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166 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following is true about organophosphate toxicity?
a. less acutely toxic than chlorinated hydrocarbons
b. inhibit nor-epinephrine release
c. do not persist in the environment
d. tachycardia is common sign
e. treat with acetylcholine
c. do not persist in the environment
Manual Wild Dz SE Coop
Which of the following is true about organochlorines?

a. do not persist in the environment
b. are lipid soluble
c. less toxic than organophosphates
d. diagnose by measuring levels of acetylcholine
e. acutely fatal so no chronic disease reported
b. are lipid soluble
Manual Wild Dz SE Coop
Which of the following is true about aflatoxins?

a. birds are more susceptible than mammals
b. ruminants are more susceptible than monogastric
c. aflatoxin A is the main toxin associated with disease in wildlife
d. Aspergillus fumigatis is a major source of aflatoxins in grains
e. hepatic fibrosis observed in acute disease
a. birds are more susceptible than mammals
-mongastric > ruminants
-young > adults
-A. flavus and parasiticus
-B1 toxin most common and toxic
Manual Wild Dz SE Coop
Which of the following is true about hemorrhagic disease of deer?

a. all serotypes of all viruses isolated from deer
b. cattle are highly susceptible to bluetongue from deer
c. in sheep epizootic hemorrhagic disease is sub-clinical
d. chronic form is usually observed during the summer months
e. Ixodes scapularis is the primary vector
c. in sheep epizootic hemorrhagic disease is sub-clinical
Cattle: susceptible to BT and EHD but rare signs
Sheep: BT=severe dz, EHD = no dz
Culicoides variipennis
Manual Wild Dz SE Coop
Which of the following is false about cutaneous fibromas in deer?
a. presents as a smooth, black hairless skin growth
b. usually a temporary disease
c. biting insects serve as vectors
d. not a risk for transmission to farm animals
e. direct contact with inanimate objects is not a viable route of transmission
e. direct contact with inanimate objects is not a viable route of transmission
Field Manual Wild Dz in SE USA
Bovine viral diarrhea is what type of virus?
a. herpes
b. retrovirus
c. picornavirus
d. pestivirus
e. coronavirus
d. pestivirus
Field Manual Wild Dz in SE USA
Bovine viral diarrhea persists in a white tail deer and cattle cycle?
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
b. FALSE
No dz in WTD
Field Manual Wild Dz in SE USA
Which of the following has been associated with natural disease in white tail deer?
a. bovine viral diarrhea
b. malignant catarrhal fever
c. infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
d. foot and mouth disease
e. vesicular stomatitis
b. malignant catarrhal fever (herpes) in zoos and wildlife parks
FMD(picornavirus) and VS - exp infection only
IBR (BHV-1), BVD (pestivirus)- no dz in WTD
Field Manual Wild Dz in SE USA
Which of the following is most accurate about anthrax?
a.acidic soil promotes its growth
b. carnivores more susceptible than herbivores
c. biting flies may serve as vectors
d. white tail deer are highly resistant
e. vaccines are ineffective in deer
c. biting flies may serve as vectors
Field Manual Wild Dz in SE USA
Whihc of the follwoing is reported as a frequent sequelae to hemorrhagic disaese in deer?
a. Brucella abortus
b. Toxoplasmosis
c. Clostridium chauvei or speticum
d. Francisella tularesnis
e. Mycobacterium bovis
c. Clostridium chauvei or speticum

Field Manual Wild Dz in SE USA
Which of the following is the natural host of Elaeophora schneideri and therefore has no clinical signs from its infection?

a. white tail deer
b. elk
c. sheep
d. mule deer
e. sika deer
d. mule deer
Elaeophora schneideri = arterial worm
WTD-older, facial swelling from tooth impaction, fracture of jaw bones
Elk - high mort; clear-eyed blindness, muzzle and era necrosis, malformed antlers
Sheep - sorehead
Field Manual Wild Dz in SE USA
Which of the following is associated with "milk spots" in swine livers?
a. Ascarops strongylina
b. Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus
c. Ascaris suum
d. Trichinella nativa
e. Haemotopinus suis
c. Ascaris suum
Ascarops strongylina - stomach worm
Haemotopinus suis - louse
T. nativa - not in South East USA
Field Manual Wild Dz in SE USA
Which of the following is true about trichinosis?

