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592 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Types of Adjuvants |
Alum
Freund's adjuvant (emulsified bacterial products) Incomplete Freund's (water in oil) Ribi adjuvant (Squalene–Tween80, water, oil) Titermax (copolymers POP and POE) |
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Strep Pyogenes superantigen toxin and disease
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SEC2 ––> food poisoning
TSST ––> toxic shock syndrome SPE–C ––> strep toxic schock syndrome |
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Super antigens bind _____ on TCRS and ____ on MHC
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V–beta region of TCR on the CDR4 and outside the peptide binding groove on Beta2 region of MHC
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Characteristics of epitopes recognized by
(1) B cells (2) T cells |
(1) B cells ––> linear determinants or tertiary, carbs/4–8 aa residues / nucleic acids
(2) T cells ––> linear only, amino acids only (8–30 aa in length; MHC Class I 8–11, MHC Class II 10–30) |
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Examples of Conjugated vaccines and purpose
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Prevnar 13 (pneumococcal)
Hib MCV4–Menactra, Menveo (meningococcal) T independent antigens linked to a carrier protein ––> triggers a T dependent response and memory |
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Examples of polysaccharide vaccines and purpose for testing
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MSPV4 (menomune) ––> meningococcal vaccine
Pneumococcal vaccine 23 valent |
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Type of cell that recognizes each antigen
(1) Protein (2) Polysaccharide (3) Nucleic acid (4) Lipids |
(1) T cells and B cells
(2) Marginal zone B cells and B1 cells (T indpdt) (3) CTLs and DCs (via TLR9) (4) NKT cells (via CD1) and gamma–delta T cells |
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MHC Class I
(1) Expression (2) Genes (3) polypeptide chains (4) CD restriction (5) Peptide binding site (6) Antigenic sampling (7) Inducting cytokines |
(1) Most nucleated cells
(2) HLA–A, B, C (3) CD8 binds a3 (4) alpha chain (a1, a2,a3) and beta–2 microglobulin (5) alpha 1 and 2 to peptides 8–11 aa (6) intracellular (7) IFN alpha, beta, gamma |
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MHC Class II
(1) Expression (2) Genes (3) polypeptide chains (4) CD restriction (5) Peptide binding site (6) Antigenic sampling (7) Inducting cytokines |
(1) APCs (DCs, macs, B cells), thymic epithelia, activated T cells
(2) HLA–DP, DQ, DR (3) CD4 binds beta–2 (4) alpha chain (a1, a2) and beta chain (b1, b2) (5) alpha 1 & beta 1 to peptides 10–30 aa (6) extracellular (7) IFN gamma |
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Products of MHC Class III region
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Complement (Factor B, C4a, C4b, C2)
Cytokines (TNF alpha, lymphotoxins alpha, beta) Heat Shock Proteins |
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Products of MHC Class I region
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HLA A, B, C and Class I–like proteins...
HLA E ––> NK cell recognition (via NKG2C for activation and NKG2A/B for inhibition) HLA F ––> localize to ER and golgi, also protects fetus from rejection HLA G ––> on fetal derived placental cells, protects fetus from rejection HLA H ––> iron metabolism |
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Products of MHC Class II region
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DP, DQ, DR
TAP1 and TAP2 ––> two subunits that transport antigen peptides into ER |
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Steps of MHC Class I pathway
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1. New MHC–I stay in ER b/c of calnexin, calreticulin, ERP57, tapasin
2. cytoplasmic proteins degraded by proteasome (made up of subunits LMPs) 3. peptides transported to ER by TAP proteins 4. peptides loaded on to NEW MHC 5. MHC–I and antigen are transported to surface |
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How HSV and CMV avoid presentation
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HSV blocks TAP transportation (prevents antigen binding with MHC–I)
CMV removes MHC–I from the ER |
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Steps of MHC Class II pathway
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1. extracellular antigen endocytosed into phagosomes
2. Phagosome and lysosome fusion ––> degradation of proteins 3. new MHC–II made in ER and transported to phagolysosome. Binding cleft occupied by invariant chain (Ii) 4. Ii degraded, leaving behind CLIP 5. HLA–DM removes CLIP and peptides are loaded 6. MHC class II and peptide are transported to surface |
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MHC Class I deficiency features (name, mutation, sx, lab, tx)
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Name: Bare lymphocyte syndrome
Common: Both aut rec Mutation: TAP. Sx: inopulm infxn, granulomatous skin lesions, necrobiosis lipoidica Lab: low CD8, no MHCI Tx: treat pulm infections like CF (airway clearance and chest PT) |
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MHC Class II deficiency features (name, mutation, sx, lab, tx)
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Name: Bare lymphocyte syndrome
Common: Both aut rec Mutation: TFs required for MHC expression (MHC2TA, RFX5, FRXAP, FRXANK) Sx: diarrhea, HSM, incr LFTs, sclerosing cholangitis (Cryptosporidium), pulm infxn(PJP, encapsulated bacteria, HSV, RSV), meningitis Lab: low CD4, reversed CD4:8, no HLA DR/DP/DQ on lymphocytes, hypogam, missing germinal centers Tx: HSCT |
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AIRE function and mutation leads to...
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Fxn: promotes expression of nonthymic antigens in the thymus.
APS (autoimmune polyglandular syndrome) lymphocytes not deleted or tolerized to endocrine–related self–anteigens |
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Maintenance of Anergy in T cells requires...
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Blockade of TCR signaling
Ubiquitin ligases (target proteins for degradtion) Inhibitor costim (CTLA4 & PD–1) DCs expressing self antigen w/o co–stim to maintain anergy |
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T cell selection fate depends on _____ and ______.
Three fates are _____ and require _______. |
Concentration and affinity.
Strong affinity to self antigen ––> apoptosis Weak affinity ––> positive selection ––> effector cells Intermediate affinity ––> T regs. |
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T reg markers
T reg survival factors T reg maintenance factors |
CD4, CD25 (IL–2R alpha chain), FoxP3
IL–2, TGF–beta IL–10, TGF–beta |
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IPEX syndrome (mutation, features
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FoxP3 mutation
Autoimmune disorder with triad of watery diarrhea, eczema, endocrinopathy |
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Neg selection via apoptosis happens via these pathways
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1. Bim (part of Bcl–2 family) ––> apoptosis via mitochondrial pathway
2. Fas ligand (CD95L) on T cells ––> interacts with Fas (CD95) on same cell or nearby cells ––> apoptosis via caspase system. If caspase/FAS absent ––> ALPS |
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Mechanism of peripheral B cell tolerance
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chronic antigen recognition without T cell help ––> downregulates CXCR5 ––> inhibits B cell homing and B/T interaction ––> death
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What types of nucleic acids are A, G, T, C?
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A & G are purines. T&C are pyrimidines (along with uracil for RNA)
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In COPD, histone deacetylation is increased/decreased?
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Decreased deacetylation = increased gene expression.
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SNPs and Disease: Fillagrin
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Disease: Eczema
Gene: fillagrin Function: epidermal barrier |
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SNPs and Disease: ORMDL3
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Disease: Asthma
Gene: 17q12–21 Function: unknown |
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SNPs and Disease: CD14
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Disease: Incr and decr Atopy/Asthma
Gene: 5q22–32 Function: LPS receptor |
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SNPs and Disease: CCR5
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Disease: protects a/nonatopic asthma
Gene: 3p21–22 Function: chemokine receptor |
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SNPs and Disease: TLR7 and 8
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Disease: Incr risk of asthma/AR/AD/specific IgE
Gene: Xp22 Function: pattern recognition receptor for viral ssRNA |
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SNPs and Disease: IL–13
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Disease: Incr risk asthma, hyperreactivity, SPT responsiveness. Linked to singulair response.
Gene: 5q31 Function: Induces IgE secretion, mucus, collagen synthesis |
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SNPs and Disease: Beta–2 adrenergic receptor
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Disease: Arg/arg ––> decreased albuterol response (v. gly/gly 16)
Gene: ADRB2 Function: adrenaline/noradrenaline receptor |
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SNPs and Disease: Type 1 transmembrane protein
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Disease: Incr risk asthma and hyperreactive airway
Gene: ADAM33 Function: Cell–to–cell interactions |
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Histone __________ opens chromatin to allow transcription.
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Acetylation (deacetylation represses expression)
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An adult human makes ______ Ig every day
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2–3 grams
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How many constant regions do the different Ig isotypes have?
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G, A, D ––> three Ch domains
M, E ––> 4 Ch domains |
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Omalizumab binds to....
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Ch3 on IgE
|
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Where do papain and pepsin cleave Ig?
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Papain cleaves Ig above the hinge ––> two Fab (antigen binding) fragments and one Fc (crystallizable) ––> Fabs can bind but not crosslink
Pepsin cleaves below the hinge ––> F(ab')2 ––> can bind and crosslink Neither fix complement or bind Fc receptor |
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Variable regions on Ig have ____ CDRs and which is most variable?
|
3 CDRs of 10 aa length,
CDR3 is most variable. |
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Glycosylation of Ig is ! for____
Conserved sites include____ |
(1) maintaining structural stability and effector functions (for IgG, binding Fc–gamma–R and C1q)
(2) Asparagine–297 on Ch2 of IgG |
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Decreased galatosylation is associated with...
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Rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, Crohn's, TB,
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This enrichment increases IVIG antiinflammatory properties
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Sialic Acid
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Which Ig form which ___–mers?
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Monomers (all Ig)
Dimers (IgA) Pentamers (IgM) |
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The IgG subclass with the shortest half life
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IgG3
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The Ig that fixes complement most efficiently
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IgM
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Rheumatoid factor is an _____ antibody against ___
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RF is an IgM antibody against
Fc portion of IgG. |
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Ig super family consists of....
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TCR, MHC, CD4, CD8, CD19, B7–1, B7–2, Fc receptors, KIR (Killer cell Ig–like receptor), VCAM–1
All 70–110 aa, and usu with disulfide loop. |
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Which Ig crosses the placenta
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IgG
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Which Ig has the highest plasma concentration
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IgG
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Which Ig has the highest total body concentration and daily production
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IgA
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What transports IgA across the mucosal epithelium
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poly–Ig receptor (via transcytosis)
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Ways Ig gets diversity...
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Germline variation (diff inherited V, D, Js)
Combinatorial diversity (somatic recombination of V, D, Js) Junctional diversity (+/– nucleotides at junctions) Somatic hypermutation (point mut in V's in rapidly dividing lymphocytes, affinity maturation) Receptor editing (changes in Ig specificity if self–reactive ab made) |
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Alternative Splicing is....
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– splicing at different C regions to make membrane v. secreted Ig
– splicing at different location of IgM to make IgD (not conventional class switch). |
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Which cytokines induce which class switching for Ig?
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G1 ––> IFN gamma, IL–4
G2 ––> IFN gamma, TGF beta G3 ––> IFN gamma G4 ––> IL4, 13 A ––> TGF beta, IL–5 M ––> n/a E ––> IL–4, 13 D ––> n/a |
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Which Ig can activate complement
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IgG1–3, IgM
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Functions of Ig isotypes
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IgG1 ––> Th1 response, opsonization, best at ADCC
IgG2 ––> antipolysaccharide. last to get to adult levels IgG3 ––> opsonization IgG4 ––> antipolysaccharide. Th2. Incr in IT. IgA ––> mucosal immunity (A1 in serum/resp. A2 GI) M ––> primary response E ––> allergy. only ig that binds mast cells D ––> B cell maturation marker. Function unknown. |
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Fc receptors for IgE (CD marker, affinity, cell distribution, function)
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FceRI: high affinity, on mast/baso/eos, degranulation and ADCC
FceRII: aka CD23, low affinity, on neut/eos/monos, fxn unknown |
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Fc receptors for IgE (CD marker, affinity, cell distribution, function)
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FcgRI: aka CD64, high affinity, macs/neut/eos, phagocytosis
FcgRIIa: aka CD32, low, macs/neut/eos/plt, poor phagocytosis FcgRIIb: aka CD32, low, B, feedback inhibition of B cells FcgRIIIA: aka CD16, low, NK/macs, ADCC FCgRIIIb: aka CD16, low, neut/mac/eos, poor phagocytosis |
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Most important cytokine produced in activation of T cells (after TCR–HLA complex formed)
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IL–2 (receptor CD25), T cell survival signal, stimulates clonal proliferation
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What are the costim molecules/receptors/function?
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(1) APC: CD80 (B7–1)/CD86 (B7–2) and CD28 on T ––> activates naive T cells (induces CD40L, OX40, CXR5, ICOS, CTLA4)
(2) APC: CD80 (B7–1)/CD86 (B7–2) and CTLA4(CD152) on T ––> T cell tolerance and Th1 devt (3) APC: ICOS–L and ICOS on T ––> costim of effector T cells, class switching (4) APC cD40 and CD40L on T ––> APC activation, germ ctr devt, class switch, stim AID for somatic hypermutation (5) APC: PDL1/PDL2 & PD–1 on T –> neg regulation and cell death |
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Contents of tCR complex
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TCR alpha/beta chains (or delta/gamma – not HLA restricted, don't need CD4/8)
CD3 (epsilon, gamma, delta, zeta chains) CD4 or 8 |
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TCR signaling pathway
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HLA binds TCR, costim ––> SLAM (signaling lymphocytic activation molecule) binds SAP (SLAM associated protein linking SLAM to Fyn ––> Fyn associates with CD3 and Lck associates with CD4/8 and P–lates them ––> Zap70 binds to P on zeta chain, docks, P–lates LAT ––> LAT recruits adapter proteins
(1) Grb2–SoS ––> Ras GDP/GTP ––> MEK1 ––> ERK ––> ELK ––> Fox ––> AP–1 ––> IL–2 (2)PLC ––> DAG and IP3 ––> PKC ––> I kappaB ––> NFkappaB ––> IL2 (3) IP3 ––> Ca flux through CRAC (Ca release activated Ca chanel) ––> calmodulin ––> calcineurine ––> NFAT(TF for IL–2/IL4, TNF) |
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CD4 and CD8 bind which HLA, where?
