICAM–1
Influenza ––> glycans
Adenovirus ––> integrins and CD80/86
How T cells home to the skin?
T cells express cutaneous lymphocyte angiten (CLA) and CCR4 and CCR10.
Binds CCL17 (TARC) and CCL22 (MDC) on keratinocytes
Airway epithelial cells make ______ in response to _____, which attacts monocytes and immature DCs to the lung
CCL2, CCL20

house dust mite inhalation
Epithelial cells produce ____ which activate DC's
TSLP, GMCSF, IL–25, IL33
Bronchial epithelial cells release ____ cytokines in response to allergen cells
IL–33 and other IL–1 family (Il1a, Il1b, IL36g)
In atopic dermatitis expression of ___ cytokines suppresses ____
IL–4, IL13
beta defensins and cathelicidin
In pemphigus vulgaris
direct IF shows ___
target antigen is ____
location is ____
Intercellular IgG and IgM (epidermal IgG/C3)
Desmoglein3
Desmosome
In pemphigus follacious
direct IF shows ___
target antigen is ____
location is ____
Intercellular IgG (epidermal igG/C3)
Desmoglein 1
Desmosome
In bullous pemphigoid
direct IF shows ___
target antigen is ____
location is ____
Linear IgG/C3 at BMZ
BP230 (BP Ag 1) or BP180 (BPAg2)
Hemidesmosome
In pemphigoid gestationis
direct IF shows ___
target antigen is ____
location is ____
Linear IgG at BMZ
BP230 (BP Ag 1) or BP180 (BPAg2)
Hemidesmosome
In dermatitis herpetiformis
direct IF shows ___
target antigen is ____
location is ____
Granular IgA in dermis
Transglutaminase
Subepidermal
In linear igA dermatosis
direct IF shows ___
target antigen is ____
location is ____
Linear IgA at BMZ
BP 180 (BPAg2)
Hemidesmosome
Autoantibody involved in typeI autoimmune hepatitis
IgG anti–SMA (smooth muscle antibody)
E–selectin
adhesion molecule location
ligand
ligand location
endothelium
Sialyl–Lewis X
Leukocytes
P–selectin
adhesion molecule location
ligand
ligand location
endothelium
sialyl–Lewis X
Leukocytes (preformed in platelets)
L–selectin
adhesion molecule location
ligand
ligand location
Leukocytes
Sialyl Lewis X on GlyCAM1 and MadCAM1
High endothelial venules
Integrins
adhesion molecule location
ligand
ligand location
Leukocytes
ICAM and VCAM
Endothelium
Hypersensitivity Reaction Type I
Key players, antigen, examples, main cytokines
Mast cells, basos, IgE
Soluble antigen
Ex: allergic asthma, rhinitis, anaphylaxis, food allergy
IL–4, IL13, sIgE
Hypersensitivity Reaction Type II
Key players, antigen, examples, what does it involve
IgG, IgM, complement, phagocytes
Cell/matrix associated
Ex: hemolytic anemia, goodpasture's disease, Grave's disease, myasthenia gravis
Antibody binding antigens on a target cell causing damage by cellular neutralization/blocking (MG), cytotoxicity (hem anemia), cellular stimulation (Grave's)
Hypersensitivity Reaction Type III
Key players, antigen, examples
Complement, IgG (Immune complexes)
Antigen soluble
Ex: SLE, glomerulonephritis, vasculitis, serum sickness
Hypersensitivity Reaction Type IV
Key players, antigen, examples
T cells

Ex: contact derm, psoriasis, celiac
Mediators in Type I hypersensitivity reaction and their roles
Kalleikrein ––> contact system (bradykinin?)
Tryptase ––> kallikrein activity activates contact/complement/clotting cascades
Platelet activating factor ––> clotting and DIC and mast cell activation
Heparin ––> inhibits clotting
Chymase ––> converts angiotensin I to II modulating hypotension
What is FcgRI (aka, function, ligand)
aka CD64
high–affinity phagocyte receptor
Binds IgG1 IgG3 (most efficient opsonins)
C3b receptors on phagocytes
CR1 (CD35)
What is antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity
NK cells bind to microbes coated with clustered igG
Binds via FcgammaRIII (low–affinity Fc receptor)
Nk cell secretes cytokines like IFNg, discharges its granules into a lytic synapse, and kills the cell
Isotype switching to IgA occurs where most efficiently and d/t which cytokines
most efficiently in mucosal lymphoid tissue
stim by TGFb and IL–5
How is IgG transported across teh placenta and infant gut lumen?
IgG specific Fc receptor (neonatal FC receptor FcRn)
resembles MHCI
Immune complexes formed at ______ form a lattice and are rapidly removed by ______
equivalence (ag=Ab)
mononculear phagocytes like Kupffer cells
Most pathogenic state for Type III hypersensitivity occurs in a state of ______ (Ag or Ab) excess
Moderate Antigen excess
Positively charged immune complexes tend to deposit ______
negatively charged basement membrane of skin and kidneys
Immune complex injury is associated with the release of _____ cytokines
Il1b, TNF, IL–2, IFN–g
What is an arthus reaction
Ag injected into skin/tissue ––>
local edema, neutrophil migration, hemorrhage, necrosis with peak intensity at 4–10 hrs (local type III affecting dermal blood vessels)
SLE – immune complex deposition in ____
associated with _____.
deposition in blood vessel walls and kidney glomeruli

low complement levles, hypergammaglobulinemia, presence of circulating ICs, autoantibody production
Subtypes of Type IV hypersensitivity: IVa
T cell involved
cytokines
other cells
target organs
ex:
T cell involved: CD4+ Th1
cytokines: IFNg, TNFa, IL2
other cells: macs, NK
target organs: skin, lung, GI
ex: contact derm, TB
Subtypes of Type IV hypersensitivity: IVb
T cell involved
cytokines
other cells
target organs
ex:
T cell involved: CD4+ Th2
cytokines: IL4, 5, 13
other cells: eos, B cells
target organs: skin, lung, GI
ex: chronic allergic disease
Subtypes of Type IV hypersensitivity: IVc
T cell involved
cytokines
other cells
target organs
ex:
T cell involved: CD4+ Th17
cytokines: IL17, 21, 22
other cells: neut
target organs: skin, lung, GI
ex: psoriasis
Subtypes of Type IV hypersensitivity: IVd
T cell involved
cytokines
other cells
target organs
ex:
T cell involved: CD8+
cytokines: –
other cells: –
target organs: skin, systemic
ex: contact derm
Typical agents causing contact derm (5)
nickel
quaternium–15 (cosmetics)
bacitracin
poison ivy (urushiol a hapten)
resin
Serum sickness usually presents ____ after exposure to drug
4–10 days (time to class–switch)
What is nephelometry
detection of Ig where turbidity is measured by pattern of scattered light.
works best in ag–ab equivalence
More sensitive than radial immunodefusion and works for 1–10 mcg/ml
What is radial immunodiffusion?
Antiserum mixed into a warm gel matrix, poored into flat plate. Ad antigen and watch for diffusion (precipitin line seen at zone of equivalence)
Can measure <10 mcg/mL
What is the Laurell Rocket method
Add sample to gel plates with antiserum, apply voltage. precipitin line occurs in rocket shape.
Quantitative/qualitative
If antibody excess _____
equivalence______
antigen excess______
(best tests)
ab excess: immunoblotting, ELISA
equivalence: radial immunodiffusion, double immunodiffusion, nephelometry
ag excess: radioimmunoassay, eLISA
What is double immunodiffusion?
aka ouchterlony method

holes in agarose gel, antigen in wells and serum in adjacent wells and look for precipitin line
What is ELISA
identify bound protein by an antibody, which is conjugated to a label. good in ab or ag excess.
detect signal using spectrophotometer, fluorometer, luminometer

direct assay: ag, primary ab conjugate
indirect assay: ag, primary ab, 2ndary ab conjugate
capture assay: capture ab, ag, ab, 2ndary ab
What is Western blot?
antibody excess assy for recognizing proteins through sds page gel, transfer to nitrocellulose membrane, add specific ab and secondary ab, and enzyme to get band

useful for: borrelia burgdorferi, HHV6/7, HIV, HTLV, prion, rsv, SARS, VZV, hepB, lyme
What is immunofixation electrophoresis
IFE measures immunodiffusion against an antiserum. through a gel

