Written Board Preparation

Front 1

most commonly injured muscle during blepharoplasty

Back 1

superior oblique

Front 2

what's the actions of superior oblique?

Back 2

intorsion, abduction, depression

Front 3

what's the actions of inferior oblique?

Back 3

extorsion, abduction, elevation

Front 4

which lacrimal gland is responsible for basal secretion? which for stimulated secretion?

Back 4

accessory lacrimal gland for basal secretion; the main gland for stimulated secretion

Front 5

which branch of facial nerve is most commonly injured during rhytidectomy?

Back 5

buccal branch

Front 6

does corticosteroid decrease facial edema and ecchymosis in patients undergoing rhytidectomy?

Back 6

no

Front 7

compared to conventional brow lifting, endoscopic brow lifting has lower incidence of what adverse effect?

Back 7

scalp sensibility changes

Front 8

what kind of dissection should be avoided in patients undergoing malar advancement more than 2 cm to avoid necrosis of malar fat pad?

Back 8

submalar dissection out of concern for disruption of branches of angular artery; submalar dissection can be done when advancement is less than 2 cm.

Front 9

what plane is the front branch of the facial nerve in above the zygomatic arch?

Back 9

just deep to temproparietal fascia or superficial temporal fascia

Front 10

what is the most common complication of rhytidectomy?

Back 10

hematoma

Front 11

pseudoherniation of buccal fat pad results from weakening of which structure?

Back 11

buccopharyngeal membrane

Front 12

describe hair growth pattern after hair transplant

Back 12

growth for 1 month, hair loss, then normal growth after 3 months

Front 13

arcade of Frohse

Back 13

Arcade of Frohse, sometimes called the supinator arch, is the most superior part of the superficial layer of the supinator muscle, and is a fibrous arch over the posterior interosseous nerve. The arcade of Frohse is the most frequent site of posterior interosseous nerve entrapment

Front 14

minimum number of incision to completely release intrinsic hand muscles in compartment syndrome

Back 14

4

Front 15

treatment of choice for 2 cm of nerve gap in ulnar nerve injury

Back 15

ulnar nerve transposition

Front 16

in ulnar nerve compression, if dorsoulnar sensation is not affected, the location of compression is most likely at?

Back 16

Guyon's canal, because the dorsal branch comes off proximal to the canal

Front 17

where is the arcade of Struthers and what does it compress?

Back 17

it originates from medial head of tricep and insert into medial intermuscular septum; it can cause ulnar nerve compression

Front 18

infants with C5-6 injuries exhibiting deltoid and bicep functions at what age represents a significant positive prognostic factor?

Back 18

2 months

Front 19

what incision would release adductor pollicis?

Back 19

2nd dorsal metacarpal incision

Front 20

motor fascicular group of ulnar nerve is in what relationship to the sensory fascicular group at the wrist level?

Back 20

dorsal and ulnar

Front 21

a transplanted hair unit consists of hair follicle and ________

Back 21

dermal elements

Front 22

male pattern alopecia has what inheritance pattern?

Back 22

x-linked dominant

Front 23

describe phases of hair growth

Back 23

anagen - growth phase
catagen - breakdown phase
telogen - resting phase

Front 24

describe mechanism of action of finasteride

Back 24

inhibition of 5 alpha reductase which converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone

Front 25

what's the most common cause of late dehiscence after abdominplasty?

Back 25

seroma

Front 26

compare to women, men are more likely to have lower or upper diastasis recti?

Back 26

upper; women are more likely to have lower diastasis

Front 27

what is the most common complication of postbariatric brachioplasty?

Back 27

widened, hypertrophic scar

Front 28

colles fascia is continuous with what other fascia?

Back 28

scarpa's and fascia lata

Front 29

what technique is most effective in reducing risks of lymphedema in medial thigh lift?

Back 29

superficial dissection over femoral triangle

Front 30

describe Madelung's disease

Back 30

benign symmetric, nonencapsulated lipomatosis, treatable with liposuction

Front 31

what nerve provides sensory innervation to nasal tip?

Back 31

external branch of anterior ethmoidal nerve

Front 32

what is the optimal angle of divergence between middle crura?

Back 32

30 - 60

Front 33

what nerve innervates the area of inferior nasal septum and anterior nasal spine?

Back 33

nasopalatine nerve

Front 34

describe an inverted V deformity

Back 34

deformity from collapse of middle vault; the inverted V seen is the inferior edge of nasal bones

Front 35

describe boundary of internal nasal valve

Back 35

septum, inferior edge of upper lateral cartilage, nasal floor

Front 36

which alloplastic material undergoes exothermic reaction during curing process?