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CD4 ––> MHC 2, beta2
CD8 ––> MHC 1, alpha 3 |
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Deficiency in SAP causes
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X linked lymphoproliferative syndrome
|
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Types of Src family kinaseas
Type of Syk family kinase Type of MAP kinase |
Lck, Fyn
ZAP70 ERK |
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B cell receptor signaling
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BCR cross links and associates with IGa/Igb (similar to CD3) ––> lipid raft of Src family kinases (lyn, fyn, btk) P–late ITAMS ––> Syk docks and p–lates BLNK ––> activates Ras, RAC, PLC, BTK
– BTK ––> activates PLC ––> PIP2, IP3, DAG ––> NFkappaB pathway via DAG, NFAT pathway via IP3, AP–1 pathway via Grb2/SOs |
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Role of CD21 in BCR signaling
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Signal enhancement from cD21 (CR2) if antigen opsonized by C3b ––> degraded to c3d which binds CD21 ––> brings CD21/CD19/CD81 complex into BCR ––> recruits Lyn and activates IP3 kinase
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Cytokines of Innate Immune system
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TNF, IL1, IL12, IFNa, IFNb, IL10, IL–6, IL15, IL18, IL–23, IL27
|
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Chemokine Families (C, CC, CXC, CX3)
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C
CC ––> Eos, Baso's, Mono ––> allergy CXC ––> PMNs ––> Inflammation CX3 |
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Alternative pathway for complement
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Baseline C3 tickover to c3b. C3b binds bacteria. C3b binds factor b ––> C3bB. Factor D cleaves B ––> C3bBb, stabilized by properdin.
Regulated by factor I mediated cleavage of C3b. Factors H, MCP (CD46), and DAF (CD55) are cofactors |
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Classical pathway for complement
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C1q binds Fc of Ig crosslinked by antigen. C1q asssociates with C1r serine proteases ––> cleave c1s proteins. C1s cleaves C4 and C2 ––> C4b2a = C3 convertase
C1 inhibitor blocks C1r and c1s. C4b is bound by DAF, CR1, and C4bindingprotein to block cascade. Factor I inactivates C4b into C4bi |
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Lectin pathway for complement
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Absence of Ab!
MBL binds mannose on microbial polysaccharides. MBL binds MBL–assoc protease1 (MASP1 and 2) ––> cleaves C4 and C2 ––> C3 convertase C4b2a |
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Common path in all complement pathways
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C3 cleaves C3 to C3b ––> C3b binds C3 convertase ––> C5 convertase (C3bBb3b in AP and C4b1a3b in CP/LP) ––> cleabes C5 ––> releases C5a and starts formation of MAC (C5b –8).
C9 siilar to perforin S protein and CD59 block MAC formation |
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Chemotaxis of C5a and C3a
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C5 a most potent mediator of basophil/cutaneous mast cell degranulation.
C5a chemotactic for neut/eos/monos/baso C3a chemotactic for eos |
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ranking the isotypes in binding affinity for C1q
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IgM>IgG3>IgG1>IgG2
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CR3 or CR4 deficiency leads to...
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LAD type 1 (due to rare mutation in beta chain CD18 common to CD11 and CD18)
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CR1 (other name, ligand, function, deficiency disease, microbe that uses this receptor)
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aka CD35
C3b, C4b, iC3b regulates complement activation, phagocytosis, clearance of immune complexes HIV |
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CR2 (other name, ligand, function, deficiency disease, microbe that uses this receptor)
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aka CD21
C3d, iC3b, C3d part of B cell co receptor trapping antigesn in germinal center EBV, HIV |
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CR3 (other name, ligand, function, deficiency disease, microbe that uses this receptor)
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aka Mac–1, CD11b/CD18
iC3b, ICAM–1 Phagocytosis, leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells LAD type I TB, HIV, West Nile |
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CR4 (other name, ligand, function, deficiency disease, microbe that uses this receptor)
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aka gp 150/95, CD11c/CD18)
iC3b Phagocytosis LAD type I none |
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Cd46 (other name, ligand, function, deficiency disease, microbe that uses this receptor)
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aka MCP
–– –– –– measles virus |
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Cd55 (other name, ligand, function, deficiency disease, microbe that uses this receptor)
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aka DAF
C4b and capsid regulates C3 convertase formation PNH echovirus and coxsackie virus |
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Cd59 (other name, ligand, function, deficiency disease, microbe that uses this receptor)
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aka protectin
C5b–8 and C9 disrupts MAC formation PNH ––– |
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What is C3 nephritic factor and what does it cause.
|
Autoantibody that stabilizes C3bBb and protects from degradation by factors H/I ––> unregulated C3 consumption
SLE, MPGN, partial lipodystrophy (fat loss in upper body due to gradient in factor D concentration which completes C3bBb formation) |
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What is anti–C1q antibody and what does it cause.
|
Autoantibody to C1q ––> activation of creatine phosphate pathway with immune complex deposition
Hypocomplemetemic urticarial vasculitis (HUVS) (tx with hydroxychloroquine) |
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Complement deficiency and disease:
(1) No CH50, AH50 ok (2) CH50 ok, no AH50 (3) No CH50 and No AH50 (4) No CH50, AH50 or C3 |
(1) No c1q, C1r, c1s, c2 or c4
(2) No Factor B, D or properdin (3) No C3, 5–9 (4) No Factor H, I |
|
Disease and associated complement deficiency
SLE MPGN HUS HAE PNH |
SLE ––> C1q, C1r, C1s, C4, C2, MBL
MPGN ––> C1q, C1r, C1s, C4, C2, C3, Factor H, Factor I, MCP HUS ––> Factor H HAE ––> C1 inhibitor PNH ––> CD59 (MAC) and CD55 (DAF) |
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What is the bradykinin pathway
|
First simple way. Kallikrein cleaves LMW kininogen ––> lys–bradykinin. Cleaved by aminopeptidase ––> bradykinin.
Bradykinin binds B2 receptor Contact Activation. Factor XII (HAgeman) binds neg charged surface ––> makes XIIa. Prekallikrein complexes with HMW kininogen, binds surface, gets cleaved by XIIa ––> kallikrein. Kallikrein digests HMW kininogen ––> bradykinin. XIIa also cleaves XI to make XIa ––> coagulation HSP90 and prolylcarboxypeptidase can also activated prekallikrein–HMWkininogen complex to make kallikrein. |
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What does C1 inhibitor inhibit?
What is it consumed by |
Inmhibits factor XIIa and XIIf, kallikrein, factor XIa, and C1r & s.
Consumed by plasmin |
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Major enzyme responsible for bradykinin degradation
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Kininase II (identical to angiotensin–converting enzyme)
|
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In the bradykinin pathway, what receptors do factor XII and HK bind?
|
uPAR (urokinase plasminogen activator receptor)
cytokeratin 1 receptor for the globular head of C1q (gC1qR) |
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What are M cells
|
membranous cells that deliver antigens to peyer's patches (not APCs) by making a pocket where T/B cells can interact with antigen
|
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REgions of the GI tract mucosa and their cells/functions
|
Epithelial: mostly CD8+ T cells. Also paneth
Lamina Propria: mostly mixed with activated CD4+ T. Also, epithelial, intraepithelial lymphs, activated B/plasma, Ts. Peyer's: Mostly CD4+T. Also M Other: Mac/mast/eos/B |
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How to T cells localize to the small intestine
|
alpha4Beta7 binding CCR9
MAdCAM–1 |
|
Intraepithelial lymphocytes (IELs)
where? migration? expression pattern? |
Above basement membrane between epithelial cells
Migration by CCR9, or CCL25 & cD103 (E cadherin) Express CD8alpha–alpha, common for activated mucosal T cells. Mostly effector cells |
|
Intestinal immunity regulatory t cells
|
Th3 cells (subset of CD4+ that make TGFb)
TR1 (CD4 that make IL–10) CD4+CD25+ T regs CD8+ suppressor T cells delta/gamma T cells |
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What cytokines trigger class switching to IgA
|
TGFb and IL–5
|
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Main breast milk components
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IgA, lysozyme, lactoferrin, TNF alpha.
|
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Methods for detecting antibody mismatches
|
(1) Cross–matching. testing serum from recipient against cells from donor for RBC/HLA antigens. Absolute contraind.
(2) Donor–recipient matching: matching by HLA typing. Measure response of immunocompetetnt cells from recipient to antigens present on donor cells. |
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Types and Mechanisms of transplant rejection
|
(1) Hyperacute (<24h): from preformed ABO abs, HLA abs, complement. Neutrophils.
(2) Accelerated rejection (3–5d): Noncomplement fixing abs, NK, monos. (3) Acute (6–90 d): T cells, antibodies. (4) Chronic (>60d): Antibodies. (delayed type hypersensitivity) |
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Cytokines released in acute rejection
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IL2, 4, 5, 7, 10, 15 TNFa, IFNg
|
|
Costimulation methods in transplant rejection for CD4+ and CD8+ T cells
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4: Receptor ligand interactions
IL–1 and IL–6 on APCs 8: IL–2 |
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Activation of CD4+ T cells (5 combos of ligand and receptor)
|
CD2 and CD58
CD11a/CD18 and CD54 CD5 and CD72 CD40L and CD40 CD28 and CD80/86 (T cell & APC) |
|
Cyclosporine and tacrolimus (FK506) mechanism
|
Inhibits T cell and activation.
CSA binds cyclophilin ––> inhibition of calcineurin ––> blockade of NFAT activation ––> no transcription of IL2 ––> no T cell differentiation |
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Rapamycin mechanism
|
Inhibits T cell and activation
Rapamycin binds FKBP ––> binds and inhibits mTOR ––> blocks T cell prolif |
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Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) mechanism
|
Inhibits guanine nucleotide synthesis ––> stops T cell prolif
|
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Azathioprine mechanism
|
Blocks lymphocyte precursors (less specific than MMF so higher toxicity)
|
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Mechanism of Anti–CD3
|
Binds CD3 ––> promotes phagocytosis or complement mediated lysis of T cells
|
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Mechanism of Anti–CD25 (alpha subunit of IL2R)
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Blockade of IL2 binding to activated T cells expressing CD25 ––> prevention of T cell activation
|
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Mechanism of corticosteroids
|
Block synthesis and secretion of cytokines from macrophages
|
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Improved patient survival in cancer associated with...
|
TILs with a normal zeta chain. Usuall CD95+ (FAS)
|
|
Tumor immune inhibitors?
|
TNF ligands (FASL, TRAIL, TNF)
Cytokines (TGFbeta, IL–10, GMCSF, ZIP) Small molecules (PGE2, epi, ROS) Virally related products (p15E, EBI–3) Tumor associated gangliosides – block IL–2 depdt prolif |
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What are KIR?
|
Inhibitor receptors on NK cell
Recognize MHC class I Help scavenging for abnormal tumor cells |
|
What are AMP?
|
Antimicrobial peptides.
Cationic proteins involved in innate immunity a/bacteria, fungi, viruses Made by keratinocytes Two families (defensins (HBD1,2,3), cathelicidins (LL37), Lactoferrins (hlF–11), Histatins Interact with microbe membrane phospholipids, antiproliferative effects |
|
What are PAMPs
|
Pathogen associated molecular patterns
Conserved microbial sequences Ex: LPS (on gram neg bacteria), teichoic acid (GP) Recognized by PRRs (pattern recognition receptors to detect infection |
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fMLP (full receptor name, location, class, structure, function)
|
Receptor: N–formyl Met–leu Phe receptors
Location: cell surface Class: signaling Structure: GPCR Function: antibacterial |
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CARD (full receptor name, location, class, structure, function)
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Caspase Activation and Recruitment Domains (ex: retinoic acid inducible gene I like receptors)
Location: cytoplasm Class: signaling: Structure: RNA helicase and caspase recruitment domains (part of inflammasome) Function: cytoplasmic virus detection ––> type1 IFN production |
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CLR (full receptor name, location, class, structure, function)
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C–type lectin receptors (MBL and macrophage mannose receptor)
Loc: cell surface Class:secreted or endocytic Structure: Ca dpdt carbohydrate binding domains Fxn: antifungal |
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NLR or NACT–LRR (full receptor name, location, class, structure, function)
|
Nucleotide binding Oligomerization domains
Loc: cytoplasm Class: signaling Structure: C terminal leucine rich repeat and nucleotide binding domain (central proteins of inflammasome) Fxn: IL–1b and IL18 secretion |
|
TLR (full receptor name, location, class, structure, function)
|
Toll–like receptors
Loc: cell–surface cytoplasm (TLR3) Class: signaling Fxn: antibacterial/fungal/viral |
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Function of the inflammasome (associated diseases)
|
Located in cytoplasm, activates caspases 1 and 5 ––> production/secretion of IL–1 and IL–18
Activating mutations in Cold induced autoinflammatory syndrome (CIAS1), Muckle–wells, familial cold urticaria, CINCA |
|
TLR 1 (ligand and source)
|
Lipoarabinomannan
Mycobacteria |
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TLR 2 (ligand and source)
|
Zymosan
Fungi |
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TLR 3 (ligand and source)
|
dsRNA
Virus |
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TLR 4 (ligand and source)
|
LPS, peptidoglycan, RSV fusion protein, HSP70, HSP90
Gram neg bacteria, gram positive bacteria, RSV, acute phase proteins |
|
TLR 5 (ligand and source)
|
Flagellin
Flagellated bacteria |
|
TLR 6 (ligand and source)
|
Diacyl lipopeptides
Mycoplasma |
|
TLR 7 (ligand and source)
|
Imidazoloquinolones
Synthetic |
|
TLR 8 (ligand and source)
|
ssRNA
Virus |
|
TLR 9 (ligand and source)
|
Unmethylated CpG motifs
Bacteria and DNA viruses |
|
TLR 10 (ligand and source)
|
Unknown
|
|
TLR 11 (ligand and source)
|
Profilin
Toxoplasma gondii |
|
TLR 4 signaling MyD88 dependent pathway
|
TLR4 & MD2 ––> TIRAP ––> MyD88 ––> IRAK + TRAF6 ––> NEMO/IKKg + IKKa + IKKb ––> NFkB ––> into nucleus ––> transcription of inflammatory cytokines
|
|
TLR4 signaling MyD88 independent pathway
|
TLR4 & MD2 –> TRAM –> TRIF
––> TRAF ––> NFkB ––> RIP1 ––> NFkB ––> TBK1 + IKKe/i ––> IRF3 all lead to IFN beta transcription |
|
What is in the TLR4 complex?