a. all Trichinella spp are pathogenic to humans
b. bears are the main reservoir in the south east
c. Trichinella spiralis does not occur in the south east
d. encysts in involuntary muscles only
e. rodents are resistant to infection
a. all Trichinella spp are pathogenic to humans
-bears reservoir outside SE
-T. nativa not in SE, all other spp in SE
-cysts in voluntary muscles: tongue, masseter, diaphragm, intercostals
-infection in rodents, raccoons, bears, wolves, foxes, birds
Field Manual Wild Dz in SE USA
Dz in Black Bears
Dirofilaria immitis - not suitable host
CDV - no dz
Spirometra mansoides -tapewrom of bobcats and raccoons; bears are transport/paratenic host, larvae do not mature but re-encyst
Baylisascaris transfuga - bears definitive host, eggs directly infectious
-
Dz of Raccoons

1. rabies: dumb most common, usu good BCS
2. CDV: pneumonia, GI, foot pads
3. parvo: distinct from k-9 parvo; dec WBC; slough GI, lymphadenitis
4. Leptospirosis: reservoir
5. Spirometra mansonoides: yellow SQ cyst w/ tapeworm inside confused w/ Dracunculus insignis; cycle assoc. w/ freshwater; intermediate and def hosts
6. Baylisascaris procyonis:
7. Dracunculus insignis: nematode, also in mink, otters, foxes; SQ and muscle fascia of lower limbs, pruritis; larva out through skin to copepod to amphibians, fish, or crustcaeans to raccoon
8. Macracanthorhynchus ingens: common, non path
-
Which type of Brucella suis is also found in caribou?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
d. 4

Field Manual Wild Dz in SE USA
White tail deer can serve as reservoir of which disease?

a. Clostridium chauvei
b. Leptospira interrogans grippotyphosa
c. Salmonella spp.
d. Borrelia burgdorferi
e. Mycobacterium bovis
e. Mycobacterium bovis

Field Manual Wild Dz in SE USA
Which of the following is the most effective vector of Anaplasma marginale?

a. Ixodes scapularis
b. Dermacentor variabilis
c. Ixodes pacificus
d. Dermacentor occidentalis
e. Dermacentor andersoni
d. Dermacentor occidentalis
Dermacentor andersoni also a vector but less effiecient
I scapularis - Borrelia(Lyme dz)
Field Manual Wild Dz in SE USA
Dz of Gray foxes

1. CDV: rapid course, good BCS, MAIN dz in SE
2. rabies: furious
3. Heart worms: poorest native canid host
4. Sampson fox anomaly: inherited dz leads to fuzzy/wooly coat b/c lack guard hairs
-
Dz of Coyotes

1. CDV
2.Parvovirus: diarrhea, dehydration, depression and rapid death
3. Rabies: distinct rabies variant the same as Mexican dog rabies
4. Brucellosis: NOT important in spread to cattle
5. Heart worms: no clinical dz reported
-
Dirofilaria immitis:

1o reservoir: dogs and coyotes
Occ. infection: red foxes
Rare: gray foxes and black bears
-
Dz of red foxes

1. Rabies: furious
2. CDV: wild and farm but rare in SE
3. Infectious canine hepatitis = fox encephalitis: acute dz in farm foxes
4. Leptospirosis: reservoir
5. Echinococcus multilocularis: main def. host, no signs, eggs are infectious, rodent IH, ZOONOTIC = alveolar hydatid dz; not in SE but in plain states
6. Sarcoptes scabiei: MOST common dz in SE and HIGH MORT, also in coyotes but not in gray foxes, ZOONOTIC
-
Dz of skunks

1. rabies: furious w/ high conc. in saliva
2. CDV; like raccoons
3. Infectious canine hepatitis = adenovirus: death w/in 2 days, direct trans., high prevalence of AB so may not be highly fatal
4. Leptospirosis: frequent host w/ minimal lesions
5. Baylisascaris columnaris: no signs in skunks, but dz in others
-
Dz of Bobcats

1. Feline panleukopenia = feline distemper = parvovirus: rapidly fatal
2. Rabies: not frequent host
3. T. gondii: single case of neuro dz in wild bobcat; felids are def. host and do not develop dz, may be trans. across placenta & carried by invert. hosts, cats ingest cysts leading to oocysts, all others ingest cysts that lead to tissue cysts
4. Cytauxzoon felis: blood protozoan; BOB cat is RESERVOIR so no dz but fatal in domestic cats, Dermacentor variabilis (Am Dog tick) has been shown to be vector experimentally, no Tx
5. Spirometra mansonoides: tapeworm of bobcats, raccoons, foxes, and domestic dogs/cats, larval stage = spargana, 3 hosts neded to complete cycle, copepod, aquatic vertebrate, felids; BOb cat DEFINITIVE host so no dz; dist. in SE but not assoc. w/ dz in wild animals, ZOONOTIC
-
Dz of Opossums