Good to confirm monoclonal gammothy (heavy/light chain class)
What is Immunocap method?
SAndwhich eLISA technique with fluorescent tag
Flow cytometry: HLA–DR is a marker of ....
CD4 or CD8 activation
Flow cytometry: CD25 is a marker of ....
activated T cells (regular expression)
T regs (high expression)
These mitogens in proliferation assay test cell surface signaling
PHA, PWM, ConA, anti–CD3 ab
These mitogens in proliferation assay bypass proximal signaling
phorbol ester (PMA)
calcium ionophore (ionomycin)
This mitogen has b cell proliferation activity along with T cell proliferaation
Pokeweed mitogen
What is DTH testing
Test for invivo T cell fxn using previously exposed antigen.
Candida, trichophyton, tetanus, mumps
Flow cytometry: CD19 is a marker of...
B cells (early–plasmablasts, not on plasma cells)
Flow cytometry: CD20 is a marker of...
pre–B cells and B cell blasts
Lack of switched and unswitched memory B cells.
markers?
disease?
unswitched (IgD+ CD27+)
switched (IgD–, CD27+)

CVID
Mitogens for B cell proliferation
Pokeweed mitogen, tetanus toxoid, SAC (staph aureus Cowan I)
Measuring NK function
perforin and granzyme B expression (defective in HLH)
expression of CD107a (marker of degranulation)
Chediak Higashi
sx
dx
Sx: neutropenia, recurrent skin/sinus/pulm infxn, oculocutaneous albinism, mitral regurg, neuropathy
Dx: giant granules on smear, mutations in LYST1q42
LAD1
sx
dx
Sx: recurrent infxn lung/GI/skin, poor wound healing, delayed umbilical cord separation, cigarette paper scarring

Dx: missing CD18 on flow (poor chemotaxis and leukocyte adhesion)
Rac2 deficiency
sx
genetic transmission
function
Ras–related C3 botulinum toxin substrate deficiency

Sx: simialr to LAD1 (infxn lung/GI/skin, poor wound heal, delay cord sep, cig paper scarring)
autosomal dominant
adhesion problems d/t RAC involvement in actin cytoskeleton regulation
What is the basophil activation test
Use IL–3 primed basophils, stim with allergens in vitro, measure LTC4, LTD4, LTE4 by ELISA
What is the cellular allergen stimulation test (CAST)
Quantitative measure of leukotriene release.
High sensitivity but low specificity for allergy to inhalants.
What is the flow cytometric basophil activation test (FAST)
Detects CD63 expression of basophils after allergen stimulation
This has high diagnositic efficiency for detecting stinging insect allergy
CAST and FAST
how do you measure interleukins and TNF
sandwich ELISA
how do you measure prostaglandins?
radioimmunoassay (RIA)
How do you measure TLR?
RT PCR on RNA samples
Flow cytometry
Functional study to test TLR1–9 production by RT–PCR, ELISA and flow
how do you measure Fas (CD95, or Apo1)
Flow cytometry for surface expression of Fas and FasL
ELISA for sFAS and sFASL
TUNEL reaction to measure apoptosis (labels tdt breaks)
how do you measure bradykinin
RIA
CD1
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
(five subsets CD1a–e
CD1a aka Leu6

APCs

Ig superfamily (binds B2 microglobulin)

Presents lipid Ag to T cells
CD2
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
LFA2, e rosette receptor

early T and NK cells

Ig superfamily

Binds LFA3 (CD58) on APC, activates T's, cytokine, T & APC adhesion, blocks apoptosis of activated T's
CD3
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka –

T cells, plasma cells, macs (NOT ON NK)

Ig superfamily, delta, epsilon, g, z, chains

required for TCR expression/signal transduction
CD14
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka LPS receptor

Macs and monos

pattern recognition receptor

Detects lipotechoic acid (gram +), LPS (gram – , mycobac, fungi), IL–12 & IFNg produxn
CD16 (A)
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka FcgR3A, low affinity IgGR

NK, granulocytes, macs



ADCC
CD16 (B)
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka FcgR3B, low affinity IgGR

Neutrophils

Most common IgG FcR

Phagocytosis
CD18
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka Beta2 chain

neut, mac, monos, NK

combines with alphaL(in LFA1/CD11aCD18), alphaM (in MAC1 &CR3/CD11bCD18), alphaX (in p150,95 & CR4/CD11c/CD18)

adhesion/signaling. defect ––> LAD1
CD19
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka –

preB cells, B cells, follicular DCs

co receptor with CD21

B cell ontogeny and activation
CD20
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka L26, MS4A1

B cells (after CD19 expr), follicular DCs

transmembrane phosphoprotein (like Ca influx channel protein)

B cell activation/signaling
CD21
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka CR2, C3d receptor, EBV receptor

Mature B cells and follicular DCs



Binds EBV, HHV8, C3d, CD23. CD21loBcells associated c CVID class Ia
CD22
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka Bcell adhesion molecul (BL–CAM)

B cells



Blocks B cells
CD23
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka low affinity IgE receptor (FceR2)

activated mature B cells, follicular DCs

type C lectin

Bcell ontogeny & activation
CD25
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka IL2 Ralpha chain

activated B's and T's



Suppress self reactive T's & NKs, prevent CTL, cytolysis, elevated in HLH
CD27
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka TNFRSF7

memory B's

TNF receptor superfamily

Bcell activation/Ig prodxn
CD31
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka PECAM–1

endothelial cells, plt, monos, macs

Ig superfamily

cell adhesion and binds CD38
CD32
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka FcgR2 (types a, b, c,)

WBCs



Binds Fc of IgG to remove foreign antigens. binds IVIG
CD34
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function


adult hematopoietic stem cells



adhesion moelcul and binds CD62L
CD35
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka CR1, C3b and C4b receptor

WBCs



Binds immune complexes coated with C3b, C4b. Cofactor for factor I mediated cleavage
CD40
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka TNFRSF

APCs



T cell dpdt Ig switching, B cells, defective in HIGM3
CD44
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function


activated B's and T's

surface glycoprotein

cell adhesion
CD45
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka leukocyte common antigen (LCA)

naive T's (RA) and memory/activated Ts (RO)

protein tyrosine phosphatase

defective in SCID
CD46
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka membrane cofactor protein (MCP)

all cells (no RBCs)



cofactor for factor I–mediated cleavage, adenovirus receptor
CD49
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka very late antigen (VLA a–f)

WBCs



receptor for fibronectin, VCAM, other cell adhesion
CD52
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka CAMPATH1 antigen

mature lymphs



target for Campath (alemtuzumab) used for CLL
CD54
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka DAF (decay accelerating factor)

Hematopoeitic cells, epithelial cells, cell matrix



Binds C3bBb & C4b2a to accelerate C3 convertase decay. Deficient in PNH
CD58
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka LFA3

WBCs



Binds CD2 and adhesion
CD59
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka protecting, complement regulatory molecule

all cells



binds C8 or C9 and blocks MAC formation
CD62 (E)
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka E selectin, ELAM1, SELE

endothelium



ligand for CD15s, CD44, CD162. leukocyte rolling. defect ––> LAD2
CD62L
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka LECAM1, SELL, L selectin

