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74 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
What tumour is most commonly caused by FeLV?
Thymic lymphosarcoma
What is the corrected reticulocyte count?
reticulocyte % x (patient PCV/normal PCV)
What happens if sheep are fed cattle or pig feed?
They develop chronic copper poisoning, which leads to acute disease due to centrilobular hepatic necrosis.
What are the signs of chronic copper poisoning in sheep?
Haemoglobinuria and death in 48h. Black shiny kidneys at post mortem.

Acute disease is due to centrilobular hepatic necrosis
What are Howell-Joly bodies?
Red blood cells containing nuclear remnants. They are normal in equine blood smears
How can you assess if equine anaemia is renegerative?
Bone marrow aspirate: reticulocytes are not released into the circulation in horses.
How is dog blood typed?
Dog Erythrocyte Antigens (DEAs) 1.1, 1.2, 3, 4, 5 and 7
How is cat blood typed?
A, B or AB. Mik+ or Mik-
What is equine infectious anaemia?
Arthropod-borne lentivirus that causes intra- and extra-vascular haemolysis and bone marrow suppression.

It cannot be treated
What is the Coggins' test?
A screening test for equine infectious anaemia.

ELISA may also be used to detect the virus.
What disease occurs when mares produce antibodies against foal red blood cells that are secreted in colostrum?
Neonatal isoerythrolysis. Causes intra- and extra-vascular haemolysis in foals aged 12 hours - 12 days.

Treat by transfusing washed red blood cells from the mare
What preservative is used for stored blood?
Citrate
What is cryoprecipitate?
A concentrated form of several coagulation factors. It is transfused pre-operatively to dogs with von Willebrand's disease.
What type of virus is FeLV?
Enveloped Gammaretrovirus
What is FeLV p27?
Protein produced by infected cells and secreted in tears, saliva and plasma. It is the basis of diagnostic tests
What is FeLV p15E?
Protein that causes immunosuppression
What is the target for FeLV vaccine production?
Protein gp70. This protein defines the viral subgroup.
What is FeLV-A?
The FeLV subgroup found in all naturally infected cats
What is FeLV-B?
The FeLV subgroup found in around 50% of FeLV+ cats. It is associated with neoplastic transformation
What is FeLV-C?
The FeLV subgroup found in about 1% of naturally infected cats. It is associated with erythroid hypoplasia and severe anaemia
What type of virus is FIV?`
Lentivirus
Describe the pathogenesis of FIV
There is acute lymphandenopathy with neutropenia/lymphopenia while the virus replicates in lymphoid tissue and salivary glands. It later spreads to mononuclear cells in non-lymphoid organs.
Is antiviral therapy for FIV useful?
Antiviral therapy inhibits new infection but not replication in infected cells, and carries a risk of myelotoxicity or Heinz-body anaemia. Resistant FIV mutants start to develop within 3 months.
What signs are associated with feline coronavirus?
Mild or inapparent upper respiratory or gastrointestinal signs.

A small proportion of cats go on to develop FIP
What biochemical findings are associated with effusive FIP?
Polyclonal hypergammaglobulinaemia, neutrophilia, hyperbilirubinaemia, lymphopenia and mild, non-regenerative anaemia
What treatment is there for effusive FIP?
glucocorticoids, chlorambucil, interferon and aspirin.

Prognosis is grave.
What is the significance of Mycoplasma haemominitum infection in FeLV+ cats?
Promotes neoplastic transformation
What stain is used to detect mycoplasma on a blood smear?
Acaridine orange
What treatment should be given to cats with haematogenous mycoplasma infection?
Doxycycline, immunosuppressive prednisolone.

Cats are always at risk of relapsing when stressed.
What is feline infectious anaemia?
Mycoplasma infection causing immune-mediated haemolysis.
What does platelet glycoprotein 1b do?
Binds vWF to attach platelets to collagen
What does platelet glycoprotein IIbIIIa do?
Binds fibrinogen to attach adjacent platelets to each other
What 2 types of platelet granule are there?
Membrane-bound red alpha granules contain clotting factors
Dense granules contain ADP and calcium
What happens in primary haemostasis?
Damaged endothelium releases vWF which adheres platelets to exposed collagen. The primary platelet plug is formed.
What happens in secondary haemostasis?
Platelets degranulate activating the extrinsic coagulation cascade, resulting in fibrin stabilisation of the primary platelet plug.
What do ecchmoses/petechiae indicate?
Thrombocytopaenia
How should disseminated intravascular coagulation be managed?
heparin, aspirin and transfusion of cryoprecipitate, plasma or whole blood (for antithrombin)