1. Rabies: highly refractory
2. Leptospirosis: likely reservoir
3. Sarcocystis falcatula: opppsoums are the only suitable definitive host; birds are IH w/ occ. white streaks in muscle; EPM in horses (S. neurona) may reveal brain and cord dz; may be carried by cockroaches that ingest sporocysts
4. Besnoitia darlingi: felids are def. host, opossums and lizards are IH and develop tissue cysts
5. Physaloptera turgida: lg. stout coiled nematode; opossum is def host but may have clinical dz w/ worm attached to stomach wall leading to ulcers
-
What is the primary host of Sin Nombre virus?

a. cotton rat
b. white footed mouse
c. brush mouse
d. California voles
e. deer mouse
e. deer mouse
Cotton rats and rice rats (SE) and white footed mouse (NE) also carry SNV but the main host is deer mouse.
JWD 05 41(1):1-11
Which of the following is true about the gender-season relationship for acquiring infections by the host of Sin Nombre virus?

a. females in the fall
b. males in the spring and summer
c. females in the summer
d. males in the summer and fall
e. females in the winter
d. males in the summer and fall more likely to be infected
JWD 05 41(1):1-11
Which of the following would have negative effects on the populations of mice species that harbor hantaviruses?

a. warm, dry winter
b. hot, dry, spring
c. cold, dry, winter
d. hot, wet, summer
e. warm, wet, spring
b. hot, dry, spring and cold, wet fall/winter have negative effects on populations
JWD 05 41(1):12-28
What time of the year was shown to have the highest populations of deer mice?
a. spring
b. summer
c. fall
d. winter
d. winter
JWD 05 41(1):12-28
Which of the following is a false statement concerning fibropapillomatosis in sea turtles?

a. more common in west coast of Florida
b. more common in the summer
c. more common in turtles of intermediate size
d. less common on turtles with propeller wounds versus entangled ones
e. higher prevalence in coastal waters with pollution
b. more common in the summer
More common in fall and winter
JWD 05 41(1):29-41
In a study of European brown hare syndrome (EBHS) in Finland, it was found that?

a. EBHS was the most common disease of mountain hares
b. EBHS only affected brown hares
c. the prevalence was similar between brown and mountain hares
d. mountain hares were more susceptible in the winter
e. brown hares were resistant to infection the years of epidemics in mountain hares
a. EBHS was the most common disease of mountain hares
JWD 05 41(1):42-47
Which of the following is true about Pasteurella multocida in waterfowl?

a. only affects geese
b. lesser snow and Ross's geese may be reservoir
c. serology of geese showed over 50% of flock had survived infection
d. Pasteurella multocida persist in the environment during the winter
e. mortality is low unless concurrent parasitic infection
b. lesser snow and Ross's geese may be reservoir
JWD 05 41(1):48-57
Which equine alphaherpes virus was described for the first time in wild equids from Burchell's zebras, which are proposed to be a natural host for this virus?

a. EHV 1
b. EHV 2
c. EHV 4
d. EHV 5
e. EHV 9
e. EHV 9
-may infect other ungulates such as Thomson gazelles and cause severe dz
EHV 1,3,4,9 = alpha
EHV 2,5 = gamma
JWD 05 41(1):80-86
Parelaphostrongylus tenius is a limiting factor for elk populations in Michigan?
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
b. FALSE
low prevalence and impact
JWD 05 41(1):134
Which of the following is correct about experimental infection of turkey poults with turkey pox virus and Plasmodium hermani?

a. infection with turkey pox at 10wks of age was more detrimental than Plasmodium infection at 1wk
b. infection with either turkey pox or Plasmodium was more detrimental in 10wk old versus 1 wk old
c. dual infection was only slightly more detrimental in 1 wk old but no difference in 10wk old
d. infection with neither disease caused significant mortality in either age class
e. infection with Plasmodium at 1wk was subclinical but at 10 wks old led to severe anemia
c. dual infection was only slightly more detrimental in 1 wk old but no difference in 10wk old
JWD 05 41(1):141-148
Which of the following is true about parasitic infections in Saiga antelopes in Kazakhstan?