T, B, Nk

Lymphocyte homing to HEV of lymphnode. cinbds CD34, CD15s, MAdCAM–1
CD62P
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka PADGEM, SELP, P selectin

plts, activated endothelial cells (membranes of weibel–palade bodies)


binds CD162, rolling on activated endothelial cells. Defect ––> LAD2
CD64
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka FCgR1, high affinity IgG receptor

APC (macs, neut, eos)



ADCC
CD95
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka Fas, Apo–1, TNFRSF6

activated B's and T's



apoptosis when ligated by FasL. Defect––>ALPS
CD106
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka VCAM1

expressed on endothelium, fibroblasts, resp epithelium


cell adhesion molecule for VLA–4 (a4b1), a4b7 (act–1, LPAM–1)
CD154
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka CD40L, TRAP

T cells



REgulate B cell fxn, Defect ––> XHIGM
CD158
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka KIR, (KIR2DL, NKG2A)

NK & T


Binds HLA class I, inhibits Nk or T cytotoxicity
CD159
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka NKG2a

NK


modulates NK killing
What is OKT3
monoclonal antibody clone
recognizes human CD3 in treatment of solid organ transplant rejection and T cell ALL.
Induces activation then apoptosis of T cells causing immunosuppression
CD162
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka P–selectin glycoprotein ligand–1 (PSGL–1)

myeloid cells, activated T cells



adhesion with endothelial cells
CD178
– aka
– expressed on
– structure
– function
aka cd95 ligand, FASL

activated CTLs



apoptosis fas–expressing cells
Types of receptors required by phagocytic cells
mannose receptors
scavenger receptors
toll–like receptors
opsonin receptors
Molecules missing in LAD
CD18, part of...
– CD11a/CD18 (LFA–1)
– CD11b/CD18 (Mac–1)
– CD11c/CD18 (p150/95)
Respiratory burst: Contents of NADPH oxidase system
p22 phox
p40 phox
p47 phox
p67 phox
gp91 phox
rac
Describe respiratory burst
NADPH oxidase converts O2 to superoxide ion ––> superoxide dismutase converts superoxide ion to hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
1. MPO uses h2o2 to turn CL– and Br– into hypochloraite and hypobromite to kill bacteria
2. iNOS uses NO + h2o2 –> perioxynitrite radicals
3. Perioxidase uses h202+Fe––> hydroxyl radicals
CGD is due to _____ which results in infections with __________ organisms (ex: ______).
Mutations in NADPH genes

Catalase–positive organisms

Staph aureus, serratia marcescens, Pseudomonas, Salmonella
Old test for CGD
Nitro blue tetrazolium (NBT) reduction test
– qualitative
– mix neuts with NBT and stim with phorbol myristate acetate
– normal neuts reduce NBT and change color from yellow to blue
New test for CGD
Dihydrorhodamine 123 (DHR) oxidation test
–quantitative and distinguishes X–linked and autosomal and carriers
– DHR uptake by phagocytes and oxidized to green fluorescent compound by NADPH
– measure fluroescence with flow
Another test for CGD (but not main)
chemiluminescence assay
– uses scintillation counter to detect light from interaction of ROS with ingested microorganisms
– more sensitive than NBT
–can't distinguish different types
– if pts have CD11/CD18 deficiency ––> normal chemiluminescence with soluble stimulators but delayed after opsonized particles
X linked CGD is due to mutation in ______
gp91 phox
Autosomal recessive CGD is due to a mutation in ____
gp47 phox
What is a hybridoma?
Cell fusion of antibody producing B cell and myeloma cel ––> used to make monoclonal antibodies
– myeloma cells must lack Ab prodxn and hypoxanthine–guaninephosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT) so that can stop growth in HAT medium
How are hybridomas made
Immunize mouse with antigen, remove spleen cells making ab ––> use PEG to fuse (spleen cells that have HGPRT gene but don't express) with myeloma cells (lacking Ab and HGPRT gene) ––> take misture o hybrid cells, unfused myeloma and unfused spleen ––> transfer to HAT where only hybridomas survive ––> select hybridoma that makes AB to Ag and clone it.
Monoclonals antibodies that end in –omab:
mouse v. human type
means of synthesis
– 100% mouse

– completely made in mouse with murine variable and constant regions

mOuse
Monoclonals antibodies that end in –ximab:
mouse v. human type
means of synthesis
– Chimera. 30–35% mouse

– Combines murine variable with human constant region to avoid production of human antimouse antibodies

miXing human and mouse
Monoclonals antibodies that end in –zumab:
mouse v. human type
means of synthesis
– Humanized (<10% mouse)

– murine hypervariable or CD regions with rest human Abs

humans at the Zoo are humaniZed
Monoclonals antibodies that end in –umab:
mouse v. human type
means of synthesis
– Human (no mouse)

– clone human variable regions into bacteriophage, expressed as a fusion protein on vell surface, multiplied in bacteria and select phage with desired Ag spcificity

hUman
What does –cept indicate?
Fusion proteins created by joining 2+ genes that were originally coded for separate antibodies
What does –mab indicate?
monoclonal antibody
Nomenclature of product source identifiers:

a, e, i, o, u,
xi
axo
xizu
rat, hamster, primate, mouse, human
chimera
rat/mouse
humanized and chimeric
Abciximab
– target antigen molecule
– application
Integrin alpha2beta3

cardiac ischemic complications
Adalimumab
– aka
– target antigen molecule
– application
– AE
– testing after taking
Humira
TNFalpha
RA, ankspond, Crohn's, psor arthr, psor, JIA
Injxn rxn, URI, TB, malig, hepB, demyelinating dz, cytopenias, heart failure, lupus
TB annually, watch for heart failure, LFT, no live vaccines
Alemtuzumab (Campath)
– target antigen molecule
– application
CD52

CLL
Basiliximab
– target antigen molecule
– application
– AEs
IL2 receptor alpha chain (CD25)

transplant rejection

N/abdpain, constipation, UTI/URI
Belimumab
– target antigen molecule
– application
B cell activating factor

SLE
Bevacizumab
– target antigen molecule
– application
Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

colorectal cancer
Brentuximab vedotin
– target antigen molecule
– application
CD30

anaplastic large cell ymphoma (ALCL), Hodgkin's lymphoma
Canakinumab (ILaris)
– target antigen molecule
– application
– AE s
– precautions
IL–1beta

Cyropyrin associated periodic syndrome (CAPS)
injection site reaction, incr infection, TB reactivation, malignancies
eval for latent TB, avoid live vaccines, watch lipids
Cetuximab (ERbitux)
– target antigen molecule
– application
Epidermal growth factor receptor

Colorectal cancer, head and neck cancer
Certolizumab pegol
– target antigen molecule
– application
– AE
– testing after taking
TNF alpha
Crohn's disease, RA
serious infxn, malignancie, CHF
TB annually, watch for heart failure, LFT, no live vaccines
Daclizumab
– target antigen molecule
– application
– AEs
IL–2 receptor alpha chain (CD25)

transplant rejection
Denosumab
– target antigen molecule
– application
RANK ligand

postmenopausal osteoperosis, osolid tumor bony mets
Eculizumab (Solairis)
– target antigen molecule
– application
Complement system protein C5

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)
Efalizumab (Raptiva)
– target antigen molecule
– application
CD11a

Psoriasis
Gemtuzumab
– target antigen molecule
– application
CD33

AML
Golimumab
– target antigen molecule
– application
– AE
– testing after taking
TNF–alpha