Prognosis is poor
What are the 3 types of von Willebrand's disease?
-Type 1 (90%): all vWF multimers present but in decreased concentrations
-Type 2: large vWF multimers disproportionately decreased
-Type 3 (rarest): absence of all vWF multimers
What disease is associated with Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (ovis)?
Only mild disease in life, but caseous abscessation of lymph nodes which is of economic importance
A pig has splenic infarction. What did it die of?
Swine fever
What cell does Leishmania replicate in?
Macrophages
What happens if an animal infected with Leishmania infantum launches a cell-mediated immune response?
It either clears the disease or becomes a clinically healthy carrier
What Babesia species mainly affects European hunting and sheepdogs in spring and autumn?
Babesia canis canis (large form).

Causes moderate haemolytic anaemis and thrombocytopaenia
What Babesia species causes the most severe acute disease?
Babesia canis rossi (large form). Found in South Africa and the Sudan.

Causes severe haemolytic anaemia
What is the geographical distribution of Babesia canis vogeli (large form)?
Worldwide
What can be used to treat large forms of Babesia?
Imidocarb dipropionate (thought to interfere with polyamine synthesis)
How is Babesia gibsoni (small form) treated?
Nothing clears the disease.

Atovaquone and azythromycin are palliative.

Prognosis is guarded
What protozoal disease causes chronic disease of pit bull terriers and other fighting dogs in the USA and Australia?
Babesia gibsoni (small form)
Describe the pathophysiology of Ehrlichia canis infection
1-3 week incubation.
Acute phase: replicates in monocytes. Mild disease only.
Subclinical phase: haematopoiesis deteriorates and the animal develops pancytopaenia
Chronic disease phase: acute-onset non-specific signs associated with severe haematopoietic defecits.
How is Ehrlichia canis treated?
Doxycycline
What treatment options are there for haemangiosarcoma?
Total splenectomy: 3-12 weeks
Splenectomy and chemotherapy: 4-6 months
What is important to consider when operating on a patient with a splenic mass?
Prone to DIC
How is lymphoma staged?
I - only one node/organ involved
II - involvement of all nodes in one region
III - lymphadenomegaly
IV - generalised involvement of many nodes/organs
V - bone marrow involvement

substage a=no clinical signs, substage b=clinical signs (worse prognosis)
If the owner of a patient with lymphoma doesn't want chemotherapy, what other treatments may be tried?
Corticosteroids cause lymphocyte apoptosis and palliate the disease for 2-3 months
What is cyclophosphamide?
An alkylating agent
What is Vincristine?
Inhibits tubulin polymerisation
What is doxorubicin?
DNA intercalating agent
What is Lomustine?
An alkylating agent
Outline suitable chemotherapy protocols for B- and T-cell lymphoma
B-cell: COP or CHOP
T-cell: Lomustine/vincristine
What chemotherapeutic drugs are used in a COP protocol?
Cyclophosphamide, vincristine and prednisolone
What drugs are used in a CHOP chemotherapy protocol?
Cyclophosphamide, vincristine, prednisolone and doxyrubicin
What is the difference between stage V lymphoma and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?
Lymphoma arises peripherally and spreads to the bone marrow, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia arises in the bone marrow

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia cells are CD34+
How is acute lymphoblastic leukaemia treated?
COP or CHOP protocols
How is acute myeloid leukaemia treated?
Cytosine arabinoside
How is chronic lymphoblastic leukaemia treated?
Chlorambucil and prednisolone
How is chronic granulocytic leukaemia treated?
Hydroxycarbamide
What is myeloma?
Plasma cell tumour of the bone marrow affecting old animals
How is myeloma treated in cats?
Chlorambucil and prednisolone
How is myeloma treated in dogs?
Mephalan and prednisolone
What is polycythema vera? How is it managed?
Primary erythrocytosis - causes signs attributable to increased viscosity of blood (e.g. blindess/seizures)
Treat by phlebotomy and IVFT.
Which lymphoma is associated with better prognosis - T cell or B cell?
B cell
What type of organism causes feline infectious peritonitis?
Coronavirus, causing mild transient enteritis. Mutation in a small proportion of cats infects monocytes
What immune response leads to which disease form in FIP?
Th-1 (cell-mediated): recovery
Mixed Th-1/Th-2: granulomatous disease
Th-2 (antibody-mediated): effusive disease
How is FIP controlled?
Unknown why the common coronavirus mutates in some cats.
Intranasal vaccine available but not routinely used as questionable efficacy