a. higher prevalence of trematodes
b. abomasal nematodes led to poor body condition with increased prevalence
c. all parasites had higher intensities in younger, immune naive animals
d. no evidence of adverse effects of parasites on the Saiga populations
e. fecal egg counts were not proportional to adult worm intensities
d. no evidence of adverse effects of parasites on the Saiga populations
-Nematodirus gazellae: higher # in young w/ decline in older
Marshallagia sp: asymptomatic increase in # with age
-egg counts proportional to adult worms
JWD 05 41(1):149
Which of the following is true about the effects of winter and parturition in deer?

a. birth mass decreased with severe winters
b. skeletal development was better in after mild winters
c. does were in better condition after mild winters
d. younger dams gave birth earlier after mild winters
e. no effect of winter severity on birth parameters
e. no effect of winter severity on birth parameters
JWD 05 41(1):171
Which of the following is true about cholinesterases in birds?

a. have high activity in avian erythrocytes
b. higher levels are seen in larger species
c. higher activity in young mallards versus adults
d. male kestrels have higher activity than females
e. nocturnal species have lower activity than diurnal
c. higher activity in young mallards versus adults
-mallarsd are preccocial spp.
-no AChE in avian RBC
-lg spp have low levels
-female kestrels > males
-nocturnal spp had highest avtivity
JWD 05 41(1):184
Which method was determine to be the best at measuring nonspecific immunity in salamanders?

a. oxidative burst assay
b. hydrogen peroxide assay
c. phagocytosis assay
d. neutrophil assay
e. peptide assay
c. phagocytosis assay
JWD 05 41(1):209
Which of the following is true about Zinc phosphide toxicity in turkeys?

a. low toxicity in turkeys
b. death from neurologic deficits
c. diagnosed by elevated blood zinc
d. worse when ingested with food
e. vomiting worsens toxicity
d. worse when ingested with food
-highly toxic
-die from heart and lung damage
-Dx by Hx, rotten fish smell (natural to compund) in stomach, gas chromatography fro phosphine gas
-inability to vomit makes it worse
JWD 05 41(1):218
EEE is known to commonly cause disease in WTD populations in Gerogia?
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
b. FALSE
-rare reports in WTD
-high titers without evidence of dz, only 1 cases
JWD 05 41(1):241
Balysasacaris procyonis is known to have a high prevalence in raccooons in Florida and is a major cause of population decline for Key Largo wood rats?
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
b. FALSE
-no B. procyonis in Fla.
-woodrats feed on undigested seeds in raccoon feces, store feces in caches, and wait for feces to harden before harvest, all habits that would contribute to exposure to B. procyonis but its absence makes it insignificant for the rat pops
JWD 05 41(1):250
Which of the following is true about chronic wasting disease in free ranging mule deer in Colorado?

a. females are likely responsible for local spread of CWD
b. increased prevalence in males 5-7 yrs old
c. higher prevalence in younger males versus adult
d. adult females had higher prevalence than males in 5 year old class
e. no sex difference observed in antibody prevalence
b. increased prevalence in males 5-7 yrs old
-Dx: immunohistochem of retropharyngeal lnn or tonsilar tissue
-males > females excpt 1-2yr old =
-5-7 yr males > younger
-both sexes, increased infection w/ age
-more prevalent in winter ranges d/t congregation
-increased dz coincided w/ 80% reduction in harvest of males
-higher prevalence in winter ranges
JWD05 41(2):275
Which of the following associations between Pasteurella multocida and water quality was identified in the Sacramento National Wildlife refuge?

a. wetlands with P. multocida outbreaks had acidic pH
b. no association between outbreaks and water quality
c. isolated P. multocida serotype 5
d. higher calcium and magnesium in enzootic wetlands
e. higher aluminum concentrations in wetlands with no outbreaks
b. no association between outbreaks and water quality
-opposite to previous studies that found high Na, protein, Ca, and Mg assoc. w/ P. multocida survival and mortality
-SEROTYPE 1
-alkaline pH in mortality wetlands
-higher Al in wetlands w/ P. multocida
-no diff in Ca, Mg, etc...
-P. multocida also recovered from wetlands w/ low mortality and no outbreaks