Rheum arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis
URI, serious infxn, TB, fungal, hep B reactivation, lymphoma, CHF, demyelinating dz, cytopenia
TB annually, watch for heart failure, LFT, no live vaccines
Ibritumomab tiuxetan
– target antigen molecule
– application
CD20

Non hodgkin's lymphoma
Infliximab
– aka
– target antigen molecule
– application
–AEs
– testing while taking
Remicade
TNF alpha
RA, Ankspond, Crohn's/UC, Psor arthritis, psorsis
acute rxns, infxns, TB, sepsis, T cell lymphoma
TB annually, watch for heart failure, LFT, no live vaccines
Ipilimumab (MDX–101)
– target antigen molecule
– application
CTLA–4

Melanoma
Keliximab
– target antigen molecule
– application
CD4

Multiple sclerosis
Mepolizumab
– target antigen molecule
– application
IL–5

Hypereosinophilic syndrome
Murmonab–CD3 (OKT3)
– target antigen molecule
– application
T cell CD3 receptor

transplant rejection
Natalizumab
– target antigen molecule
– application
alpha 4 chain of integrin molecule

multiple sclerosis
Ofatumumab
– target antigen molecule
– application
CD20

CLL
Omalizumab
– target antigen molecule
– application
FceR1

Asthma
Palivizumab (Syangis)
– target antigen molecule
– application
RSV F protein

infants with BPD
Panitumumab
– target antigen molecule
– application
epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFr)

colorectal cancer
Ranibizumab
– target antigen molecule
– application
vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF–A)

macular degeneration
Rituximab
– target antigen molecule
– application
CD20

autoimmune diseases, B cell lymphomas
Tocilizumab
– target antigen molecule
– application
anti–IL6R

Rheumatoid arthritis
Tositumomab
– target antigen molecule
– application
CD20

Non–hodkin's lymphoma
Trastuzumab
– target antigen molecule
– application
ERbB2

Breast cancer
Etanercept
– aka
– target antigen molecule
– application
– AEs
– testing after taking
– aka enbrel
–TNF alpha antagonist (and TNF beta)
–Fusion of TNFreceptor with IgG1 Fc segment (adds stability and deliverability)
–RA, psoriatic arthritis, ank spond, plaque psoriasis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis
– mild inject rxn, infection, sepsis, neuro/heme/malig
–TB annually, watch for heart failure, LFT, no live vaccines
How do normal host cells prevent immune complex activation?
factor H and I inactivate C3b to iC3b inhibiting IC formation
How are ICs eliminated
After IC formation, C3b binds ICs, and then binds CR1 on RBCs. RBCs go to the liver and spleen ––> Macs eliminate the ICs
IC Mediated diseases
SLE (DNA, nucleooproteins, others)
serum sickness (various ag)
post–strep glomerulonephritis (strep cell wall ag)
polyarteritis nodosa (HBV surface ag)
cryoglobulinemia (Hep C virus, RF)
Laboratory testing for circulating ICs
–C1q, C4b, C3b
–Conglutinin (binds iC3b)
–Raji cell (Burkitt's cell line with receptors for C1q, C3b, C3bi, C3d, and ICs bind to RAJI cells which can be detected by antihuman IgG)
–C1q binding assay (radiolabeled C1q binds cicurlating ICs)
Most common cause for low complement
Poorly handled specimen, repeat the test
How is AH50 tested?
Measure lysis of unsenitized rabbit RBCs
How is CH50 tested?
Measure lysis of sheep RBCs, sensitized with rabbit IgM
How is MBL pathway function tested?
Measured by ELISA. Coat wells with mannan and incubate with patient serum. Measure activation by prodxn of C4b and C4d
Difference between acquired v. hereditary complement defects
Acquired has low complement and hereditary has absent complement.

Acquired usually has multiple low components, while hereditary usually only has one.
Component split product testing
– purpose
– types
Purpose: to detect if activation has occurred (which may be masked by decreases in complement components from consumption)
–C4a/d ––> classical or lectin
–Bb ––> alternative pathway
– C3a, iC3b, Ca, soluble Cb–9 ––> terminal pathway activation
Predictor of severe disease and poor outcome in lupus nephritis
C3 and C4
Total deficiency of C3 associated with _____
membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Difference between HAE and Acquired AE
HAE has low C1 inh level and/or function (except type 3) but normal C1q

AAE has low inhibitor, function, and low C1q.

Both have low C4, which can be used as a screening test.
C1q autoantibody associated with ____
Hypocomplementemic vasculitis
C1 inhibitor autoantibody associated with ____
Some patients with acquired angioedema
C3 nephritic factor associated with
SLE (some pts)
Dense deposit disease (MPGN type 2)
partial lipodystrophy
Low TRECS seen in
SCID
22q11 deficiency
down syndrome (in newborns)
HIV infection
RT PCR can be used to diagnosis____
genetic diseases
studying RNA viruses (influenza A and HIV)
In situ hybridization used for diagnosis of...
ALL
DiGeorge
Down's
B cells originate in _____
Mostly bone marrow
Also fetal liver and neonatal spleen
Growth factor produced by stromal cells in bone marrow and thymus, required for B and T cell development
IL–7
After negative selection, where do B cells go
Migrate from bone periphery, to central sinusoid along reticulum processes. Enter the central sinus and blood vessels to get to secondary lymphoid tissues
Thymus is formed from _____
endoderm and mesoderm of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouche
Thymic zones
Sub capsular zone
Cortex
Medulla
What does the subcapsular zone contain
most primitive lymphocyte progenitors
What does the cortex of the thymus contain
small lymphocytes undergoing division, expression, and selection of T cell receptors
What does the medulla of the thymus contain
lymphocytes undergoing final stages of selection/maturation
Hassall's corpuscles (granular cells surrounded by epithelial cells)
Most T cells go to the thymus for maturation, but some migrate to ____.
cryptopatches, tiny mucosal lymphoid aggregates under the intestinal epithelium to form specialized T cell populations
Anatomy of the lymph node
Afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels
Capsule (outermost layer)
Subcapsular or marginal sinus (where afferent lymphatics drain)
Cortex (contains B cell rich follicles and T–cell parafollicular areas)
Medulla (less dense, lymphs, macs, plasma cells, granulocytes)
HIgh endothelial venules
Spleen contains ______ of total blood lymphocytes and is mostly ______ pulp (___%)
25%

red pulp (80%)
Spleen has no afferent/efferent lymphatic supply
No afferent.
Lymphocytes come in through splenic artery vasculature and out through efferent lymphatic vessels
Splenic anatomy
Periarteriolar lymphid sheath (inner region of white pulp with T cels)

B cell corona (surrounds PALS and B cell follicles)

Splenic artery, (branches along trabeculae of capsule)
Sinuses and their drainage
sinuses listen to the following radio channels
FM AM PS SS