|
TLR4 (binds LPS via LPS binding protein)
MD2 (lymphocyte antigen 96) CD14 |
|
Only TLR that never signals through MyD88
|
TLR3
|
|
TLRs or pathway involved in HSV1 encephalitis
|
TLR 3, 7, 8, 9
|
|
TLRs or pathway involved in aspergillosis
|
TLR4
|
|
TLRs or pathway involved in ADrenal insufficiency
|
TLR2 and 4
|
|
TLRs or pathway involved in Crohn's dsease or Blau's syndrome
|
NOD2
|
|
TLRs or pathway involved in Leprosy and TB
|
TLR2
|
|
TLRs or pathway involved in IRAK44 or MyD88 deficiency
|
Recurrent infections with pyogenic bacteria
All TLRs |
|
PID with infectious and mycobacterial susceptibility ––> think ___
|
NEMO
|
|
Th9 cells:
induced by... produce... differentiation requires... |
induced by TGFb
produce IL9 +/– IL4 differentiation requires IRF4 and PU.1 |
|
Th1 cells:
induced by... produce... TFs... major function... |
induced by IL–12, IL–27, IL–18
produce IFNg, IL–2, TNF TFs are Tbet, STAT4, STAT1 major function is intracellular defense also, express CXCR3 and CCR5. Associated with type I DM, and MS |
|
Th2 cells:
induced by... produce... TFs... major function... |
induced by IL–4, IL25, IL–33, TSLP
produce IL–4, IL–5, IL–13, IL–6, 10, 21, 25, 31, 33 TFs are GATA3, STAT6, STAT5 major function is humoral immunity, antiparasitic, allergy |
|
Th17 cells:
induced by... produce... TFs... major function... |
induced by IL–6, IL–1, IL–21, IL–23, TGFb
produce IL–17, IL1, 6, 21, 22, TNFa, GMCSF TFs are RORgT, STAT3 major function is extracellular defense, neut recruitment, autoimmunity Express CCR6, involved in rA< IBD, MS, psoriasis |
|
Treg cells:
induced by... produce... TFs... major function... |
induced by TGFb and retinoic acid
produce IL–10, TGFb TFs are FOXp3, STAT5 major function is immunosuppression, autoimmunity |
|
Tfh cells:
produce... TFs... major function... |
produce IL–21
TF: BCL–6 (causes downreg CCR7 and upreg CXCR5) major funcion is helping B cells make abs in germinal ctr follicles |
|
CTL cells:
produce: TF: major function |
produce IFNg, TNF, lymphotoxin
TF is EOMES (eomesodermin homologs) major function: kill virally infected and tumor cells using perforin and granzyme |
|
gd T cells:
produce: function |
produce IFNg and TNF
function is to bind lipids and heat shock proteins |
|
Natural T regs v. Induced T regs
Derived: Expression: Other features: |
N: thymically in response to autologus Ag
I: peripherally in response to self and external Ag N: consitutive IL–2Ra (CD25) I: inducible IL2Ra (CD25) N: FOXP3+, mediates self tolerance I: types Tr1 (make IL–10 and ! in immunotherapy). Th3 (make TGFb, ! for IgA production) |
|
Markers of NK cells
|
CD16 (FCgRIII)
CD56 (NCAM) natural cytotoxicity receptors (NCRs) killer inhibitory receptors (KIRS) NKs don't epxress CD3 |
|
Markers of NK T cells
function produce... |
CD3+
CD16+ CD56+ usually CD4+ Function: recognize glycolipid in context of CD1 Produce IFNg and iL–13 |
|
Innate lymphoid cells
aka... proliferate in response to... produce... function |
aka ILC2 or nuocytes
proliferate in response to IL25, IL33 produce IL5, IL9, IL13 function: central role in type 2 mediated immunity |
|
NK cell activating receptors (and ligands)
|
2B4 (binds CD48 on EBV infected cell)
NKG2D (binds MICA/B & ULBP on stressed cell) NKp44/46 (binds viral hemagllutinin) NKG2C (binds HLA–E on NK cell) FCgRIIIA (binds IgG on target cell) |
|
Inhibitory receptors
|
KIR (binds MHC class I)
NKG2A/B (binds HLA–E) |
|
Where do B cells and T cells stay in the lymph node
What do they express to get there and what does that bind? |
T cells in parafollicular zone, B cells in follicles
T express CCR7 which binds CCL19/21 B express CXCR5 which binds CXCL13 |
|
Early maturation of B and T cells requires this cytokine and if missing leads to this.
|
IL–7
SCID |
|
VDJ recominbation occurs by recognition of ______ but only following _____ rule
|
recombination signal sequences (RSS)
12/23 rule (one segment flanked by 12 nucleotide spacer and the other by 23) |
|
Enzymes involved in VDJ recombination and function
|
RAG 1/2 (cleaves dsDNA btwn coding and RSS)
Ku (binds DNA ends or makes hairpin) DNA–PK and Artemis (open hairpin randomly) TdT (terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase, adds nucleotides for junctional diversity) Endonuclease (removes nucleotides for diversity) DNA ligase IV & XRCC4: ligates DNA |
|
B cell maturation order
|
Pro B cell
Pre B cell Immature Naive B cell Mature Naive B cell Memory B cell or Plasma cell |
|
Pro B cell markers and major event
|
CD19, CD20
heavy chain DJ and VDJ rearrangement |
|
Pre B cell markers and major event
|
cytoplasmic mu chain
signaling through preB cell receptor light chain VJ rearrangement |
|
Immature Naive B cell markers and major event
|
IgM
Kappa/lambda binds mu heavy making igM Receptor editing |
|
Mature B cell markers and major event
|
IgM and IgD
Alternative splicing to express IgM and IgD |
|
Memory B cell markers and major event
|
Isotype switching
Somatic hypermutation |
|
Plasma B cell markers and major event
|
Alternative splicing to get Ig isotypes
|
|
Enzymes needed for class switching
|
AID
UNG CD40 CD40L |
|
TFs associated with B cell differentiation
|
PU.1
IKAROS E2A EBF PAX5 IRF8 |
|
Peripheral B cell survival signals and the receptors
|
BLYSS
BAFF APRIL bind receptors on B cells early: BR3 and TACI late: BCMA |
|
Mature B cell types
|
B1 cells (innate, similar to gamma–delta T, make natural abs for microbes and lipids, found in peritoneum & fetus, T indpdt)
Marginal zone B cells (present by 2 years, first responders esp polysaccharides, T indpdt) B2 cells (memory and plasma, T dpdt) |
|
T cell maturation
|
Immature DN T cells:
DN1, DN2 (DJ/VDJ recomb), DN3 (preTCR signaling), DN4 (prolif) DP T cells (+ selection (cortex), – selection (medulla)) SP T cells Leave lymphoid organs (S1P receptor) Central memory T cells Effector memory T cells |
|
function of notch
|
commits T cells to develop
|
|
Central and Effector memory T cell markers
|
Central: CD45 RA–, CD27 +, CCR7+, CD62L+
Effector: CD45RA–, CD27–, CCR7–, CD62L– |
|
Two types of lymphocyte apoptosis and associated molecules
|
Passive/Intrinsic Pathway:
– d/t neglect, Caspase 9 – BCL2 and bCL–XL are antiapoptotic – BID/BIM are proapoptotic Active/Extrinsic pathway: – d/t repeated lymphocyte activation, Caspase 8 – fAS (cD95)/FasL(CD178) ––> FADD (fas assoc protein c death domain) |
|
Monocyte markers
|
CD14, CD16
|
|
Macrophage
markers growth factors activated by produce |
Markers: CD14, CD11b/CD18 (Mac1), CD36
Growth factors: GM–CSF, M–CSF Activated by: IFNg, LPS binding CD14 Produce: TNFa, IL12/18/1/6 |
|
Macrophage subtypes by location
|
Kupffer cells in liver
histiocytes in tissue osteoclasts in bone mesangial cells in kidney alveolar macrophages in lung |
|
Macrophages associated with... (diseases)
|
Granuloma formation in sarcoid, TB (promoted by TNFa)
Uncontrolled activation in HLH (common in boys with XLP and EBV infection) |
|
XLP is due to ___ mutations
|
SH2D1A gene (encodes SAP protein)
|
|
HLH diagnosis
|
5 of 8 criteria:
Fever splenomegaly cytopenia with 2+ cell lines hyperTGs or hypofibrinogenemia Hemophagocytosis on BM bx Hepatitis Low/absent NK Ferritin>500 CD25 (soluble Il–2R) >2400 |
|
Dendritic Cell subsets
What stimulates development |
DC1 (myeloid/conventional)
DC2 (plasmacytoid) Langerhans Interstitial GM–CSF, IL4 |
|
DC1
markers precursor function |
Markers: CD1, CD11b/c, CD13, CD14
Precursor: Myeloid Function: Phagocytosis and Antigen presentation |
|
DC2
markers precursor function |
Markers: CD1, CD11b/c, CD13, CD14
Precursor: Lymphoid Function: Secretion of IFNa, assoc c viral infections |
|
Langerhans
markers precursor function |
Markers: CD11c, CD207, Birbeck granules (tennis racket shaped)
Precursor: Myeloid (CLA+) Function:Prime CD8 T cells |
|
Interstitial
markers precursor function |
Markers: CD2, CD9, CD68
Precursor: Myeloid (CLA–) Function: Activate B cells |
|
Mast cells
derived from... mature in... types... |
derived from pluripotent kit+ (CD117+) CD34+ stem cells
mature in the tissue (unlike baso/eos) Types: MCt, MCtc, MCc |
|
MCt mast cells
mediators: location: other features |
Mediators: tryptase
Location: respiratory tract, intestinal mucosa Other features: don't express C5aR (CD88), scroll like appearance, development is T dpdt, don't respond to opiates, C5a, C3a, vancomycin |
|
MCtc mast cells:
Mediators: Location: Otherfeatures: |
Mediators: Tryptase, Chymase, carboxypeptidase, cathepsin G
Location: skin, blood vessels, eyes, synovium, intestinal/resp submucoas Other: Do express C5aR (cD88), whorled appearance, T cell indpendent development, respond to opiates, C5a, C3a, vanc |
|
MCc mast cells
Mediators: Location: |
Chymase
Location: lymph nodes, intestinal submucosa, salivary glands |
|
High Affinity IgE receptor
(name of receptor, structure, expressed on which cells, binding site for IgE) |
Fc–episilon–RI
1 alpha chain (c Ig domains binding IgE), 1 beta chain (4 transmembrane domains, ITAM), 2 gamma chains (ITAMS, main signaling) Found on mast cells, basophils, and in trimeric form (alpha and gamm only) on DCs/monos/eos IgE binds alpha and signals via Lyn/Fyn/Syk. |
|
Low Affinity IgE receptor
(name of receptor, structure, expressed on which cells, What cleaves from the cell surface) |
Fc episilon RII (CD23)
C type lectin On mature B cells, activated macs, eos, DC, plt Der–p–! cleaves CD23 from the surface, increasing the production of allergen specific IgE |
|
Mast cell activation methods (9)
|
IgE binding high affinity IgE receptor
IgG binding Fcgamma RI bacterial antigens binding TLR 2/6 or 4 C3a/C5a anaphylotoxins (MCtc only) cytokines neuropeptides physical stimuli (heat pressure) substance P drugs (contrast, opiods, muscle relaxants) |
|
Mast cell response to stimulation (timeframe, mediators and cytokines
|
<15 min: preformed release (histamine, tryptase, chymase, TNF, heparin)
10–30min: lipid derived mediators ( PGD2, LTC4, LTB4, PAF) hrs–days: cytokine/chemokine release (IL3,4,5,6,8,10,13, GMCSF, TNFa, MCP–1, MIP1a, RANTES (CCL–5)) |
|
List function for histamine
|
smooth muscle contraction
mucus production vasodilation gastric acid secretion wakefulness |
|
List function for tryptase
|
serine protease endopetidase
|
|
List function for Carboxypeptidase
|
peptidase for C terminal end of peptide
|
|
List function for chymase
|
serine (protease) endopeptidase
|
|
List function for Prostaglandin D2
|
increases vascular permeability
bronchoconstriction platelet aggregation chemoattraction |
|
List function for LTC4 LTB4
|
increase vascular permeability
bronchoconstriction |
|
Platelet activating factor
|
bronchoconstriction
vasodilation platelet aggregation |
|
Bsophil Growth
– where do they mature – where do they end up Key cytokine for differentiation |
Mature in bone marrow
Found in blood and BAL CD123 (IL–3 receptor) and IL3 |
|
Mast cell mediator that is both preformed and found in late phase of reaction
|
TNF
|
|
Basophil response to stimulation (timeframe, mediators and cytokines
|
<15 min: preformed release (histamine, chondroitin, MBP, charcot–leyden protein)
10–30min:lipid dervied mediators (LTC4) min–days: cytokines (IL 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10, 13, GMCSF, TNFa, MCP1, MIP1a, RANTES, PAF) |
|
Differences between mast cells and basophils (8)
|
Location: Mast tissues, Baso blood
Nucleus: Mast unsegmented, Baso bilobed Granules: Mast more/small, Baso less/large Tryptase: Mast has more Chymase/Carboxypeptidase: only in Mast LTB4/PGD2: only in mast IL3 receptor: only in baso C5a receptor: only in mast |
|
Eosinophil granules and contents
|
Primary granules: Charcot–Leyden crystals