JWD 05 41(2):291
Which statement is true about viruses of marine mammals?
A) Morbillivirus causes vesicular lesions on the flippers of sea lions.
B) Harbor seals are asymptomatic reservoirs for phocid distemper.
C) Phocid herpesvirus type I causes mild respiratory disease in adults and generalized infection with mortality in pups and neonates.
D) Morbillivirus has never been reported in cetaceans.
E) Vesicular exanthema of swine presents similar signs but is unrelated to San Miguel seal lion virus
C) Phocid herpesvirus type I causes mild respiratory disease in adults and generalized infection with mortality in pups and neonates.
-Morbillivirus: bad in harbor seals, high AB in ringed and harp seals
-Calicivirus: abortion and vesicles on flippes in CSL, also dz in whales and seals
-PhV-1:main mort in rehab seals; resp in adults, generalized in pups
JWD 05 41(2):310
Which of the follwoing resembles more closely the avian pox virus in the endemic birds of the Galapagos?

a. chicken pox
b. fowl pox
c. canary pox
d. turkey pox
e. seal pox
c. canary pox
-introduced chickens do not appear to have contributed to pox in native species
JWD 05 41(2):342
Which of the following is not accurate about West Nile virus infection in blue jays?

a. splenomegaly is common gross finding
b. epicarditis and myocarditis are observed on histopathology
c. gross and histologic lesions correlate poorly with presence of antigen
d. they are typically in poor body condition
e. liver was the tissue with the highest viral loads and is preferred for diagnosis
e. liver was the tissue with the highest viral loads and is preferred for diagnosis
-brain, heart, and lungs had the highest titers and brain is best for isolation

JWD 05 41(2):354
Which of the following passerine species have been reported with conjunctivitis confirmed to be caused by Mycoplasma gallisepticum?

A) House finch and house sparrow
B) Black-capped chickadee and pine grosbeak
C) Tufted titmouse and American goldfinch
D) American goldfinch and chipping sparrow
E) Purple finch and house sparrow
C) Tufted titmouse and American goldfinch

JWD 05 41(2):317
Which of the following was observed upon re-infection of house finches that had previously recovered from Mycoplasma gallisepticum?

a. strong immunity without clinical signs
b. longer duration of disease
c. only females developed clinical signs upon re-infection
d. conjunctivitis developed within 24 hours of re-infection
e.milder clinical signs if infected in the winter
d. conjunctivitis developed within 24 hours of re-infection
-epidemics: 1st peak in summer-autumn (more juvies), 2nd peak in winter (loss of immunity, closer contact); lowest in April-June
JWD 05 41(2):326
Which of the following is true about lungworm infection in big horn sheep?

a. more prevalent in southern latitudes
b. no difference in fecal glucocorticoids in treated versus control sheep
c. earth worms are primary intermediate host
d. increased larval fecal levels in the summer
e. higher fecal glucocorticoids in infected domestic sheep
b. no difference in fecal glucocorticoids in treated versus control sheep

JWD 05 41(2):416
Which of the following was observed in sparrows with experimental sodium chloride toxicity?

a. fluid accumulation under the koilin layer
b. brain edema and vacuolization
c. renal swelling
d. necrosis of the small intestines
e. atrophied gall bladders
a. fluid accumulation under the koilin layer
-similar toxic levels LD 50 as in mammals
-no brain or histo changes changes
-suggested recent exposure may lead to increased tolerance
JWD 05 41(2):363
What was the effect of different radio-transmitter placement methods on white winged doves?

a. intracoelomic implants caused the highest amount of inflammation
b. body harness attachement had the lowest amount of inflammation
c. glue adhesives increased eosinophil counts
d. subcutaneous implants were rejected within 7 days
e. no difference observed between control and treatment groups
e. no difference observed between control and treatment groups
-looked at WBC and H:L only

JWD 05 41(2):387
In what species can sickle cell red blood cells be a normal finding?

a. cervids
b. rodents
c. viverids
d. buffalo
e. penguins
a. cervids
-severe anemia in viverids (genets)
Which of the following is true about the prevalence of parasites in red vole as it relates to habitats that suffered natural forest fires?

a. lower coccidia prevalence in burned habitat
b. no difference in prevalence of parasites between forested and burned habitat
c. endoparasites with indirect cycles were more prevalent in burned habitats
d. similar parasite intensities but in burned habitats, the parasites do not persist
e. body mass was better in burned habitats due to lower parasitic load
d. similar parasite intensities but in burned habitats, the parasites do not persist
-cestodes: forest > burned
-coccidia: burned > forest
-indirect cycle: forest > burned
-direct cycle: burned > forest

JWD 10 46(1):146
Which habitat is most likely to lead to increased contact between cattle and feral swine and therefore promote the transfer of disease?

a. rural roads
b. ponds and water sources
c. shrubland areas
d. riparian areas
e. mature hay fields
b. ponds and water sources
-water needed by both plus the moist environment protected from dessication favors diseases such as FMD
JWD 10 46(1):152
Which of the following factors did not influence the prevalence of Bartonella in small mammals from China?