Frontal sinus, Maxillary sinus, Anterior ethmoids drain into the Middle Meatus

Posterior ethmoids, Sphenoid sinus drain into Sphenoethmoidal recess above the Superior turbinate
Paranasal sinus absent at birth
Frontal sinus
From a coronal view:
sinus at the top
fleshy part in middle
fleshy part in bottom
sinus at the bottom
Ethmoid sinus
Concha bullosa
Inferior turbinate
Maxillary sinus
From a sagittal view
sinus in hte middle
sinus in the back
posterior ethmoid sinus
Sphenoid sinus
Infections to middle ear travel from nasopharynx via ____
pharyngeal ostium of eustachian tube
tympanic membrane is innervated by ____ which only perceives ______
auriculotemporal nerve

pain
Asthmatic sputum contains...
Curschmann's spirals (mucus corkscrews)
Creola bodies (epithelial cell clusters)
Charcot–Leyden crystals: eos and granule membrane lysophospholipase
Eos
Metachromatic cells
Asthma v. COPD
– surface epithelium
– reticular basement membrane
– bronchial mucous cells
– bronchial smooth muscle
– mucus histochemistry
– cellular infilatrate
– cytokines
A: Fragile; C: not fragile
A: thickened/hyaline; C: normal
A: poss metaplasia; C: Meta/hyperplasia
A: enlarged in large airways; C: small airways
A: no change; C: Incr acidic glycoprotein
A: CD3/4/25+, marked eos/mast; C: CD3/8/ 68/25+; VLA–1+ HLADR+, mild eo, incr mast
A: hyperinflation, airwayplug; C: mucus, small airway involvement, prominent emphysema
Epidermal cells
Keratinocytes
Melanocytes
Langerhan's cells
epidermal lymphocytes (mostly CD8+)
Cytokines and receptors produced by keratinocytes
MHCII proteins
IL–1
antimicrobial peptides
TSLP
RANKL
Langerhans' cell histiocytosis
pathophys:
sx:
clonal proliferation of langerhans' cells (immature DCs)

fever, lethargy, wt loss, multifocal orga involvement (bone, skin, BM, LN, endocrine, lungs)
Layers of the basement membrane (dermoepidermal junction)
Lamina lucida (extracellular part o hemidesmosomes)
Lamina densa (collagen IV and laminin network)
Sublamina densa (anchoring fibrils, collagen VII)
Cells in Dermis
Fibroblastas
Mast cells
Macrophages
Dermal dendritic cells
Dermal T cells
Fibroblasats secrete
eotaxin (if stim by IL–4)
IL–1
IL–6
Dermal dendritic cells
–labeled by
express
labeled by factor XIIIa
express DC–SIGN/CD209+, CD1b, CD1c, CD11c
Dermal T cells express a carbohydrate epitope called _____ involved in _______.
CLA–1 (cutaneous lymphocyte antigen)

homing to the skin
Pemphigus Vulgaris
– presentation
– serum abs
– tissue immunofluorescence
Flaccid>tense bullae, crusting, Nikolsky's sign (scalp, chest, intertriginous areas, oral mucosa)

IgG autoAbs to desmoglein 1 and 3

Epidermal IgG and C3 cell surface staining of suprabasal layers
Pemphigus foliaceous
– presentation
– serum abs
– tissue immunofluorescence
Superficial bullae, erosions, scale with crusting, Nikolsky's

IgG autoAbs to desmoglein 1

Epidermal igG and C3 cell surface staining of granular layer
Paraneoplastic pemphigus
– presentation
– serum abs
– tissue immunofluorescence
flaccid bullae, lichenoid/EMultiforme like lesions, affects mucosa, Nikolsky's

IgG autoAbs to plakin proteins, desmoglein 1, 3

Epidermal igG and C3 cell surface and basement membrane zone staining
IgA pemphigus
– presentation
– serum abs
– tissue immunofluorescence
pustules, erythema, flaccid lakes of pus

IgA autoAbs to desmoglein 3, desmocollin 1

Epidermal IgA cell surface staining
Bullous Pemphigoid
– presentation
– serum abs
– tissue immunofluorescence
tense>flaccid bullae, pruritus, Nikolsky's (10%)

IgG autoAbs to BP180, BP230

Linear basement membrane zone IgG and C3
Cicatricial pemphigoid
– presentation
– serum abs
– tissue immunofluorescence
Erosions, rare vesicles or bullae, scarring sequelae

IgG autoabs to integrins, BP180, laminins

Linear basement membrane zone IgG and C3
Herpes gestationis
– presentation
– serum abs
– tissue immunofluorescence
tense bullae, 2nd tri pregnancy, pruritis

complement fixing, basement membrane zone and epidermal. AutoAb to BP180

Linear basement membrane zone C3
Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
– presentation
– serum abs
– tissue immunofluorescence
Tense bullae, erosions, scarring (often at sites of trauma or oral mucosa)

IgG autoAb to collagen VII

Linear basement membrane zone C3 and IgG
Linear IgA bullous dermatosis
– presentation
– serum abs
– tissue immunofluorescence
tense bullae, oral involvement

IgA autoab, LABD97, LAD–1

LInear basement membrane zone IgA
If suspected immunobullous disease always get _______
2 biopsies
one shave bx of intact vesicle/bulla for H&E
one perilesional tissue for Immunofluorescence
Dermatitis herpetiformis
– presentation
– serum abs
– tissue immunofluorescence
small bullae on elbows/knees, pruritic, assoc with celiac

IgA autoAb to epidermal transglutaminase

Granular basement membrane zone IgA with stippling in dermal papillae
Bullous lupus erythematosus
– presentation
– serum abs
– tissue immunofluorescence
Tense bullae, photo distributed

IgG autoAb to collagen VII

Linear basement membrane zone IgG; may show granular IgM and c3 basement membrane zone
Which condition (pemphigus vulgaris, bullous pemphigoid, or dermatitis herpetiformis) is the most likely to show a positive Nikolsky's sign?
pemphigus vulgaris
Which condition(s) (pemphigus vulgaris, bullous pemphigoid, or dermatitis herpetiformis) are extremely pruritic
bullous pemphigoid, dermatitis herpetiformis
In pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid, what two molecules react with antigens in the basement membrane zone?
Immunoglobulin G and C3 complement
Autoimmune skin disease: SLE
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern
– Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens
– direct IF of tissue
peripheral, homogenous, nucleolar, speckled

nDNA/dsDNA, ssDNA, histones, nucleolar RNA, ribonucleoproteins, cardiolipin, Sm (smith), U1–snRNP, HMG–17

2+ granular Ig/complement deposits at basement membrane zone (IgG, M, and/or A with c3) in involved & uninvolved skin.
Autoimmune skin disease: Discoid lupus
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern
– Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens
– direct IF of tissue
No abs circulating

non detected

2+ granular Ig/complement deposits at basement membrane zone (IgG, M, and/or A with c3) in involved
Autoimmune skin disease: Subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern
– Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens
– direct IF of tissue
Speckled

SS–A (Ro) and SS–B (La)

particulate intercellular staining with/without granular immune deposits at basement membrane zone
Autoimmune skin disease: Neonatal lupus
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern
– Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens
– direct IF of tissue
Speckled

SS–A (Ro) and SS–B (La)

Granular igG (transplacental) at basement membrane zone
Autoimmune skin disease: Drug induced lupus
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern
– Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens
– direct IF of tissue
peripheral homogenous

Histones

granular immune deposits at basement membrane zone
Autoimmune skin disease: Cutaneous scleroderma
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern
– Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens
– direct IF of tissue
Peripheral

SCL–70, SS–A(Ro), SS–B(La)

no characteristic changes (occ vascular staining)
Autoimmune skin disease: Limited Scleroderma (CREST)
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern
– Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens
– direct IF of tissue
Centromere

centromere, SCL–70, U1–snRNP, HMG17


no characteristic changes (occ vascular staining)
Autoimmune skin disease: Progressive systemic sclerosis
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern
– Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens
– direct IF of tissue
Nucleolar speckeled

SCL–70, U1 and U3–snRNP, fibrillarin, RNA pol I, II, III

no characteristic changes (occ vascular staining)
Autoimmune skin disease: Dermatomyositis, polymyositis
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern
– Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens
– direct IF of tissue
Speckled, nucleolar

Jo–1, PM–SCL, MI–2, U1–snRNP, SS–a (Ro)

no characteristic changes (occ vascular staining and lichenoid features)
Autoimmune skin disease: SJogren's
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern
– Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens
– direct IF of tissue
fine speckled, nucleolar