Specific/2ndary granules: preformed mediators – major basic protein (MBP), eosinophil cationic protein (ECP), eosinophil peroxidase, eosinophil derived neurotoxin |
|
Eosinophil receptors
|
Fc receptors for immunoglobulins
Beta–2 integrins (CD11a–cCD18) Beta–1 integrin (VLA–4) Beta–4 integrin (alpha4beta7) PSG1–1 |
|
Eosinophil growth/differentiation
– cytokines – where it matures –migration chemokines – where they reside –half life |
differentiation/activation cytokines: GM–CSF, IL3, IL5
Matures in bone marrow (GATA1 TF !) Migrate to tissue in response to RANTES (CCL–5), eotaxins (eostaxin–1, CCL–11, eotaxin–2, CCL24) Resides in the tissue (lower GI, mammary gland, female reproductive tract, lymph tissue, 1–2% in blood) Half life– 18hrs |
|
Eosinophil functions (6)
|
Modulate immune response:
– release toxic granule proteins – release reactive oxygen species – release leukotrienes and prostglandins – rleease cytokines (IL1,2,4,5,6,8,13,TNF) Mammary gland development Wound repair and tissue remodeling |
|
Disorders associated with hypereosinophilia
|
Allergic disease/asthma
Rheum: Collagen vascular disorders, Kimura's dz, Churg–strauss vasculitis, Adrenal insufficiency (ADdison's dz) Skin: Eczema, Pemphigoid Resp: ABPA, eosinophilic pneumonia, LOeffler's syndrome, GI: EoE ID: HIV, parasites, Protozoa (isospora belli, sarcocystis) TB Onc: Neoplasm (Hodgkin's lymphoma) Other: Drug rxn, Heme: Hypereosinophilic syndrome, mastocytosis, |
|
Neutrophils:
Ig surface receptors Cytokines for suvival/maturation Chemokines: |
Ig surface receptors IgG and IgA
Survival cytokines: IL–3, GMCSF, G CSF Chemokines: IL8 (CXCL8) Also, IFNg, fMLP, MIP–1, LTB4, C5a, Sialyl–lewix X, E/P selectins, LFA1/ICAM1 |
|
Neutrophil granules
|
Primary granules (azurophilic) – myeloperoxidase, defensins, elastase, lysozyme, cathepsin
Specific granules (secondary) – lactoferrin, cathelicidin, fMLP, CD11b Gelatinase – fMLP, CD11b, lysoszyme, gelatinase Secretory – fMLP, CD11b, alkaline phosphatase |
|
Platelet:
surface receptors |
Surface receptors for IgG and CD23
|
|
Thrombus formation
|
Endothelial damage ––> exposed collagen and vWF activate plts ––> plts release granules (contain ADP/ATP, Ca, serotonin, TGFb, plt factor 4, PDGF, vWF, fibrinogen) ––> arachidonic acid pathway initiated producing thromboxane A2 (activates more plts) ––> Plts clump with fibrinogen and vWF binding GP2b/3a receptor ––> cytokine release
|
|
Thrombocytopenia and associated diseases
|
Aplastic anemia
Bernard–soulier syndrome Drug induced thrombocytopenia Gaucher's disease Glanzmann's thrombasthenia HELLP Hemophilia Hermansky–Pudlak Wiskott–Aldrich ITP (abs to GP2b3a) TTP (abs to ADAMTS13) von willebrand's disease HIT (abs to PF4) |
|
Epidermal layers:
|
Before Signing Get Legal Counsel
Stratum Basale Stratum Spinosum Stratum Granulosum Stratum Lucidum Stratum Corneum |
|
Protein among the keratinized epithelial layers of skin
|
Transglutaminase
|
|
Skin adhesion moecules
|
e cadherins in desmosomes
integrins in hemidesmosomes |
|
Pathogens that use epithelial receptors for infection
|
Rhinovirus ––> ICAM–1
Influenza ––> glycans Adenovirus ––> integrins and CD80/86 |
|
How T cells home to the skin?
|
T cells express cutaneous lymphocyte angiten (CLA) and CCR4 and CCR10.
Binds CCL17 (TARC) and CCL22 (MDC) on keratinocytes |
|
Airway epithelial cells make ______ in response to _____, which attacts monocytes and immature DCs to the lung
|
CCL2, CCL20
house dust mite inhalation |
|
Epithelial cells produce ____ which activate DC's
|
TSLP, GMCSF, IL–25, IL33
|
|
Bronchial epithelial cells release ____ cytokines in response to allergen cells
|
IL–33 and other IL–1 family (Il1a, Il1b, IL36g)
|
|
In atopic dermatitis expression of ___ cytokines suppresses ____
|
IL–4, IL13
beta defensins and cathelicidin |
|
In pemphigus vulgaris
direct IF shows ___ target antigen is ____ location is ____ |
Intercellular IgG and IgM (epidermal IgG/C3)
Desmoglein3 Desmosome |
|
In pemphigus follacious
direct IF shows ___ target antigen is ____ location is ____ |
Intercellular IgG (epidermal igG/C3)
Desmoglein 1 Desmosome |
|
In bullous pemphigoid
direct IF shows ___ target antigen is ____ location is ____ |
Linear IgG/C3 at BMZ
BP230 (BP Ag 1) or BP180 (BPAg2) Hemidesmosome |
|
In pemphigoid gestationis
direct IF shows ___ target antigen is ____ location is ____ |
Linear IgG at BMZ
BP230 (BP Ag 1) or BP180 (BPAg2) Hemidesmosome |
|
In dermatitis herpetiformis
direct IF shows ___ target antigen is ____ location is ____ |
Granular IgA in dermis
Transglutaminase Subepidermal |
|
In linear igA dermatosis
direct IF shows ___ target antigen is ____ location is ____ |
Linear IgA at BMZ
BP 180 (BPAg2) Hemidesmosome |
|
Autoantibody involved in typeI autoimmune hepatitis
|
IgG anti–SMA (smooth muscle antibody)
|
|
E–selectin
adhesion molecule location ligand ligand location |
endothelium
Sialyl–Lewis X Leukocytes |
|
P–selectin
adhesion molecule location ligand ligand location |
endothelium
sialyl–Lewis X Leukocytes (preformed in platelets) |
|
L–selectin
adhesion molecule location ligand ligand location |
Leukocytes
Sialyl Lewis X on GlyCAM1 and MadCAM1 High endothelial venules |
|
Integrins
adhesion molecule location ligand ligand location |
Leukocytes
ICAM and VCAM Endothelium |
|
Hypersensitivity Reaction Type I
Key players, antigen, examples, main cytokines |
Mast cells, basos, IgE
Soluble antigen Ex: allergic asthma, rhinitis, anaphylaxis, food allergy IL–4, IL13, sIgE |
|
Hypersensitivity Reaction Type II
Key players, antigen, examples, what does it involve |
IgG, IgM, complement, phagocytes
Cell/matrix associated Ex: hemolytic anemia, goodpasture's disease, Grave's disease, myasthenia gravis Antibody binding antigens on a target cell causing damage by cellular neutralization/blocking (MG), cytotoxicity (hem anemia), cellular stimulation (Grave's) |
|
Hypersensitivity Reaction Type III
Key players, antigen, examples |
Complement, IgG (Immune complexes)
Antigen soluble Ex: SLE, glomerulonephritis, vasculitis, serum sickness |
|
Hypersensitivity Reaction Type IV
Key players, antigen, examples |
T cells
– Ex: contact derm, psoriasis, celiac |
|
Mediators in Type I hypersensitivity reaction and their roles
|
Kalleikrein ––> contact system (bradykinin?)
Tryptase ––> kallikrein activity activates contact/complement/clotting cascades Platelet activating factor ––> clotting and DIC and mast cell activation Heparin ––> inhibits clotting Chymase ––> converts angiotensin I to II modulating hypotension |
|
What is FcgRI (aka, function, ligand)
|
aka CD64
high–affinity phagocyte receptor Binds IgG1 IgG3 (most efficient opsonins) |
|
C3b receptors on phagocytes
|
CR1 (CD35)
|
|
What is antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity
|
NK cells bind to microbes coated with clustered igG
Binds via FcgammaRIII (low–affinity Fc receptor) Nk cell secretes cytokines like IFNg, discharges its granules into a lytic synapse, and kills the cell |
|
Isotype switching to IgA occurs where most efficiently and d/t which cytokines
|
most efficiently in mucosal lymphoid tissue
stim by TGFb and IL–5 |
|
How is IgG transported across teh placenta and infant gut lumen?
|
IgG specific Fc receptor (neonatal FC receptor FcRn)
resembles MHCI |
|
Immune complexes formed at ______ form a lattice and are rapidly removed by ______
|
equivalence (ag=Ab)
mononculear phagocytes like Kupffer cells |
|
Most pathogenic state for Type III hypersensitivity occurs in a state of ______ (Ag or Ab) excess
|
Moderate Antigen excess
|
|
Positively charged immune complexes tend to deposit ______
|
negatively charged basement membrane of skin and kidneys
|
|
Immune complex injury is associated with the release of _____ cytokines
|
Il1b, TNF, IL–2, IFN–g
|
|
What is an arthus reaction
|
Ag injected into skin/tissue ––>
local edema, neutrophil migration, hemorrhage, necrosis with peak intensity at 4–10 hrs (local type III affecting dermal blood vessels) |
|
SLE – immune complex deposition in ____
associated with _____. |
deposition in blood vessel walls and kidney glomeruli
low complement levles, hypergammaglobulinemia, presence of circulating ICs, autoantibody production |
|
Subtypes of Type IV hypersensitivity: IVa
T cell involved cytokines other cells target organs ex: |
T cell involved: CD4+ Th1
cytokines: IFNg, TNFa, IL2 other cells: macs, NK target organs: skin, lung, GI ex: contact derm, TB |
|
Subtypes of Type IV hypersensitivity: IVb
T cell involved cytokines other cells target organs ex: |
T cell involved: CD4+ Th2
cytokines: IL4, 5, 13 other cells: eos, B cells target organs: skin, lung, GI ex: chronic allergic disease |
|
Subtypes of Type IV hypersensitivity: IVc
T cell involved cytokines other cells target organs ex: |
T cell involved: CD4+ Th17
cytokines: IL17, 21, 22 other cells: neut target organs: skin, lung, GI ex: psoriasis |
|
Subtypes of Type IV hypersensitivity: IVd
T cell involved cytokines other cells target organs ex: |
T cell involved: CD8+
cytokines: – other cells: – target organs: skin, systemic ex: contact derm |
|
Typical agents causing contact derm (5)
|
nickel
quaternium–15 (cosmetics) bacitracin poison ivy (urushiol a hapten) resin |
|
Serum sickness usually presents ____ after exposure to drug
|
4–10 days (time to class–switch)
|
|
What is nephelometry
|
detection of Ig where turbidity is measured by pattern of scattered light.
works best in ag–ab equivalence More sensitive than radial immunodefusion and works for 1–10 mcg/ml |
|
What is radial immunodiffusion?
|
Antiserum mixed into a warm gel matrix, poored into flat plate. Ad antigen and watch for diffusion (precipitin line seen at zone of equivalence)
Can measure <10 mcg/mL |
|
What is the Laurell Rocket method
|
Add sample to gel plates with antiserum, apply voltage. precipitin line occurs in rocket shape.
Quantitative/qualitative |
|
If antibody excess _____
equivalence______ antigen excess______ (best tests) |
ab excess: immunoblotting, ELISA
equivalence: radial immunodiffusion, double immunodiffusion, nephelometry ag excess: radioimmunoassay, eLISA |
|
What is double immunodiffusion?
|
aka ouchterlony method
holes in agarose gel, antigen in wells and serum in adjacent wells and look for precipitin line |
|
What is ELISA
|
identify bound protein by an antibody, which is conjugated to a label. good in ab or ag excess.
detect signal using spectrophotometer, fluorometer, luminometer direct assay: ag, primary ab conjugate indirect assay: ag, primary ab, 2ndary ab conjugate capture assay: capture ab, ag, ab, 2ndary ab |
|
What is Western blot?
|
antibody excess assy for recognizing proteins through sds page gel, transfer to nitrocellulose membrane, add specific ab and secondary ab, and enzyme to get band
useful for: borrelia burgdorferi, HHV6/7, HIV, HTLV, prion, rsv, SARS, VZV, hepB, lyme |
|
What is immunofixation electrophoresis
|
IFE measures immunodiffusion against an antiserum. through a gel
Good to confirm monoclonal gammothy (heavy/light chain class) |
|
What is Immunocap method?
|
SAndwhich eLISA technique with fluorescent tag
|
|
Flow cytometry: HLA–DR is a marker of ....
|
CD4 or CD8 activation
|
|
Flow cytometry: CD25 is a marker of ....
|
activated T cells (regular expression)
T regs (high expression) |
|
These mitogens in proliferation assay test cell surface signaling
|
PHA, PWM, ConA, anti–CD3 ab
|
|
These mitogens in proliferation assay bypass proximal signaling
|
phorbol ester (PMA)
calcium ionophore (ionomycin) |
|
This mitogen has b cell proliferation activity along with T cell proliferaation
|
Pokeweed mitogen
|
|
What is DTH testing
|
Test for invivo T cell fxn using previously exposed antigen.