a. species
b. sex
c. season
d. location
b. sex
-could not determine age factors, need further study
JWD 10 46(1):179
Which of the following can be said about the elk populations in Kentucky and Arkansas?

a. low evidence of disease exposure in either state
b. in Kentucky, elk may serve as reservoir for Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis
c. chronic wasting disease was identified in Arkansas
d. Parelaphostrongylus tenius caused death of young elk in Arkansas
e. elk in Kentucky harbor Brucella abortus
d. Parelaphostrongylus tenius caused death of young elk in Arkansas

-high serology to various diseases(EHD, BVD, IBR, Lepto, etc..) which are endemic to livestock and wildlife in the area
-single isolate of Map but no reservoir
-no CWD, prions, Anaplasma or Brucella
-only elk and bison in Yellowstone reservoir for Brucella
JWD 10 46(1):186
Which of the following risk factors for West Nile virus infection in American crows is correct?

a. infected birds are typically in good body condition
b. hatch year birds are more resistant to infection
c. spring season had higher risk for WNV infection
d. males were more likely to die than females
e. time of year but not age had a positive correlation with infection
b. hatch year birds are more resistant to infection
-age and time of year were correlated with infection; older birds in the summer were more likley to be infected
-crows poor sentinels b/c two natural non-WNV mortality events are commonly observed
-no gender association
JWD 10 46(1):195
Which of the following is correct about sternal versus lateral positioning during anesthesia in black rhinoceros?

a. sternal posture led to higher dead-space ventilation and poor oxygenation
b. lateral posture was associated with a decrease in lactate and better recoveries from lactatemia
c. all animals were alkalemic regardless of posture
d. the majority of acid based balance abnormalities were observed in the first 20 minutes of anesthesia
e. rhinoceros anesthesia should begin in lateral position and end in sternal
b. lateral posture was associated with a decrease in lactate and better recoveries from lactatemia
-dog-sitting posture = myopathy
-all acidemic and hypoxemic after capture
-STE = reduced dead space and improved ventilation
-LAT - lower lactate and quicker lactate recovery
-capture = acidosis, high lactate, hypoventilation, hypoxia, variable PCO2 and PETCO2
-only PETCO2 affected w/in first 20 minutes

JWD 10 46(1):236***
Which of the following was observed after experimental inoculation with vesicular stomatitis virus in Virginia opossums?

a. opossums did not develop viremia
b. no gross lesions were observed post infection
c. suckling opossums died 7 days post infection
d. severe vesicles on the feet were observed in adult but not suckling opossums
e. opossums are not an appropriate model for studying vesicular stomatitis
a. opossums did not develop viremia
-all developed vesicles and ulcers of tongue and inflammation of nasal folds
-no profuse salivation or feet lesions
-all suckling opossums were antibody positive including controls and no deaths or signs observed
-virus obtained from esophagus, nasal, ocular swabs and lesions
-seroconversion b/n d 4-6 in adults
-48hr incubation

JWD 10 46(1):209
Which of the following is true about Mucor infection in platypus?

a. Mucor ranarum is the most common species isolated
b. primary cause of death for Autsralian platypus
c. yeast form in tissues and non-septate hyphae in culture
d. primary route of infection is respiratory
e. is usually non pathogenic except when invading the lungs
c. yeast form in tissues and non-septate hyphae in culture
-Mucor amphibiorum
-main cause of deaths in platypus in Tasmania but not Australia
-route of infection unknown
-causes severe granulomaous, ulcerative dermatitis that may progress systemically and affect the lungs
-without systemic spread it can lead to 2o bacterial infections, impaired thermoregulation, and mobility
-anemia, lymphopenia, and hyperglobulinemia are common

JWD 10 46(1):55
Parasite burdens in the brush-tailed rock wallaby have a major detrimental impact on the wild populations?

a. TRUE
b. FALSE
b. FALSE
-high prevalence of coccidia but no signs
-low prevalence of T. gondii
-neg association b/n fecal egg counts and oocyst

JWD 10 46(1):218
Which of the following is true about Strongyloides robustus?

a. clinical signs in northern but not southern flying squirrels
b. requires amphibians as intermediate host
c. found in northern flying squirrels populations when southern flying squirrels are absent
d. mortality due to decreased body condition
a. clinical signs in northern but not southern flying squirrels
-free living stages emerge from feces and burrow in skin
-found in N squirrels when sympatric w/ S squirrel pops but not when S pops are absent
-no assoc w/ body condition
JWD 10 46(1):229
Which of the follwoing is true about Microcystis bloom toxicity in Africa?