Ss–A (Ro), SS–B (La), histones, and U1–snRNP

no characteristic changes (occ vascular staining)
Autoimmune skin disease: Mixed connective tissue disease
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern
– Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens
– direct IF of tissue
speckled

U1–snRNP and PM–scl

no characteristic changes (occ vascular staining, granular deposits at BMZ, lichenoid features)
What are defensins?
– cytokines that stimulate synthesis
antimicrobial peptides in the skin, abundant in neutrophil granules, that kill bacteria and fungi

IL–1 and TNF stimulate increased synthesis
What do M cells in the GALT do?
Microfold cells have microvilli that help in antigen sampling
How do lymphocytes reach and leave the GALT
reach via high endothelial venules (HEV)

leave via efferent lymphatics
Which cytokines are implicated in the pathogenesis of EoE
IL–5 and Eotaxin 3
Endoscopy findings associated with EoE
greater than 15 eos/hpf while on PPI x 4–8 weeks
linear furrows
white papules/plaques
concentric rings
How to screen for celiac?
tTG IgA level and serum IgA
Celiac is due to sensitivity to_____.
gliadin (alcohol soluble portion of fluten)
CEliac disease causes the following histopathologic findings.
Loss of intestinal villi
crypt hyperplasia
llymphocytic infiltrate
CEliac disease symptoms
malabsorption, chronic diarrhea, steatorrhea, abdominal distension, flatulance, weight loss, failure to thrive,
In absence of GI sx: oral ulcers, dermatitis herpetiformis
What is Type I error?
When you falsely reject the null hypothesis (think something is significant when it is not), alpha
What is Type II error?
When you fail to reject the null hypothesis, when it is actually false (think there's no difference when there actually is) (beta)
What is the odds ratio?
Odds that you were exposed give you have the disease/ odds that you were not exposed given that you don't have the disease
What is the relative risk
Ratio of the risk of disease among people who are exposed / risk among people who are not exposed
What is sensitivity?
Likelihood of testing positive if you have the disease
What is specificity
Likelihood of testing negative if you do not have the disease
Clinical Evidence Ratings (I, II–1, II–2, II–3, III)
I: 1+ good RCT
II–1: 1+ good controlled trial (no randomization)
II–2: cohort/case–ctrl
II–3: time series
III: opinion, descriptive studies, expert committee reports
Clinical recommendations (A, B, C, D)
A: good scientific evidence, benefits> risks
B: fair scientific evidence, benefits > risks
C: fair scientific evidence, benefits = risks
D: fair scientific evidence, risk > benefits
I: lacking evidence, cannot assess risk/benefit
Belmont report principles
respect for persons (autonomy)
beneficience
justice
Elements of informed consent
competence
disclosure
understanding
voluntariness
consent
What symptoms of allergic rhinitis are caused by these mediators?
histamine:
PGD2:
leukotrienes:
kinins:
histamine: itch, sneeze, rhinorrhea
PGD2: nasal congestion
leukotrienes: nasal congestion
kinins: nasal congestion and/or blockage
Immediate allergic response in AR due to _____ cells and ______ mediators
Mast cells
preformed mediators (histamine, tryptase, kinins like kallidin and bradykinin)
newly formed mediators (PGD2, LTC4, D4, E4)
Late allergic response in AR due to ______ and ____ mediators
BAsophils, eosinphils, infiltrating lymphocytes (esp Th2 CD4+)

Il3, IL4, IL–13, GMCSF, stem cell factor, eotaxin, RANTES (CCL5)
Differential for non allergic rhinitis
NARES
Vasomotor
Meds
Atrophic
Hormonal
Infectious (cold)
Occupational (flour in bakers, latex HCWs, pet dander)
Misc (anatomic, tumor, systemic dz, CSF rhinorrhea)
Vasomotor rhinitis
triggers:
treatment:
triggers: irritant, gustatory, cold, temp, strong scents (tobacco, perfume, cleaners)
treatment: intranasal ipratropium
NARES
sx:
tx:
stands for nonallergic rhinitis with eosinophilic syndrome

Sx: AR sx, eosinophilia on nasal smear in absence of incr IgE, middle aged adults, nasal polyps (may be prodrome to AERD)

Tx: intranasal steroids
Atrophic Rhinitis
– features
– tx
Non inflammatory usu in middle–aged and elderly, but also females at onset of puberty
Sx: nasal congestion, nasal pain from dryness, nasal crusting, foul smell
Tx: nasal saline irrigation, topical abx
Medication induced rhinitis – common meds
ASA, NSAIDS,
decongestants (rebound)
alphablockers,
beta blockers, anti–HTN
ACEIs
OCPs
sildenafil
intranasal cocaine or methamphetamine
Hormone induced rhinitis
– typical situations
– tx
OCP, pregnancy, menstrual, hypothyroid

steroids don't help rhinitis of pregnancy
For CSF rhinorrhea, usually have history of ______ and you should check _____.
Trauma

Beta2–transferrin
How does nasal congestion or rhinorrhea develop in hypothyroidism?
TSH increases edema in turbinates
Common pathogens for acute bacterial sinusitis (and less frequent pathogens).
Common: strep pneumo, Moraxella catarrhalis (100% beta lactamase positive), Haemophilus influenzae (50% beta lactamase positive) ––> need b–lactamase inhibitor

Less common: Staph aureus, group A strep, anaerobes
Diagnosis of Acute Rhinosinusitis
2 Major or 1 major and 2 minor

Major: purulent rhinorrhea, nasal congestion/obstruction, facial congestion, facial pain, fever, hyosmia/anosmia

Minor: headache, ear pain/pressure, bad breath, dental pain, fatigue, cough
Gravity cannot drain this sinus
Maxillary sinus
Treatment of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis
1. Augmentin x 10–14 d peds (5–7 d adult)
2. PCN allergic: Fluoroquinolone or doxy

high resistance to macrolides and bactrim
Definition of recurrent sinusitis
>=4 episodes in 1 year ––> eval for underlying inflammation, allergy, immunodeficiency, or anatomic abnormalities
Chronic rhinosinusitis
– duration
– diagnosis
>8–12 weeks
>=2 symptoms (nasal obstruction/congestion, facial pain/pressure/fullness, purulent anterior/posterior rhinorrhea, hyposmia/anosmia) for >12 weeks + documented inflammation (purulence/edema in middle meatus, polyps, imaging)
Chronic rhinosinusitis
– workup
quantitative immunoglobulin and pneumococcal titers
ciliary function tests
sweat test
HIV
sinus puncture with cultures
Inflammatory mediators in chronic rhinosinusitis
IL–1beta, Il–6, IL–8
_______ is a risk factor for chronic rhinosinusitis
Haller cell (a pneumatized ethmoid cell that blocks the ostiomeatal complex)
Treatment for chronic rhinosinusitis
ABx if acute
Treat underlying conditions (AR, GERD, AERD, CF)
Topical nasal steroids
Surgery if complications or medical tx failure
Complications of sinusitis
orbital cellulitis
subperiosteal abscess
cavernus sinus thrombosis
meningitis
subdural/epidural brain abscess
osteomyelitis
mucocele
CRS with nasal polyps
– differences from CRS without
Increased incidence of ...
anosmia
dustmite sensitization
eosinophils on biopsy
asthma
AERD
allergic fungal rhinosinusitis
LESS facial pain
Inflammatory mediators in CRS with and without polyps
CRS without NP: IL–3, GM–CSF, PGE2

CRS with NP:Il–5, IgE, eotaxin

Both: Eosinophil cationic protein, LTC4/D4/E4/B4, Lipoxin A4
Recurrent acute otitis media is defined as...
>=3 episodes in 6 months OR
>=4 episodes within 1 year (with 1 in last 6 months)
Otitis media with effusion can result in
– hearing loss (leading cause, usu 25 dB)
– language delay
Treatment of otitis media with effusion
3–month exams with baseline hearing test, until resolution or hearing loss documented