Candida, trichophyton, tetanus, mumps |
|
Flow cytometry: CD19 is a marker of...
|
B cells (early–plasmablasts, not on plasma cells)
|
|
Flow cytometry: CD20 is a marker of...
|
pre–B cells and B cell blasts
|
|
Lack of switched and unswitched memory B cells.
markers? disease? |
unswitched (IgD+ CD27+)
switched (IgD–, CD27+) CVID |
|
Mitogens for B cell proliferation
|
Pokeweed mitogen, tetanus toxoid, SAC (staph aureus Cowan I)
|
|
Measuring NK function
|
perforin and granzyme B expression (defective in HLH)
expression of CD107a (marker of degranulation) |
|
Chediak Higashi
sx dx |
Sx: neutropenia, recurrent skin/sinus/pulm infxn, oculocutaneous albinism, mitral regurg, neuropathy
Dx: giant granules on smear, mutations in LYST1q42 |
|
LAD1
sx dx |
Sx: recurrent infxn lung/GI/skin, poor wound healing, delayed umbilical cord separation, cigarette paper scarring
Dx: missing CD18 on flow (poor chemotaxis and leukocyte adhesion) |
|
Rac2 deficiency
sx genetic transmission function |
Ras–related C3 botulinum toxin substrate deficiency
Sx: simialr to LAD1 (infxn lung/GI/skin, poor wound heal, delay cord sep, cig paper scarring) autosomal dominant adhesion problems d/t RAC involvement in actin cytoskeleton regulation |
|
What is the basophil activation test
|
Use IL–3 primed basophils, stim with allergens in vitro, measure LTC4, LTD4, LTE4 by ELISA
|
|
What is the cellular allergen stimulation test (CAST)
|
Quantitative measure of leukotriene release.
High sensitivity but low specificity for allergy to inhalants. |
|
What is the flow cytometric basophil activation test (FAST)
|
Detects CD63 expression of basophils after allergen stimulation
|
|
This has high diagnositic efficiency for detecting stinging insect allergy
|
CAST and FAST
|
|
how do you measure interleukins and TNF
|
sandwich ELISA
|
|
how do you measure prostaglandins?
|
radioimmunoassay (RIA)
|
|
How do you measure TLR?
|
RT PCR on RNA samples
Flow cytometry Functional study to test TLR1–9 production by RT–PCR, ELISA and flow |
|
how do you measure Fas (CD95, or Apo1)
|
Flow cytometry for surface expression of Fas and FasL
ELISA for sFAS and sFASL TUNEL reaction to measure apoptosis (labels tdt breaks) |
|
how do you measure bradykinin
|
RIA
|
|
CD1
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
(five subsets CD1a–e
CD1a aka Leu6 APCs Ig superfamily (binds B2 microglobulin) Presents lipid Ag to T cells |
|
CD2
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
LFA2, e rosette receptor
early T and NK cells Ig superfamily Binds LFA3 (CD58) on APC, activates T's, cytokine, T & APC adhesion, blocks apoptosis of activated T's |
|
CD3
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka –
T cells, plasma cells, macs (NOT ON NK) Ig superfamily, delta, epsilon, g, z, chains required for TCR expression/signal transduction |
|
CD14
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka LPS receptor
Macs and monos pattern recognition receptor Detects lipotechoic acid (gram +), LPS (gram – , mycobac, fungi), IL–12 & IFNg produxn |
|
CD16 (A)
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka FcgR3A, low affinity IgGR
NK, granulocytes, macs – ADCC |
|
CD16 (B)
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka FcgR3B, low affinity IgGR
Neutrophils Most common IgG FcR Phagocytosis |
|
CD18
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka Beta2 chain
neut, mac, monos, NK combines with alphaL(in LFA1/CD11aCD18), alphaM (in MAC1 &CR3/CD11bCD18), alphaX (in p150,95 & CR4/CD11c/CD18) adhesion/signaling. defect ––> LAD1 |
|
CD19
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka –
preB cells, B cells, follicular DCs co receptor with CD21 B cell ontogeny and activation |
|
CD20
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka L26, MS4A1
B cells (after CD19 expr), follicular DCs transmembrane phosphoprotein (like Ca influx channel protein) B cell activation/signaling |
|
CD21
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka CR2, C3d receptor, EBV receptor
Mature B cells and follicular DCs – Binds EBV, HHV8, C3d, CD23. CD21loBcells associated c CVID class Ia |
|
CD22
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka Bcell adhesion molecul (BL–CAM)
B cells – Blocks B cells |
|
CD23
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka low affinity IgE receptor (FceR2)
activated mature B cells, follicular DCs type C lectin Bcell ontogeny & activation |
|
CD25
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka IL2 Ralpha chain
activated B's and T's – Suppress self reactive T's & NKs, prevent CTL, cytolysis, elevated in HLH |
|
CD27
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka TNFRSF7
memory B's TNF receptor superfamily Bcell activation/Ig prodxn |
|
CD31
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka PECAM–1
endothelial cells, plt, monos, macs Ig superfamily cell adhesion and binds CD38 |
|
CD32
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka FcgR2 (types a, b, c,)
WBCs – Binds Fc of IgG to remove foreign antigens. binds IVIG |
|
CD34
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
–
adult hematopoietic stem cells – adhesion moelcul and binds CD62L |
|
CD35
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka CR1, C3b and C4b receptor
WBCs – Binds immune complexes coated with C3b, C4b. Cofactor for factor I mediated cleavage |
|
CD40
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka TNFRSF
APCs – T cell dpdt Ig switching, B cells, defective in HIGM3 |
|
CD44
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
–
activated B's and T's surface glycoprotein cell adhesion |
|
CD45
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka leukocyte common antigen (LCA)
naive T's (RA) and memory/activated Ts (RO) protein tyrosine phosphatase defective in SCID |
|
CD46
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka membrane cofactor protein (MCP)
all cells (no RBCs) – cofactor for factor I–mediated cleavage, adenovirus receptor |
|
CD49
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka very late antigen (VLA a–f)
WBCs – receptor for fibronectin, VCAM, other cell adhesion |
|
CD52
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka CAMPATH1 antigen
mature lymphs – target for Campath (alemtuzumab) used for CLL |
|
CD54
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka DAF (decay accelerating factor)
Hematopoeitic cells, epithelial cells, cell matrix – Binds C3bBb & C4b2a to accelerate C3 convertase decay. Deficient in PNH |
|
CD58
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka LFA3
WBCs – Binds CD2 and adhesion |
|
CD59
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka protecting, complement regulatory molecule
all cells – binds C8 or C9 and blocks MAC formation |
|
CD62 (E)
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka E selectin, ELAM1, SELE
endothelium – ligand for CD15s, CD44, CD162. leukocyte rolling. defect ––> LAD2 |
|
CD62L
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka LECAM1, SELL, L selectin
T, B, Nk Lymphocyte homing to HEV of lymphnode. cinbds CD34, CD15s, MAdCAM–1 |
|
CD62P
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka PADGEM, SELP, P selectin
plts, activated endothelial cells (membranes of weibel–palade bodies) – binds CD162, rolling on activated endothelial cells. Defect ––> LAD2 |
|
CD64
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka FCgR1, high affinity IgG receptor
APC (macs, neut, eos) – ADCC |
|
CD95
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka Fas, Apo–1, TNFRSF6
activated B's and T's – apoptosis when ligated by FasL. Defect––>ALPS |
|
CD106
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka VCAM1
expressed on endothelium, fibroblasts, resp epithelium – cell adhesion molecule for VLA–4 (a4b1), a4b7 (act–1, LPAM–1) |
|
CD154
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka CD40L, TRAP
T cells – REgulate B cell fxn, Defect ––> XHIGM |
|
CD158
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka KIR, (KIR2DL, NKG2A)
NK & T – Binds HLA class I, inhibits Nk or T cytotoxicity |
|
CD159
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka NKG2a
NK – modulates NK killing |
|
What is OKT3
|
monoclonal antibody clone
recognizes human CD3 in treatment of solid organ transplant rejection and T cell ALL. Induces activation then apoptosis of T cells causing immunosuppression |
|
CD162
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka P–selectin glycoprotein ligand–1 (PSGL–1)
myeloid cells, activated T cells – adhesion with endothelial cells |
|
CD178
– aka – expressed on – structure – function |
aka cd95 ligand, FASL
activated CTLs – apoptosis fas–expressing cells |
|
Types of receptors required by phagocytic cells
|
mannose receptors
scavenger receptors toll–like receptors opsonin receptors |
|
Molecules missing in LAD
|
CD18, part of...
– CD11a/CD18 (LFA–1) – CD11b/CD18 (Mac–1) – CD11c/CD18 (p150/95) |
|
Respiratory burst: Contents of NADPH oxidase system
|
p22 phox
p40 phox p47 phox p67 phox gp91 phox rac |
|
Describe respiratory burst
|
NADPH oxidase converts O2 to superoxide ion ––> superoxide dismutase converts superoxide ion to hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
1. MPO uses h2o2 to turn CL– and Br– into hypochloraite and hypobromite to kill bacteria 2. iNOS uses NO + h2o2 –> perioxynitrite radicals 3. Perioxidase uses h202+Fe––> hydroxyl radicals |
|
CGD is due to _____ which results in infections with __________ organisms (ex: ______).
|
Mutations in NADPH genes
Catalase–positive organisms Staph aureus, serratia marcescens, Pseudomonas, Salmonella |
|
Old test for CGD
|
Nitro blue tetrazolium (NBT) reduction test
– qualitative – mix neuts with NBT and stim with phorbol myristate acetate – normal neuts reduce NBT and change color from yellow to blue |
|
New test for CGD
|
Dihydrorhodamine 123 (DHR) oxidation test
–quantitative and distinguishes X–linked and autosomal and carriers – DHR uptake by phagocytes and oxidized to green fluorescent compound by NADPH – measure fluroescence with flow |
|
Another test for CGD (but not main)
|
chemiluminescence assay
– uses scintillation counter to detect light from interaction of ROS with ingested microorganisms – more sensitive than NBT –can't distinguish different types – if pts have CD11/CD18 deficiency ––> normal chemiluminescence with soluble stimulators but delayed after opsonized particles |
|
X linked CGD is due to mutation in ______
|
gp91 phox
|
|
Autosomal recessive CGD is due to a mutation in ____
|
gp47 phox
|
|
What is a hybridoma?
|
Cell fusion of antibody producing B cell and myeloma cel ––> used to make monoclonal antibodies
– myeloma cells must lack Ab prodxn and hypoxanthine–guaninephosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT) so that can stop growth in HAT medium |
|
How are hybridomas made
|
Immunize mouse with antigen, remove spleen cells making ab ––> use PEG to fuse (spleen cells that have HGPRT gene but don't express) with myeloma cells (lacking Ab and HGPRT gene) ––> take misture o hybrid cells, unfused myeloma and unfused spleen ––> transfer to HAT where only hybridomas survive ––> select hybridoma that makes AB to Ag and clone it.
|
|
Monoclonals antibodies that end in –omab:
mouse v. human type means of synthesis |
– 100% mouse
– completely made in mouse with murine variable and constant regions mOuse |
|
Monoclonals antibodies that end in –ximab:
mouse v. human type means of synthesis |
– Chimera. 30–35% mouse
– Combines murine variable with human constant region to avoid production of human antimouse antibodies miXing human and mouse |
|
Monoclonals antibodies that end in –zumab:
mouse v. human type means of synthesis |
– Humanized (<10% mouse)
– murine hypervariable or CD regions with rest human Abs humans at the Zoo are humaniZed |
|
Monoclonals antibodies that end in –umab:
mouse v. human type means of synthesis |
– Human (no mouse)
– clone human variable regions into bacteriophage, expressed as a fusion protein on vell surface, multiplied in bacteria and select phage with desired Ag spcificity hUman |
|
What does –cept indicate?
|
Fusion proteins created by joining 2+ genes that were originally coded for separate antibodies
|
|
What does –mab indicate?