a. not enough evidence to incriminate the blooms with wildlife mortality
b. hippopotamus are the most commonly affected species
c. causes acute hepatic swelling with mottled orange discoloration, petechiation, and lung edema
d. blooms are most common in isolated lakes
e. Mycrocystis is the least pathogenic of the cyanobacteria
c. causes acute hepatic swelling with mottled orange discoloration, petechiation, and lung edema
-. Eutrophication and bloom formation appear to have been the consequence of the high numbers of hippopotami in specific dams
-causes high wildlife mortality
-M aeruginosa isolated from bloom in February
-white rhino and zebra most affected
JWD10 46(1):95
What unique finding was identified in ranch mink exposed to fuel oil?

a. adrenal gland atrophy in all mink
b. increased serum glucocorticoids
c. increased fecal glucocorticoids
d. decreased response of adrenal gland to stressor model
e. more detrimental effects in males versus females
d. decreased response of adrenal gland to stressor model
-typically, adrenal responses to stressors are usually magnified in hypertrophied glands but in this case the response was minimal
-no increased serum or fecal glucocorticoids
-adrenal hypertrophy
JWD10 46(1):103
Which of the following is true about experimental deerpox infection in black tailed deer?

a. lesions are restricted to cutaneous areas of face and feet
b. intravenous infection led to faster development of lesions over the intracutaneous route
c. horizontal transmission with scab material led to sever lesions, including respiratory disease
d. most severe lesions observed after commingling of fawns
e. lesions do not resolve and ultimately lead to death of the animals
d. most severe lesions observed after commingling of fawns
-most common lesions are cutaneous and feet but may also see oral and lung lesions
-propose deerpox as the etiology for raw neck syndrome
-IV infection led to delayed lesions but longer duration
-horizontal scab trans was poor
-most lesions resolve in 1 month, lack prominent vesicular stage, primary cutaneous lesions are small, and internal lesions are uncommon

JWd 10 46(1):33
Which of the following is true about Canada lynx in Minnesota?

a. males were healthier than females
b. juveniles had lower ALP and P than adults
c. most values were within reference ranges for domestic cats
d. captive lynx older than 5 years were heavier than free range lynx
e. body mass of free range lynx decreased b/n serial captures
c. most values were within reference ranges for domestic cats
-no sex differences
-up to 2yrs captive heavier than wild
-ALP and P higher in juvies d/t bone growth
-free range maintain body mass
-Canada lynx in Minnesota are in good condition
JWD10 46(1):13
Which of the following immunoassays for tuberculosis had the best agreement and should be considered for use in parallel testing?

a. CFT and MAPIA
b. RT and MAPIA
c. CFP and RT
d. FPA and CRT
e. MAPIA and FPA
b. RT and MAPIA
the wider range of antibodies in MAPIA is likely the cause of its better performance
-ESAT6, CFP10, ESAT6/CFP10 fusion protein, were the Ag agaisnt which greater # of bison prod AB detected by MAPIA
JWd10 46(1):78
Which of the following tests should be used as a confirmatory test for Brucellosis in elk after positive results are obtained with a screening test?

a. western immunoblot assay
b. ELISA
c. rivanol test
d. card tests
e. rapid automated presumptive test
a. western immunoblot assay
-high sens and spec
JWd10 46(1):87
Which of the following was not identified when using hyaluronidase for chemical immobilization in free ranging polar bears?

a. shorter induction times
b. smaller amount of drugs required
c. hyperthermia
d. no difference in heart rate
e. no difference in biochemistry values
c. hyperthermia

JWD10 46(1):246
Which of the following virus is a zoonotic agent with rodent hosts that has been linked to type 1 diabetes, myocarditis, and Guillian-Barre syndrome in humans?

a. Ljungan virus
b. Herpes virus 2
c. Eastern equine encephalitis
d. Parapox virus
e. Audjesky's disease virus
a. Ljungan virus
-picornaviridae

JWD10 46(1):262
Which of the following is true about liver fluke experimental infection in bison?

a. Fasciola magna cause lesions but not shedding of eggs
b. liver lesions found with Fasciola hepatica without clinical signs
c. eosinophilia was not observed with either infection
d. bison infected with Facsiola magna were anemic
e. bison infecetd with Facsiola hepatica had higher hemoglobin levels
b. liver lesions found with Fasciola hepatica without clinical signs
-F. magna: liver of WTd and elk w/ limited path; lethal to other spp.
-F. hepatica: liver of dometsic ruminants w/ dz but uncommon in wild ruminants
Which of the follwoing is false about Chromobacterium violaceum?