Back 36

methylmethacrylate

Front 37

what is the most common form of syndromic cleft palate?

Back 37

stickler syndrome

Front 38

what characterize Goldenhar syndrome?

Back 38

hemifacial microsomia, epibulbar dermoid

Front 39

describe Van der Woude syndrome

Back 39

autosomal dominant, lip pit, cleft lip/palate

Front 40

describe Treacher Collins syndrome

Back 40

lower eyelid colobomas, bilateral zygomatic hypoplasia, mandibular hypoplasia

Front 41

describe Stickler syndrome

Back 41

cleft palate, pierre robin, myopia, retinal detachment

Front 42

describe Mobius syndrome

Back 42

complete facial paralysis secondary to bilateral facial nerve agenesis, abducen nerve palsy, strabismus, limb abnormalities,

Front 43

mutation of fibroblast growth factor receptor has been associated with which single suture synostosis?

Back 43

unicoronal craniosynostosis

Front 44

what distinguishes Crouzon syndrome from Apert's syndrome?

Back 44

limbs are not affected

Front 45

what distinguishes Pfeiffer from Apert's syndrome?

Back 45

instead of syndactyly, patients with Pfeiffer has broad thumbs and halluces

Front 46

describe Saethre-Chotzen syndrome

Back 46

autosomal dominant, normal mental status, brachycephaly, ptosis of eyelids, syndactyly, low hairline

Front 47

patients with unicoronal synostosis may get paresis of which occular muscle?

Back 47

ipsilateral superior oblique

Front 48

describe different zones of bone in distraction osteogenesis starting from the bone gap

Back 48

fibrous zone, transition zone, zone of remodeling, zone of mature bone

Front 49

when is distraction osteogenesis favored over direct advancement in craniofacial procedures?

Back 49

advancement > 10 mm

Front 50

in patients with hemifacial microsomia, which deformity is corrected first?

Back 50

macrostomia, at first few months, similar to cleft lip repair

Front 51

synostosis of which suture is most likely to be associated with abnormalities of corpus callosum?

Back 51

metopic

Front 52

what is the etiology of craniofacial microsomia?

Back 52

occlusion of stapedial artery, and is therefore not genetically transmitted

Front 53

what suture is affected in patients with scaphocephaly?

Back 53

sagittal

Front 54

which basic science substance is involved in cranial suture fusion in animal model?

Back 54

TGF-beta

Front 55

anterior fontanelle closes at what age?

Back 55

24 months

Front 56

what is the most common craniofacial anomaly?

Back 56

hemifacial microsomia

Front 57

describe Nager syndrome

Back 57

Treacher Collins + preaxial limb anomaly

Front 58

how long does the treatment last in treatment of congenital lop ear using themoplastic splinting?

Back 58

2 months

Front 59

which surgical technique for prominent ear involves placement of conchomastoid sutures?

Back 59

Furnas

Front 60

for ear replant, the anastomosis should be performed on anterior or posterior surface of the ear?

Back 60

posterior, because posterior vessels have larger caliber

Front 61

microtia occurs as a result of malformation in which pharyngeal cleft?

Back 61

first

Front 62

the use of which chemical solution for chemical peel requires cardiac monitoring?

Back 62

phenol

Front 63

at what level should hyaluronic acid be injected when correcting tear trough deformity?

Back 63

subperiosteal level

Front 64

what orientations are wrinkle lines produced by procerus and corrugators?

Back 64

procerus - transverse; corrugator - vertical

Front 65

what method can be used to decrease the depth of penetration of phenol?

Back 65

soap

Front 66

what intraoperative finding signals the endpoint of dermabrasion?

Back 66

brisk, confluent bleeding on a coarse tissue background

Front 67

what is Botox's mechanism of action?

Back 67

inhibition of acetycholine's release

Front 68

when should infants with congenital tearing be treated with probing?

Back 68

at age 12 months. further delay causes increasing complexity of treatment

Front 69

what are the 2 branches of transverse cervical artery?

Back 69

superficial branch - superficial cervical artery, deep branch - dorsal scapular artery

Front 70

name blood supply to trapezius

Back 70

there are 3: superior 1/3 - a branch of occipital artery, middle 1/3 - superficial cervical artery, lower 1/3 - dorsal scapular artery

Front 71

pedicle to gracilis is between which 2 muscles?

Back 71

adductor longus and brevis

Front 72

name borders of the triangular space in which the circumflex scapular artery passes through

Back 72

teres major and minor, long head of tricep