|
monoclonal antibody
|
|
Nomenclature of product source identifiers:
a, e, i, o, u, xi axo xizu |
rat, hamster, primate, mouse, human
chimera rat/mouse humanized and chimeric |
|
Abciximab
– target antigen molecule – application |
Integrin alpha2beta3
cardiac ischemic complications |
|
Adalimumab
– aka – target antigen molecule – application – AE – testing after taking |
Humira
TNFalpha RA, ankspond, Crohn's, psor arthr, psor, JIA Injxn rxn, URI, TB, malig, hepB, demyelinating dz, cytopenias, heart failure, lupus TB annually, watch for heart failure, LFT, no live vaccines |
|
Alemtuzumab (Campath)
– target antigen molecule – application |
CD52
CLL |
|
Basiliximab
– target antigen molecule – application – AEs |
IL2 receptor alpha chain (CD25)
transplant rejection N/abdpain, constipation, UTI/URI |
|
Belimumab
– target antigen molecule – application |
B cell activating factor
SLE |
|
Bevacizumab
– target antigen molecule – application |
Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
colorectal cancer |
|
Brentuximab vedotin
– target antigen molecule – application |
CD30
anaplastic large cell ymphoma (ALCL), Hodgkin's lymphoma |
|
Canakinumab (ILaris)
– target antigen molecule – application – AE s – precautions |
IL–1beta
Cyropyrin associated periodic syndrome (CAPS) injection site reaction, incr infection, TB reactivation, malignancies eval for latent TB, avoid live vaccines, watch lipids |
|
Cetuximab (ERbitux)
– target antigen molecule – application |
Epidermal growth factor receptor
Colorectal cancer, head and neck cancer |
|
Certolizumab pegol
– target antigen molecule – application – AE – testing after taking |
TNF alpha
Crohn's disease, RA serious infxn, malignancie, CHF TB annually, watch for heart failure, LFT, no live vaccines |
|
Daclizumab
– target antigen molecule – application – AEs |
IL–2 receptor alpha chain (CD25)
transplant rejection |
|
Denosumab
– target antigen molecule – application |
RANK ligand
postmenopausal osteoperosis, osolid tumor bony mets |
|
Eculizumab (Solairis)
– target antigen molecule – application |
Complement system protein C5
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) |
|
Efalizumab (Raptiva)
– target antigen molecule – application |
CD11a
Psoriasis |
|
Gemtuzumab
– target antigen molecule – application |
CD33
AML |
|
Golimumab
– target antigen molecule – application – AE – testing after taking |
TNF–alpha
Rheum arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis URI, serious infxn, TB, fungal, hep B reactivation, lymphoma, CHF, demyelinating dz, cytopenia TB annually, watch for heart failure, LFT, no live vaccines |
|
Ibritumomab tiuxetan
– target antigen molecule – application |
CD20
Non hodgkin's lymphoma |
|
Infliximab
– aka – target antigen molecule – application –AEs – testing while taking |
Remicade
TNF alpha RA, Ankspond, Crohn's/UC, Psor arthritis, psorsis acute rxns, infxns, TB, sepsis, T cell lymphoma TB annually, watch for heart failure, LFT, no live vaccines |
|
Ipilimumab (MDX–101)
– target antigen molecule – application |
CTLA–4
Melanoma |
|
Keliximab
– target antigen molecule – application |
CD4
Multiple sclerosis |
|
Mepolizumab
– target antigen molecule – application |
IL–5
Hypereosinophilic syndrome |
|
Murmonab–CD3 (OKT3)
– target antigen molecule – application |
T cell CD3 receptor
transplant rejection |
|
Natalizumab
– target antigen molecule – application |
alpha 4 chain of integrin molecule
multiple sclerosis |
|
Ofatumumab
– target antigen molecule – application |
CD20
CLL |
|
Omalizumab
– target antigen molecule – application |
FceR1
Asthma |
|
Palivizumab (Syangis)
– target antigen molecule – application |
RSV F protein
infants with BPD |
|
Panitumumab
– target antigen molecule – application |
epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFr)
colorectal cancer |
|
Ranibizumab
– target antigen molecule – application |
vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF–A)
macular degeneration |
|
Rituximab
– target antigen molecule – application |
CD20
autoimmune diseases, B cell lymphomas |
|
Tocilizumab
– target antigen molecule – application |
anti–IL6R
Rheumatoid arthritis |
|
Tositumomab
– target antigen molecule – application |
CD20
Non–hodkin's lymphoma |
|
Trastuzumab
– target antigen molecule – application |
ERbB2
Breast cancer |
|
Etanercept
– aka – target antigen molecule – application – AEs – testing after taking |
– aka enbrel
–TNF alpha antagonist (and TNF beta) –Fusion of TNFreceptor with IgG1 Fc segment (adds stability and deliverability) –RA, psoriatic arthritis, ank spond, plaque psoriasis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis – mild inject rxn, infection, sepsis, neuro/heme/malig –TB annually, watch for heart failure, LFT, no live vaccines |
|
How do normal host cells prevent immune complex activation?
|
factor H and I inactivate C3b to iC3b inhibiting IC formation
|
|
How are ICs eliminated
|
After IC formation, C3b binds ICs, and then binds CR1 on RBCs. RBCs go to the liver and spleen ––> Macs eliminate the ICs
|
|
IC Mediated diseases
|
SLE (DNA, nucleooproteins, others)
serum sickness (various ag) post–strep glomerulonephritis (strep cell wall ag) polyarteritis nodosa (HBV surface ag) cryoglobulinemia (Hep C virus, RF) |
|
Laboratory testing for circulating ICs
|
–C1q, C4b, C3b
–Conglutinin (binds iC3b) –Raji cell (Burkitt's cell line with receptors for C1q, C3b, C3bi, C3d, and ICs bind to RAJI cells which can be detected by antihuman IgG) –C1q binding assay (radiolabeled C1q binds cicurlating ICs) |
|
Most common cause for low complement
|
Poorly handled specimen, repeat the test
|
|
How is AH50 tested?
|
Measure lysis of unsenitized rabbit RBCs
|
|
How is CH50 tested?
|
Measure lysis of sheep RBCs, sensitized with rabbit IgM
|
|
How is MBL pathway function tested?
|
Measured by ELISA. Coat wells with mannan and incubate with patient serum. Measure activation by prodxn of C4b and C4d
|
|
Difference between acquired v. hereditary complement defects
|
Acquired has low complement and hereditary has absent complement.
Acquired usually has multiple low components, while hereditary usually only has one. |
|
Component split product testing
– purpose – types |
Purpose: to detect if activation has occurred (which may be masked by decreases in complement components from consumption)
–C4a/d ––> classical or lectin –Bb ––> alternative pathway – C3a, iC3b, Ca, soluble Cb–9 ––> terminal pathway activation |
|
Predictor of severe disease and poor outcome in lupus nephritis
|
C3 and C4
|
|
Total deficiency of C3 associated with _____
|
membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
|
|
Difference between HAE and Acquired AE
|
HAE has low C1 inh level and/or function (except type 3) but normal C1q
AAE has low inhibitor, function, and low C1q. Both have low C4, which can be used as a screening test. |
|
C1q autoantibody associated with ____
|
Hypocomplementemic vasculitis
|
|
C1 inhibitor autoantibody associated with ____
|
Some patients with acquired angioedema
|
|
C3 nephritic factor associated with
|
SLE (some pts)
Dense deposit disease (MPGN type 2) partial lipodystrophy |
|
Low TRECS seen in
|
SCID
22q11 deficiency down syndrome (in newborns) HIV infection |
|
RT PCR can be used to diagnosis____
|
genetic diseases
studying RNA viruses (influenza A and HIV) |
|
In situ hybridization used for diagnosis of...
|
ALL
DiGeorge Down's |
|
B cells originate in _____
|
Mostly bone marrow
Also fetal liver and neonatal spleen |
|
Growth factor produced by stromal cells in bone marrow and thymus, required for B and T cell development
|
IL–7
|
|
After negative selection, where do B cells go
|
Migrate from bone periphery, to central sinusoid along reticulum processes. Enter the central sinus and blood vessels to get to secondary lymphoid tissues
|
|
Thymus is formed from _____
|
endoderm and mesoderm of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouche
|
|
Thymic zones
|
Sub capsular zone
Cortex Medulla |
|
What does the subcapsular zone contain
|
most primitive lymphocyte progenitors
|
|
What does the cortex of the thymus contain
|
small lymphocytes undergoing division, expression, and selection of T cell receptors
|
|
What does the medulla of the thymus contain
|
lymphocytes undergoing final stages of selection/maturation
Hassall's corpuscles (granular cells surrounded by epithelial cells) |
|
Most T cells go to the thymus for maturation, but some migrate to ____.
|
cryptopatches, tiny mucosal lymphoid aggregates under the intestinal epithelium to form specialized T cell populations
|
|
Anatomy of the lymph node
|
Afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels
Capsule (outermost layer) Subcapsular or marginal sinus (where afferent lymphatics drain) Cortex (contains B cell rich follicles and T–cell parafollicular areas) Medulla (less dense, lymphs, macs, plasma cells, granulocytes) HIgh endothelial venules |
|
Spleen contains ______ of total blood lymphocytes and is mostly ______ pulp (___%)
|
25%
red pulp (80%) |
|
Spleen has no afferent/efferent lymphatic supply
|
No afferent.
Lymphocytes come in through splenic artery vasculature and out through efferent lymphatic vessels |
|
Splenic anatomy
|
Periarteriolar lymphid sheath (inner region of white pulp with T cels)
B cell corona (surrounds PALS and B cell follicles) Splenic artery, (branches along trabeculae of capsule) |
|
Sinuses and their drainage
|
sinuses listen to the following radio channels
FM AM PS SS Frontal sinus, Maxillary sinus, Anterior ethmoids drain into the Middle Meatus Posterior ethmoids, Sphenoid sinus drain into Sphenoethmoidal recess above the Superior turbinate |
|
Paranasal sinus absent at birth
|
Frontal sinus
|
|
From a coronal view:
sinus at the top fleshy part in middle fleshy part in bottom sinus at the bottom |
Ethmoid sinus
Concha bullosa Inferior turbinate Maxillary sinus |
|
From a sagittal view
sinus in hte middle sinus in the back |
posterior ethmoid sinus
Sphenoid sinus |
|
Infections to middle ear travel from nasopharynx via ____
|
pharyngeal ostium of eustachian tube
|
|
tympanic membrane is innervated by ____ which only perceives ______
|
auriculotemporal nerve
pain |
|
Asthmatic sputum contains...
|
Curschmann's spirals (mucus corkscrews)
Creola bodies (epithelial cell clusters) Charcot–Leyden crystals: eos and granule membrane lysophospholipase Eos Metachromatic cells |
|
Asthma v. COPD
– surface epithelium – reticular basement membrane – bronchial mucous cells – bronchial smooth muscle – mucus histochemistry – cellular infilatrate – cytokines |
A: Fragile; C: not fragile
A: thickened/hyaline; C: normal A: poss metaplasia; C: Meta/hyperplasia A: enlarged in large airways; C: small airways A: no change; C: Incr acidic glycoprotein A: CD3/4/25+, marked eos/mast; C: CD3/8/ 68/25+; VLA–1+ HLADR+, mild eo, incr mast A: hyperinflation, airwayplug; C: mucus, small airway involvement, prominent emphysema |
|
Epidermal cells
|
Keratinocytes
Melanocytes Langerhan's cells epidermal lymphocytes (mostly CD8+) |
|
Cytokines and receptors produced by keratinocytes
|
MHCII proteins
IL–1 antimicrobial peptides TSLP RANKL |
|
Langerhans' cell histiocytosis
pathophys: sx: |
clonal proliferation of langerhans' cells (immature DCs)
fever, lethargy, wt loss, multifocal orga involvement (bone, skin, BM, LN, endocrine, lungs) |
|
Layers of the basement membrane (dermoepidermal junction)
|
Lamina lucida (extracellular part o hemidesmosomes)
Lamina densa (collagen IV and laminin network) Sublamina densa (anchoring fibrils, collagen VII) |
|
Cells in Dermis
|
Fibroblastas
Mast cells Macrophages Dermal dendritic cells Dermal T cells |
|
Fibroblasats secrete
|
eotaxin (if stim by IL–4)
IL–1 IL–6 |
|
Dermal dendritic cells
–labeled by express |
labeled by factor XIIIa
express DC–SIGN/CD209+, CD1b, CD1c, CD11c |
|
Dermal T cells express a carbohydrate epitope called _____ involved in _______.
|
CLA–1 (cutaneous lymphocyte antigen)
homing to the skin |
|
Pemphigus Vulgaris
– presentation – serum abs – tissue immunofluorescence |
Flaccid>tense bullae, crusting, Nikolsky's sign (scalp, chest, intertriginous areas, oral mucosa)
IgG autoAbs to desmoglein 1 and 3 Epidermal IgG and C3 cell surface staining of suprabasal layers |
|
Pemphigus foliaceous
– presentation – serum abs – tissue immunofluorescence |
Superficial bullae, erosions, scale with crusting, Nikolsky's
IgG autoAbs to desmoglein 1 Epidermal igG and C3 cell surface staining of granular layer |
|
Paraneoplastic pemphigus
– presentation – serum abs – tissue immunofluorescence |
flaccid bullae, lichenoid/EMultiforme like lesions, affects mucosa, Nikolsky's
IgG autoAbs to plakin proteins, desmoglein 1, 3 Epidermal igG and C3 cell surface and basement membrane zone staining |
|
IgA pemphigus
– presentation – serum abs – tissue immunofluorescence |
pustules, erythema, flaccid lakes of pus
IgA autoAbs to desmoglein 3, desmocollin 1 Epidermal IgA cell surface staining |
|
Bullous Pemphigoid
– presentation – serum abs – tissue immunofluorescence |
tense>flaccid bullae, pruritus, Nikolsky's (10%)
IgG autoAbs to BP180, BP230 Linear basement membrane zone IgG and C3 |
|
Cicatricial pemphigoid
– presentation – serum abs – tissue immunofluorescence |
Erosions, rare vesicles or bullae, scarring sequelae
IgG autoabs to integrins, BP180, laminins Linear basement membrane zone IgG and C3 |
|
Herpes gestationis
– presentation – serum abs – tissue immunofluorescence |
tense bullae, 2nd tri pregnancy, pruritis
complement fixing, basement membrane zone and epidermal. AutoAb to BP180 Linear basement membrane zone C3 |
|
Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
– presentation – serum abs – tissue immunofluorescence |
Tense bullae, erosions, scarring (often at sites of trauma or oral mucosa)
IgG autoAb to collagen VII Linear basement membrane zone C3 and IgG |
|
Linear IgA bullous dermatosis
– presentation – serum abs – tissue immunofluorescence |
tense bullae, oral involvement
IgA autoab, LABD97, LAD–1 LInear basement membrane zone IgA |
|
If suspected immunobullous disease always get _______
|
2 biopsies
one shave bx of intact vesicle/bulla for H&E one perilesional tissue for Immunofluorescence |
|
Dermatitis herpetiformis
– presentation – serum abs – tissue immunofluorescence |
small bullae on elbows/knees, pruritic, assoc with celiac
IgA autoAb to epidermal transglutaminase Granular basement membrane zone IgA with stippling in dermal papillae |
|
Bullous lupus erythematosus
– presentation – serum abs – tissue immunofluorescence |
Tense bullae, photo distributed
IgG autoAb to collagen VII Linear basement membrane zone IgG; may show granular IgM and c3 basement membrane zone |
|
Which condition (pemphigus vulgaris, bullous pemphigoid, or dermatitis herpetiformis) is the most likely to show a positive Nikolsky's sign?