If structural damage, recurrent OME, or hearing loss ––> surgery (myrigotomy +/– tubes, adenoidectomy)
Extracranial complications of otitis media
TM perforation
Chronic acute otitis media
Labyrinthitis or vestibular disturbance
Mastoiditis
Facial paralysis
Subperiosteal abscess
Intracranial complications of otitis media
Meningitis
Brain abscess
Sinus thrombosis
Epidural abscess
Subdural empyema
Complications of otitis media with effusion
Hearing loss
TM retraction
Cholesteatoma
Allergic conjunctivitis is marked by ______ of the conjunctiva
limbal sparing
Best treatments for allergic conjunctivitis
H1 receptor antagonists and mast cell stabilizers (olopatadine, ketotifen, azelastine)
Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
– features
– epidemiology
– Tx
– sight threatening, bilateral chronic conjunctival inflammation, severe photophobia, intense itching, papillary hypertrophy, ptosis, thick/ropey discharge, HornerTrantas dots
– young atopic males living in warm/dry climate
– Allergen avoidance (occlusive eye tx), high dose pulse topical steroids, mast cell stabilizers (cromolyn), oral antiH, abx/steroid ointments
Atopic keratoconjunctivitis
– features
– epidemiology
– treatment
– sight threatening bilateral chronic conjunctival/eyelid inflammation, with chronic pruritus and burning. loss of vision from keratitis, coneal infiltrates, scar, keratoconus, cataracts
– teenagers/young adults with hx atopic derm
– allergen avoidance, transient topical corticoseteroid, cromolyn or dual acting meds (h1 blocker and mast cell stabilizer)
Gian papillar conjnctivitis
– features
– epidemiology
– treatment
– chronic bilateral inflammation with foreign body intolerance. Ocular itching after lens removal, AM mucus, photophobia, lens intolerance
– affects 20% of contact lens wearers, many with allergy
– reduce contact lense wearing
Sight threatening conditions
acute glaucoma
scleritis
iritis
uveitis
herpes simplex keratitis
Red eye danger signs (concerning for sight loss)
photophobia
blurry vision
severe pain
colored halos
abornmal pupil size
ciliary flush
New onset dermatitis in adult with no history of childhood eczema, asthma, allergic rhinitis ––> consider ______
cutaneous T cell lymphoma (requires a skin biopsy)
_____ % of patients with atopic dermatitis will develop asthma.
>50%
Atopic dermatitis has two types of Ag presenting dendritic cells
Langerhans cells
inflammatory dendritic epidermal cells (IDECs0
These chemokines are specific for Atopic dermatitis (3)
Cutaneous T cell attacting kemochine (cTACK) and CCL27 and thymus and activation regulated chemokine (TARC)
Deficienciy in ____ expression in the setting of atopic dermatitis, results in impaired killing of _____.
hBD–3 (defensin)
S. Aureus
a ________ polymorphisms that results in impaired expression has been associated with severe atopic dermatitis with frequen bacterial infections
TLR2–gene
Loss of function variants of filaggrin results in atopic dermatitis that is
earlier onset
more severe
persistent
increased risk of assthma
Cytokines involved in early acute atopic dermatitis
IL–4, IL–13
Cytokines involved in chronic atopic dermatitis
IL–5, IL–12, IFN gamma
Cells involved in atopic dermatitis
T cells (CD3+, cd$+, CD45RO, CD25+, HLADR+)
Langrehans cells
Inflammatory dendritic epidermal cells
Eosinophils
Langerhans cells that express Fc epislon RI lack _____ and cotain ______ granules
beta chain

Birbeck
IDECs, once activated by FcepisilonRI, stimulate _____ to produce ____, leading to a switch from ____ to _______.
naive T cells

IFN–gamma

Th1

H2
Filaggren is expressed _______ (in the nose and lungs)
In the anterior vestibulum of the nose
Which has more FceRI expression: Langerhans cells or IDECs
IDECS
Extrinsic v Intrinsic atopic dermatitis
– aka
– differences
– similarities
– aka Atopic eczema (70–80%) v. Nonatopic
–Diff: Atopic has IgE mediated sensitization, incr production of IL–4, 13, 5
– Same: eosinophilia, IL–10 plays immune modulating role
Anterior cataracts are associated with _____, Posterior cataracts are associated with ____.
atopic keratoconjunctivitis
Prednisone
Common organisms of infections in the setting of atopic dermatitis
S aureus
HSV
molluscum contagiosum
Pityrosporum orbiculare (aka malassezia furfur)
Pityrosporum ovale
Diff'l Diagnosis of atopic dermatitis:
Chronic dermatoses (5)
Netherton syndrome (congenitally acquired scaly dermatitis with short brittle bamboo hair)
Seborrheic dermatitis (areas with sebaceous glands)
Contact dermatitis
Nummular eczema (demarcated edges, limb)
Lichen simplex chronicus (response to Incr rubbing)
Diff' Diagnosis of stopic dermatitis:
Other categories
Infxn: Scabies, HIV associated
Malignancy: Cutaneous T cell lymphoma (adult)
Immune deficiency: Wiskott Aldrich, SCID, Hyper–IgE, IPEX, Dock8
Metabolic: Zinc, Pyridoxine (VitB6 & niacin), Multiple carboxylase, PKU deficiency
Proliferative – Letterer–Siwe disease
eDescribe Zinc deficiency
aka acrodermatitis enteropathica
perioral rash
necrotic areas around nose
infant with eczema who doesn't respond to steroids
Describe pyridoxine deficiency
aka Vit B 6 and niacin deficiency
seizures
irritability
cheilitis
Describe multiple carboxylase deficiency
infant with skin rash
alopecia
lethargy
Describe phenylketonuria
pale pigmentation
blue eyes
scleroderma
if untreated ––> mental retardation
Describe letterer–Siwe disease
Infants with anemia
thrombocytopenia
lymphadenopathy
histiocytic infiltration of liver, spleen, lymph nodes
What is eczema vaccinatum and what deficiency can contribute to it?
Eczema in the setting of smallpox vaccination.

Deficiency of LL–37 antimicrobial peptide
Hallmark of fatal asthma
neutrophilic accumulation
Proinflammatory processes in asthma
upregulation of adhesion molecules
arachidonic acid metabolite production (LTB4)
Chemokine synthesis (IL–8, MCP1, RANTES)
Cytokine secretion (IL–1b, 4,5,9,10,13,16, TNFa, IL–6, GMCSF, TGFb)
oral vitamin D induces the production of this peptide in atopic invidiuals
Cathelicidin
Genetic factors associated with asthm
Chromosome 5q, IL–4 gene cluster (polymorphism ––> incr IL–4 transcription, Beta2 gene polymorphisms)
Cd14 (polymorphism ––> high CD14, incr recognition of LPS)
Chromosome 20p13 (locus for ADAM33 ––> role in smooth muscle hyperreactivity)
Chitinase like proteins
Differential for asthma
COPD
CHF
PE
mechanical obstruction (tumor)
GERD
Bronchiectasis
Lower resp tract infection
VCD
Asthma Predictive Index
One of major:
– parental asthma
– MD dx atopic dermatitis
– sensitization to aeroallergens