|
pemphigus vulgaris
|
|
Which condition(s) (pemphigus vulgaris, bullous pemphigoid, or dermatitis herpetiformis) are extremely pruritic
|
bullous pemphigoid, dermatitis herpetiformis
|
|
In pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid, what two molecules react with antigens in the basement membrane zone?
|
Immunoglobulin G and C3 complement
|
|
Autoimmune skin disease: SLE
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern – Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens – direct IF of tissue |
peripheral, homogenous, nucleolar, speckled
nDNA/dsDNA, ssDNA, histones, nucleolar RNA, ribonucleoproteins, cardiolipin, Sm (smith), U1–snRNP, HMG–17 2+ granular Ig/complement deposits at basement membrane zone (IgG, M, and/or A with c3) in involved & uninvolved skin. |
|
Autoimmune skin disease: Discoid lupus
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern – Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens – direct IF of tissue |
No abs circulating
non detected 2+ granular Ig/complement deposits at basement membrane zone (IgG, M, and/or A with c3) in involved |
|
Autoimmune skin disease: Subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern – Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens – direct IF of tissue |
Speckled
SS–A (Ro) and SS–B (La) particulate intercellular staining with/without granular immune deposits at basement membrane zone |
|
Autoimmune skin disease: Neonatal lupus
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern – Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens – direct IF of tissue |
Speckled
SS–A (Ro) and SS–B (La) Granular igG (transplacental) at basement membrane zone |
|
Autoimmune skin disease: Drug induced lupus
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern – Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens – direct IF of tissue |
peripheral homogenous
Histones granular immune deposits at basement membrane zone |
|
Autoimmune skin disease: Cutaneous scleroderma
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern – Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens – direct IF of tissue |
Peripheral
SCL–70, SS–A(Ro), SS–B(La) no characteristic changes (occ vascular staining) |
|
Autoimmune skin disease: Limited Scleroderma (CREST)
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern – Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens – direct IF of tissue |
Centromere
centromere, SCL–70, U1–snRNP, HMG17 no characteristic changes (occ vascular staining) |
|
Autoimmune skin disease: Progressive systemic sclerosis
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern – Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens – direct IF of tissue |
Nucleolar speckeled
SCL–70, U1 and U3–snRNP, fibrillarin, RNA pol I, II, III no characteristic changes (occ vascular staining) |
|
Autoimmune skin disease: Dermatomyositis, polymyositis
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern – Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens – direct IF of tissue |
Speckled, nucleolar
Jo–1, PM–SCL, MI–2, U1–snRNP, SS–a (Ro) no characteristic changes (occ vascular staining and lichenoid features) |
|
Autoimmune skin disease: SJogren's
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern – Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens – direct IF of tissue |
fine speckled, nucleolar
Ss–A (Ro), SS–B (La), histones, and U1–snRNP no characteristic changes (occ vascular staining) |
|
Autoimmune skin disease: Mixed connective tissue disease
– indirect immunofluorescence pattern – Autoabs a/which nuclear antigens – direct IF of tissue |
speckled
U1–snRNP and PM–scl no characteristic changes (occ vascular staining, granular deposits at BMZ, lichenoid features) |
|
What are defensins?
– cytokines that stimulate synthesis |
antimicrobial peptides in the skin, abundant in neutrophil granules, that kill bacteria and fungi
IL–1 and TNF stimulate increased synthesis |
|
What do M cells in the GALT do?
|
Microfold cells have microvilli that help in antigen sampling
|
|
How do lymphocytes reach and leave the GALT
|
reach via high endothelial venules (HEV)
leave via efferent lymphatics |
|
Which cytokines are implicated in the pathogenesis of EoE
|
IL–5 and Eotaxin 3
|
|
Endoscopy findings associated with EoE
|
greater than 15 eos/hpf while on PPI x 4–8 weeks
linear furrows white papules/plaques concentric rings |
|
How to screen for celiac?
|
tTG IgA level and serum IgA
|
|
Celiac is due to sensitivity to_____.
|
gliadin (alcohol soluble portion of fluten)
|
|
CEliac disease causes the following histopathologic findings.
|
Loss of intestinal villi
crypt hyperplasia llymphocytic infiltrate |
|
CEliac disease symptoms
|
malabsorption, chronic diarrhea, steatorrhea, abdominal distension, flatulance, weight loss, failure to thrive,
In absence of GI sx: oral ulcers, dermatitis herpetiformis |
|
What is Type I error?
|
When you falsely reject the null hypothesis (think something is significant when it is not), alpha
|
|
What is Type II error?
|
When you fail to reject the null hypothesis, when it is actually false (think there's no difference when there actually is) (beta)
|
|
What is the odds ratio?
|
Odds that you were exposed give you have the disease/ odds that you were not exposed given that you don't have the disease
|
|
What is the relative risk
|
Ratio of the risk of disease among people who are exposed / risk among people who are not exposed
|
|
What is sensitivity?
|
Likelihood of testing positive if you have the disease
|
|
What is specificity
|
Likelihood of testing negative if you do not have the disease
|
|
Clinical Evidence Ratings (I, II–1, II–2, II–3, III)
|
I: 1+ good RCT
II–1: 1+ good controlled trial (no randomization) II–2: cohort/case–ctrl II–3: time series III: opinion, descriptive studies, expert committee reports |
|
Clinical recommendations (A, B, C, D)
|
A: good scientific evidence, benefits> risks
B: fair scientific evidence, benefits > risks C: fair scientific evidence, benefits = risks D: fair scientific evidence, risk > benefits I: lacking evidence, cannot assess risk/benefit |
|
Belmont report principles
|
respect for persons (autonomy)
beneficience justice |
|
Elements of informed consent
|
competence
disclosure understanding voluntariness consent |
|
What symptoms of allergic rhinitis are caused by these mediators?
histamine: PGD2: leukotrienes: kinins: |
histamine: itch, sneeze, rhinorrhea
PGD2: nasal congestion leukotrienes: nasal congestion kinins: nasal congestion and/or blockage |
|
Immediate allergic response in AR due to _____ cells and ______ mediators
|
Mast cells
preformed mediators (histamine, tryptase, kinins like kallidin and bradykinin) newly formed mediators (PGD2, LTC4, D4, E4) |
|
Late allergic response in AR due to ______ and ____ mediators
|
BAsophils, eosinphils, infiltrating lymphocytes (esp Th2 CD4+)
Il3, IL4, IL–13, GMCSF, stem cell factor, eotaxin, RANTES (CCL5) |
|
Differential for non allergic rhinitis
|
NARES
Vasomotor Meds Atrophic Hormonal Infectious (cold) Occupational (flour in bakers, latex HCWs, pet dander) Misc (anatomic, tumor, systemic dz, CSF rhinorrhea) |
|
Vasomotor rhinitis
triggers: treatment: |
triggers: irritant, gustatory, cold, temp, strong scents (tobacco, perfume, cleaners)
treatment: intranasal ipratropium |
|
NARES
sx: tx: |
stands for nonallergic rhinitis with eosinophilic syndrome
Sx: AR sx, eosinophilia on nasal smear in absence of incr IgE, middle aged adults, nasal polyps (may be prodrome to AERD) Tx: intranasal steroids |
|
Atrophic Rhinitis
– features – tx |
Non inflammatory usu in middle–aged and elderly, but also females at onset of puberty
Sx: nasal congestion, nasal pain from dryness, nasal crusting, foul smell Tx: nasal saline irrigation, topical abx |
|
Medication induced rhinitis – common meds
|
ASA, NSAIDS,
decongestants (rebound) alphablockers, beta blockers, anti–HTN ACEIs OCPs sildenafil intranasal cocaine or methamphetamine |
|
Hormone induced rhinitis
– typical situations – tx |
OCP, pregnancy, menstrual, hypothyroid
steroids don't help rhinitis of pregnancy |
|
For CSF rhinorrhea, usually have history of ______ and you should check _____.
|
Trauma
Beta2–transferrin |
|
How does nasal congestion or rhinorrhea develop in hypothyroidism?
|
TSH increases edema in turbinates
|
|
Common pathogens for acute bacterial sinusitis (and less frequent pathogens).
|
Common: strep pneumo, Moraxella catarrhalis (100% beta lactamase positive), Haemophilus influenzae (50% beta lactamase positive) ––> need b–lactamase inhibitor
Less common: Staph aureus, group A strep, anaerobes |
|
Diagnosis of Acute Rhinosinusitis
|
2 Major or 1 major and 2 minor
Major: purulent rhinorrhea, nasal congestion/obstruction, facial congestion, facial pain, fever, hyosmia/anosmia Minor: headache, ear pain/pressure, bad breath, dental pain, fatigue, cough |
|
Gravity cannot drain this sinus
|
Maxillary sinus
|
|
Treatment of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis
|
1. Augmentin x 10–14 d peds (5–7 d adult)
2. PCN allergic: Fluoroquinolone or doxy high resistance to macrolides and bactrim |
|
Definition of recurrent sinusitis
|
>=4 episodes in 1 year ––> eval for underlying inflammation, allergy, immunodeficiency, or anatomic abnormalities
|
|
Chronic rhinosinusitis
– duration – diagnosis |
>8–12 weeks
>=2 symptoms (nasal obstruction/congestion, facial pain/pressure/fullness, purulent anterior/posterior rhinorrhea, hyposmia/anosmia) for >12 weeks + documented inflammation (purulence/edema in middle meatus, polyps, imaging) |
|
Chronic rhinosinusitis
– workup |
quantitative immunoglobulin and pneumococcal titers
ciliary function tests sweat test HIV sinus puncture with cultures |
|
Inflammatory mediators in chronic rhinosinusitis
|
IL–1beta, Il–6, IL–8
|
|
_______ is a risk factor for chronic rhinosinusitis
|
Haller cell (a pneumatized ethmoid cell that blocks the ostiomeatal complex)
|
|
Treatment for chronic rhinosinusitis
|
ABx if acute
Treat underlying conditions (AR, GERD, AERD, CF) Topical nasal steroids Surgery if complications or medical tx failure |
|
Complications of sinusitis
|
orbital cellulitis
subperiosteal abscess cavernus sinus thrombosis meningitis subdural/epidural brain abscess osteomyelitis mucocele |
|
CRS with nasal polyps
– differences from CRS without |
Increased incidence of ...
anosmia dustmite sensitization eosinophils on biopsy asthma AERD allergic fungal rhinosinusitis LESS facial pain |
|
Inflammatory mediators in CRS with and without polyps
|
CRS without NP: IL–3, GM–CSF, PGE2
CRS with NP:Il–5, IgE, eotaxin Both: Eosinophil cationic protein, LTC4/D4/E4/B4, Lipoxin A4 |
|
Recurrent acute otitis media is defined as...
|
>=3 episodes in 6 months OR
>=4 episodes within 1 year (with 1 in last 6 months) |
|
Otitis media with effusion can result in
|
– hearing loss (leading cause, usu 25 dB)
– language delay |
|
Treatment of otitis media with effusion
|
3–month exams with baseline hearing test, until resolution or hearing loss documented
If structural damage, recurrent OME, or hearing loss ––> surgery (myrigotomy +/– tubes, adenoidectomy) |
|
Extracranial complications of otitis media
|
TM perforation
Chronic acute otitis media Labyrinthitis or vestibular disturbance Mastoiditis Facial paralysis Subperiosteal abscess |
|
Intracranial complications of otitis media
|
Meningitis
Brain abscess Sinus thrombosis Epidural abscess Subdural empyema |
|
Complications of otitis media with effusion
|
Hearing loss
TM retraction Cholesteatoma |
|
Allergic conjunctivitis is marked by ______ of the conjunctiva
|
limbal sparing
|
|
Best treatments for allergic conjunctivitis
|
H1 receptor antagonists and mast cell stabilizers (olopatadine, ketotifen, azelastine)
|
|
Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
– features – epidemiology – Tx |
– sight threatening, bilateral chronic conjunctival inflammation, severe photophobia, intense itching, papillary hypertrophy, ptosis, thick/ropey discharge, HornerTrantas dots
– young atopic males living in warm/dry climate – Allergen avoidance (occlusive eye tx), high dose pulse topical steroids, mast cell stabilizers (cromolyn), oral antiH, abx/steroid ointments |
|
Atopic keratoconjunctivitis
– features – epidemiology – treatment |
– sight threatening bilateral chronic conjunctival/eyelid inflammation, with chronic pruritus and burning. loss of vision from keratitis, coneal infiltrates, scar, keratoconus, cataracts
– teenagers/young adults with hx atopic derm – allergen avoidance, transient topical corticoseteroid, cromolyn or dual acting meds (h1 blocker and mast cell stabilizer) |
|
Gian papillar conjnctivitis
– features – epidemiology – treatment |
– chronic bilateral inflammation with foreign body intolerance. Ocular itching after lens removal, AM mucus, photophobia, lens intolerance
– affects 20% of contact lens wearers, many with allergy – reduce contact lense wearing |
|
Sight threatening conditions
|
acute glaucoma
scleritis iritis uveitis herpes simplex keratitis |
|
Red eye danger signs (concerning for sight loss)
|
photophobia
blurry vision severe pain colored halos abornmal pupil size ciliary flush |
|
New onset dermatitis in adult with no history of childhood eczema, asthma, allergic rhinitis ––> consider ______
|
cutaneous T cell lymphoma (requires a skin biopsy)
|
|
_____ % of patients with atopic dermatitis will develop asthma.
|
>50%
|
|
Atopic dermatitis has two types of Ag presenting dendritic cells
|
Langerhans cells
inflammatory dendritic epidermal cells (IDECs0 |
|
These chemokines are specific for Atopic dermatitis (3)
|
Cutaneous T cell attacting kemochine (cTACK) and CCL27 and thymus and activation regulated chemokine (TARC)
|
|
Deficienciy in ____ expression in the setting of atopic dermatitis, results in impaired killing of _____.
|
hBD–3 (defensin)
S. Aureus |
|
a ________ polymorphisms that results in impaired expression has been associated with severe atopic dermatitis with frequen bacterial infections
|
TLR2–gene
|
|
Loss of function variants of filaggrin results in atopic dermatitis that is
|
earlier onset
more severe persistent increased risk of assthma |
|
Cytokines involved in early acute atopic dermatitis
|
IL–4, IL–13
|
|
Cytokines involved in chronic atopic dermatitis
|
IL–5, IL–12, IFN gamma
|
|
Cells involved in atopic dermatitis
|
T cells (CD3+, cd$+, CD45RO, CD25+, HLADR+)
Langrehans cells Inflammatory dendritic epidermal cells Eosinophils |
|
Langerhans cells that express Fc epislon RI lack _____ and cotain ______ granules
|
beta chain
Birbeck |
|
IDECs, once activated by FcepisilonRI, stimulate _____ to produce ____, leading to a switch from ____ to _______.
|
naive T cells
IFN–gamma Th1 H2 |
|
Filaggren is expressed _______ (in the nose and lungs)
|
In the anterior vestibulum of the nose
|
|
Which has more FceRI expression: Langerhans cells or IDECs
|
IDECS
|
|
Extrinsic v Intrinsic atopic dermatitis
– aka – differences – similarities |
– aka Atopic eczema (70–80%) v. Nonatopic
–Diff: Atopic has IgE mediated sensitization, incr production of IL–4, 13, 5 – Same: eosinophilia, IL–10 plays immune modulating role |
|
Anterior cataracts are associated with _____, Posterior cataracts are associated with ____.
|
atopic keratoconjunctivitis
Prednisone |
|
Common organisms of infections in the setting of atopic dermatitis
|
S aureus
HSV molluscum contagiosum Pityrosporum orbiculare (aka malassezia furfur) Pityrosporum ovale |
|
Diff'l Diagnosis of atopic dermatitis:
Chronic dermatoses (5) |
Netherton syndrome (congenitally acquired scaly dermatitis with short brittle bamboo hair)
Seborrheic dermatitis (areas with sebaceous glands) Contact dermatitis Nummular eczema (demarcated edges, limb) Lichen simplex chronicus (response to Incr rubbing) |
|
Diff' Diagnosis of stopic dermatitis:
Other categories |
Infxn: Scabies, HIV associated
Malignancy: Cutaneous T cell lymphoma (adult) Immune deficiency: Wiskott Aldrich, SCID, Hyper–IgE, IPEX, Dock8 Metabolic: Zinc, Pyridoxine (VitB6 & niacin), Multiple carboxylase, PKU deficiency Proliferative – Letterer–Siwe disease |
|
eDescribe Zinc deficiency
|
aka acrodermatitis enteropathica
perioral rash necrotic areas around nose infant with eczema who doesn't respond to steroids |
|
Describe pyridoxine deficiency
|
aka Vit B 6 and niacin deficiency
seizures irritability cheilitis |
|
Describe multiple carboxylase deficiency
|
infant with skin rash
alopecia lethargy |
|
Describe phenylketonuria
|
pale pigmentation
blue eyes scleroderma if untreated ––> mental retardation |
|
Describe letterer–Siwe disease
|
Infants with anemia
thrombocytopenia lymphadenopathy histiocytic infiltration of liver, spleen, lymph nodes |
|
What is eczema vaccinatum and what deficiency can contribute to it?
|
Eczema in the setting of smallpox vaccination.
Deficiency of LL–37 antimicrobial peptide |
|
Hallmark of fatal asthma
|
neutrophilic accumulation
|
|
Proinflammatory processes in asthma
|
upregulation of adhesion molecules
arachidonic acid metabolite production (LTB4) Chemokine synthesis (IL–8, MCP1, RANTES) Cytokine secretion (IL–1b, 4,5,9,10,13,16, TNFa, IL–6, GMCSF, TGFb) |
|
oral vitamin D induces the production of this peptide in atopic invidiuals
|
Cathelicidin
|
|
Genetic factors associated with asthm
|
Chromosome 5q, IL–4 gene cluster (polymorphism ––> incr IL–4 transcription, Beta2 gene polymorphisms)
Cd14 (polymorphism ––> high CD14, incr recognition of LPS) Chromosome 20p13 (locus for ADAM33 ––> role in smooth muscle hyperreactivity) Chitinase like proteins |
|
Differential for asthma
|
COPD
CHF PE mechanical obstruction (tumor) GERD Bronchiectasis Lower resp tract infection VCD |
|
Asthma Predictive Index
|
One of major:
– parental asthma – MD dx atopic dermatitis – sensitization to aeroallergens 2+ minor: – food sensitizaiton – >4% eos – Non URI wheezing |
|
For children <4 years old, use long–term control therapy for asthma if...
|
4+ wheezing (>1 d and affected sleep) with + asthma predictive index
Pts needing sx treatment >2d/week x >4weeks Pts requiring oral steroids 2/6months Periods of incr risk (URI season, pollen) |
|
Asthma terms:
Impairment Risk SEverity Control |
Impairment = freq/intensity of sx and fxnal limitation of patient
Risk = likelihood of exacerbation Severity = intesity of disease (assessed prior to longterm control meds) Control = exten to which asthma is ctrled by tx |
|
% of astmatics with GERD
|
45–65%
|
|
Samter's triad
|
asthma
nasal polyps aspirin sensitivity 91–2 hours after ingestion) |
|
Diagnosing exercised induced bronchospasm
|
>15% decrease in FEV1 after exercise challenge test
|
|
Asthma in pregnancy
|
1/3 worsen, 1/3 improve, 1/3 stay the same
preferred SABA albuterol, preferred ICS budesonide |
|
Assessing Asthma Severity: Risk
0–4y 5–11y 12+ |
Exacerbations requiring oral steroids:
0–4y: intermittent = 0–1/year, rest=2+/6 mo or 4/1 year + risk factors for persistent asthma 5–11y: int/mild=0–1/y; mod/sev=2+/y 12+y: int/mild=0–1/y; mod/sev=2+/y |
|
Assessing Asthma Control: Risk
0–4y 5–11y 12+y |
exacerbations requiring steroids:
Well ctrl: 0–1/year Not well ctrl: 2–3/year Poorly ctrl: 3+/y (2+ for 12y+) Should consider: Tx related AEs Progressive loss of lung function |
|
Assessing Asthma Severity: Impairment – Symptoms and SABA use (same for both)
0–4y 5–11y 12+y |
Int | Mild | Mod | Sev
0–4: 0–2d/w | 2+ d/w | daily | 2+/day 5–11: same 12+: same |
|
Assessing Asthma Severity: Impairment – Nighttime awakenings
0–4y 5–11y 12+y |
Int | Mild | Mod | Sev
0–4: 0 d/m | 1–2 d/m | 3–4 d/m | 1+/w 5–11: 0–2d/m | 3–4 d/m | 1+/wk | daily 12+: same |
|
Assessing Asthma Severity: Impairment – lung fxn
0–4y 5–11y 12+y |
Int | Mild | Mod | Sev
(listed FEV1, FEV1/FVC) 0–4: N/A 5–11: >80,>85 | >80,>80 | 60–80, 75–80 | <60,<75 12+: >80, nl | >80, nl | 60–80, –5% | <60, >–5% must know normal ratio for age: 8–19: 85%; 20–39: 80%; 40–59: 75%; 60–80: 70% |
|
Assessing Asthma Severity: Impairment – inerference with normal activity
0–4y 5–11y 12+y |
Int | Mild | Mod | Sev
0–4: none | minor | some| extreme ltd 5–11: same 12+: same |
|
Assessing Asthma Severity: Treatment
0–4y 5–11y 12+ y |
Int | Mild | Mod | Sev
0–4: 1 | 2 | 3 +/– steroids| 4 +/–steroids 5–11: 1 | 2 | 3 +/– steroids| 3/4 +/–steroids 12+: 1 | 2 | 3 +/– steroids| 4/5 +/–steroids |
|
Asessessing Asthma Control: Impairment Sx and SABA
0–4y 5–11y 12+y |
Well Ctrl | Not well ctrl | Poorly ctrl
0–4: 0–2 d/w | >2d/w | 2+/d 5–11: same 12+: same |
|
Asessessing Asthma Control: Lung Function
0–4y 5–11y 12+y |
Well Ctrl | Not well ctrl | Poorly ctrl
0–4: N/A 5–11: >80, >80 | 60–80, 75–80 | <60, <75 12+: FEV1 only: same #s |
|
Asessessing Asthma Control: Impairment Nighttime awakening
0–4y 5–11y 12+y |
Well Ctrl | Not well ctrl | Poorly ctrl
0–4: 0–1/m | >1/m | >1/w 5–11: same 12+: 0–2/m | 1–3/w | 4+/week |
|
Asessessing Asthma Control: Impairment: Activity interference
0–4y 5–11y 12+y |
Well Ctrl | Not well ctrl | Poorly ctrl
0–4: none | some | extremely 5–11: same 12+: same |
|
Asessessing Asthma Control: Treatment
0–4y 5–11y 12+y |
Well Ctrl | Not well ctrl | Poorly ctrl
0–4: maintain/stepdown if >3m | step up 1 | 1–2 +/– steroids 5–11: same 12+: same |
|
ASsessing Asthma Control: Questionnaires
|
Only for 12+ y:
ATAQ: 0 | 1–2 | 3–4 ACQ: <0.75 | >=1.5 | N/A ACT: >=20 | 16–19 | <=15 |
|
Testing for occupational asthma?
|
Methacholine challenge (decrease in 50% of the amount of methacholine required to drop FEV1 by 20%)
|
|
Time to sensitization for laboratory workers
|
2 years (longer for flour workers)
|
|
Allergic rhinitis precedes occupational asthma for ____ agents
|
HMW (protein/polysaccharide agents) not LMW (chemical agents)
|
|
Occupational asthma: Plicatic acid
|
LMW
Western red cedar mill, carpenters, woodworkers |
|
Occupational asthma: Isocyanates
|
LMW
Body shop, spray paint, insulation, roofers, auto industry |
|
Occupational asthma: acrylates
|
LMW
nail salon workers |
|
Occupational asthma: Platinum salts
|
LMW
Welder, metal/chemical workers |
|
Occupational asthma: potassium dichromate
|
LMW
Welder, metal/chemical workers |
|
Occupational asthma: ammonium persulfate
|
LMW
Hairdressers |
|
Occupational asthma: phthalic anhydride
|
LMW
adhesives, epoxy resin, paint, plastics |
|
Occupational asthma: trimellitic anhydride
|
LMW
plastics, paint |
|
Occupational asthma: Amines
|
LMW
Shellac, Lacquer, plastics, Cleaners |
|
Occupational asthma: formaldehyde
|
LMW
Hospital workers, laboratories |
|
Occupational asthma: beta–lactam agents
|
LMW
Drug industry workers |
|
Occupational asthma: animal proteins
|
HMW
lab workers, vets |
|
Occupational asthma: crab/lobster
|
HMW
seafood handlers |
|
Occupational asthma: flour (wheat, soy dust)
|
HMW
Baker |
|
Occupational asthma: Wheat, coffee, tobacco dust, psyllium, latex
|
HMW
Baker/textiles |
|
Occupational asthma: enzymes (amylase, lipase, pectinase)
|
HMW
Baker/pharmaceuticals |
|
Increases the risk of TDI OA
|
HLA DQB1*0503/0201/0301
|
|
Increases the risk of occupational asthma in general
|
HLA DR3, DR7
|
|
Increases the risk of diisocyanate occupational asthma
|
Glutamine S transferase (GSTP1) enzyme defects
|
|
Most common causes of occupational asthma
|
Plicatic acid, isocyanates, wheat flour, latex
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Smoking is a risk factor for sensitization to____
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Platinum
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Complement is activated by this occupational asthma trigger
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plicatic acid
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What is reactive airway dysfunction syndrome (rADS)
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aka irritant induced asthma
nonimmunologic process 2/2 high dose single exposure to irritant agent sx immediate and last a long time |
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Diagnosis of VCD
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Inspiratory wheezing over larynx
Bronchodilators worsen Redeced FEV1 and FVC with preserved ratio and blunted inspiratory loop Dx confirmed by fiberoptic laryngoscopy while patient is symptomatic |
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Treatment of VCD
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Short term: heliox inhlation, topical lidocaine, intermittent positive pressure ventilation
Long term: panting, speech therapy, botox into vocal cords |
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Immune response to aspergillus
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Dectin 1 receptor on alveolar macrophages binds Beta–1,3 glucan on Aspergillus cell walls
Production of TNFa, Il1b, Il1a, IL–6, IL10, IFNg ––> Th1 response |
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Clinical Features of ABPA
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Asthmatics |