2+ minor:
– food sensitizaiton
– >4% eos
– Non URI wheezing
For children <4 years old, use long–term control therapy for asthma if...
4+ wheezing (>1 d and affected sleep) with + asthma predictive index
Pts needing sx treatment >2d/week x >4weeks
Pts requiring oral steroids 2/6months
Periods of incr risk (URI season, pollen)
Asthma terms:
Impairment
Risk
SEverity
Control
Impairment = freq/intensity of sx and fxnal limitation of patient
Risk = likelihood of exacerbation
Severity = intesity of disease (assessed prior to longterm control meds)
Control = exten to which asthma is ctrled by tx
% of astmatics with GERD
45–65%
Samter's triad
asthma
nasal polyps
aspirin sensitivity 91–2 hours after ingestion)
Diagnosing exercised induced bronchospasm
>15% decrease in FEV1 after exercise challenge test
Asthma in pregnancy
1/3 worsen, 1/3 improve, 1/3 stay the same
preferred SABA albuterol, preferred ICS budesonide
Assessing Asthma Severity: Risk
0–4y
5–11y
12+
Exacerbations requiring oral steroids:
0–4y: intermittent = 0–1/year, rest=2+/6 mo or 4/1 year + risk factors for persistent asthma
5–11y: int/mild=0–1/y; mod/sev=2+/y
12+y: int/mild=0–1/y; mod/sev=2+/y
Assessing Asthma Control: Risk
0–4y
5–11y
12+y
exacerbations requiring steroids:
Well ctrl: 0–1/year
Not well ctrl: 2–3/year
Poorly ctrl: 3+/y (2+ for 12y+)

Should consider:
Tx related AEs
Progressive loss of lung function
Assessing Asthma Severity: Impairment – Symptoms and SABA use (same for both)
0–4y
5–11y
12+y
Int | Mild | Mod | Sev
0–4: 0–2d/w | 2+ d/w | daily | 2+/day
5–11: same
12+: same
Assessing Asthma Severity: Impairment – Nighttime awakenings
0–4y
5–11y
12+y
Int | Mild | Mod | Sev
0–4: 0 d/m | 1–2 d/m | 3–4 d/m | 1+/w
5–11: 0–2d/m | 3–4 d/m | 1+/wk | daily
12+: same
Assessing Asthma Severity: Impairment – lung fxn
0–4y
5–11y
12+y
Int | Mild | Mod | Sev
(listed FEV1, FEV1/FVC)
0–4: N/A
5–11: >80,>85 | >80,>80 | 60–80, 75–80 | <60,<75
12+: >80, nl | >80, nl | 60–80, –5% | <60, >–5%
must know normal ratio for age:
8–19: 85%; 20–39: 80%; 40–59: 75%; 60–80: 70%
Assessing Asthma Severity: Impairment – inerference with normal activity
0–4y
5–11y
12+y
Int | Mild | Mod | Sev
0–4: none | minor | some| extreme ltd
5–11: same
12+: same
Assessing Asthma Severity: Treatment
0–4y
5–11y
12+ y
Int | Mild | Mod | Sev
0–4: 1 | 2 | 3 +/– steroids| 4 +/–steroids
5–11: 1 | 2 | 3 +/– steroids| 3/4 +/–steroids
12+: 1 | 2 | 3 +/– steroids| 4/5 +/–steroids
Asessessing Asthma Control: Impairment Sx and SABA
0–4y
5–11y
12+y
Well Ctrl | Not well ctrl | Poorly ctrl
0–4: 0–2 d/w | >2d/w | 2+/d
5–11: same
12+: same
Asessessing Asthma Control: Lung Function
0–4y
5–11y
12+y
Well Ctrl | Not well ctrl | Poorly ctrl
0–4: N/A
5–11: >80, >80 | 60–80, 75–80 | <60, <75
12+: FEV1 only: same #s
Asessessing Asthma Control: Impairment Nighttime awakening
0–4y
5–11y
12+y
Well Ctrl | Not well ctrl | Poorly ctrl
0–4: 0–1/m | >1/m | >1/w
5–11: same
12+: 0–2/m | 1–3/w | 4+/week
Asessessing Asthma Control: Impairment: Activity interference
0–4y
5–11y
12+y
Well Ctrl | Not well ctrl | Poorly ctrl
0–4: none | some | extremely
5–11: same
12+: same
Asessessing Asthma Control: Treatment
0–4y
5–11y
12+y
Well Ctrl | Not well ctrl | Poorly ctrl
0–4: maintain/stepdown if >3m | step up 1 | 1–2 +/– steroids
5–11: same
12+: same
ASsessing Asthma Control: Questionnaires
Only for 12+ y:

ATAQ: 0 | 1–2 | 3–4
ACQ: <0.75 | >=1.5 | N/A
ACT: >=20 | 16–19 | <=15
Testing for occupational asthma?
Methacholine challenge (decrease in 50% of the amount of methacholine required to drop FEV1 by 20%)
Time to sensitization for laboratory workers
2 years (longer for flour workers)
Allergic rhinitis precedes occupational asthma for ____ agents
HMW (protein/polysaccharide agents) not LMW (chemical agents)
Occupational asthma: Plicatic acid
LMW
Western red cedar mill, carpenters, woodworkers
Occupational asthma: Isocyanates
LMW
Body shop, spray paint, insulation, roofers, auto industry
Occupational asthma: acrylates
LMW
nail salon workers
Occupational asthma: Platinum salts
LMW
Welder, metal/chemical workers
Occupational asthma: potassium dichromate
LMW
Welder, metal/chemical workers
Occupational asthma: ammonium persulfate
LMW
Hairdressers
Occupational asthma: phthalic anhydride
LMW
adhesives, epoxy resin, paint, plastics
Occupational asthma: trimellitic anhydride
LMW
plastics, paint
Occupational asthma: Amines
LMW
Shellac, Lacquer, plastics, Cleaners
Occupational asthma: formaldehyde
LMW
Hospital workers, laboratories
Occupational asthma: beta–lactam agents
LMW
Drug industry workers
Occupational asthma: animal proteins
HMW
lab workers, vets
Occupational asthma: crab/lobster
HMW
seafood handlers
Occupational asthma: flour (wheat, soy dust)
HMW
Baker
Occupational asthma: Wheat, coffee, tobacco dust, psyllium, latex
HMW
Baker/textiles
Occupational asthma: enzymes (amylase, lipase, pectinase)
HMW
Baker/pharmaceuticals
Increases the risk of TDI OA
HLA DQB1*0503/0201/0301
Increases the risk of occupational asthma in general
HLA DR3, DR7
Increases the risk of diisocyanate occupational asthma
Glutamine S transferase (GSTP1) enzyme defects
Most common causes of occupational asthma
Plicatic acid, isocyanates, wheat flour, latex
Smoking is a risk factor for sensitization to____
Platinum
Complement is activated by this occupational asthma trigger
plicatic acid
What is reactive airway dysfunction syndrome (rADS)
aka irritant induced asthma
nonimmunologic process 2/2 high dose single exposure to irritant agent
sx immediate and last a long time
Diagnosis of VCD
Inspiratory wheezing over larynx
Bronchodilators worsen
Redeced FEV1 and FVC with preserved ratio and blunted inspiratory loop
Dx confirmed by fiberoptic laryngoscopy while patient is symptomatic
Treatment of VCD
Short term: heliox inhlation, topical lidocaine, intermittent positive pressure ventilation

Long term: panting, speech therapy, botox into vocal cords
Immune response to aspergillus
Dectin 1 receptor on alveolar macrophages binds Beta–1,3 glucan on Aspergillus cell walls
Production of TNFa, Il1b, Il1a, IL–6, IL10, IFNg ––> Th1 response
Clinical Features of ABPA

Asthmatics
– worsening asthma sx, brown/tan sputum, fever/malaise
– X–ray: pulm infiltrates in mid/upper lung fields (tram line, parallel lines, hilar adenopathy)
– CT: central/upper lobe bronchiectasis, pulm nodules, air trapping
CF: similar sx to primary disease