a. gram positive saprophyte
b. restricted to NHP and humans
c. causes deep dermatitis and hepatic granulomas
d. common in wild primate populations
e. causes minimal inflammatory response
a. gram positive saprophyte; is a G-
-reported in captive nonhuman primates but first report in free range primate, howler from Costa Rica
-rare but reported in humans
JWd 10 46(1):306
Co-infection with what pathogens was identified as the cause of death in a Santa Catalina island fox?

a. canine distemper virus and parvovirus
b. toxoplasma and canine distemper virus
c. rabies and calicivirus
d. infcetious canine hepatitis and toxoplasma
e. canine distemper virus and rabies
b. toxoplasma and canine distemper virus
-higher seroprevalence for CDV after mortalities led to link CDV as cause of epidemic
JWD 09 45(2):333
Which of the following is true about Anapalsma phagocytophilum in gray foxes in the western United States?

a. Ixodes scapularis is the primary vector
b. gray foxes serve as the primary wildlife reservoir
c. back country foxes are good sentinel species
d. higher tick populations in the summer linked to higher antibody prevalence
e. urban foxes had higher infection rates than dogs
c. back country foxes are good sentinel species
-I. pacificus in the West, I scapularis in the East
-Identified I. texanus for the first time in the west
I. pacificus: adults in winter and spring
I. texanus: nymphs in spring
D. variabilis: adults in spring and summer
-wildlife reservoir unknown
-51% of foxes seropositive with more back country than urban, and urban prevalence was similar to dogs
JWD 09 45(2):344
The ONRAB oral rabies vaccine utilizes what virus as its vector?

a. canary pox
b. fowl pox
c. canine herpes 3
d. human adenovirus 5
e. coronavirus 1
d. human adenovirus 5

JWD 09 45(2):363
The use of ONRAB oral rabies vaccine in Canada led to:

a. excellent rabies seroconversion in raccoons and striped skunks
b. increased incidence of rabies cases in red foxes
c. poor bait acceptability by striped skunks
d. eradication of rabies in the area
e. shift from raccoon variant to Arctic variant of rabies virus
a. excellent rabies seroconversion in raccoons and striped skunks
-Arctic variant neraly eliminated in Ontario after targeting red foxes by oral vaccines
-raccoon variant now predominant although still only a few cases
-ONRAB uses human adenovirus type 5 as vector
-exceptional bait acceptance, immunity, and efficacy in raccoons
-highest reported titers in striped skunks
-canines better tetracycline uptake than premolars

JWD 09 45(2):363
Which of the following is true about monitoring of tetracycline staining for determining acceptance or oral rabies vaccine baits?

a. the third premolar is preferred for fluoresence analysis
b. use of second premolar leads to low bait acceptance data despite high seroconversion
c. the use of tetracycline is only reliable in older animals
d. bait acceptance as determined by fluorescence does not alter antibody prevalence
e. this technique is not useful in raccoons because of their eating habits
b. use of second premolar leads to low bait acceptance data despite high seroconversion
-canine teeth are more accurate
JWD 09 45(2):363
When might one expect the lower frequency of positive rabies cases in Massachusets?

a. Spring
b. Summer
c. Fall
d. Winter
b. Summer

JWD 09 45(2):375
Which of the following is true about seasonal home range and movement of striped skunk and its implications on rabies transmission?

a. female skunks were more likely to cross the urban-wildlife interface
b. home range increased during the winter
c. night travel was greatest during the winter
d. urban skunks had a larger home range than those in wild habitats
e. domestic cats had the greatest potential to interact with skunks
e. domestic cats had the greatest potential to interact with skunks
-reduced activity and extended periods in dens during the winter
-increased movement and ranges during the spring and summer
-urban skunks have smaller home range (more food)
-males more likely to cross urban-wildlife interface
JWD 09 45(2):388
Which of the following would be a strategy to decrease the risk of Brucellosis in elk in Wyoming?

a. use air cannons to scare elks away from aborted fetuses
b. prevent scavengers from feeding on aborted fetuses
c. disperse food rather than creating feed lines on during February to June
d. increase male elk populations on feeding grounds
e. decrease the number of winter free range feeding locations
c. disperse food rather than creating feed lines on during February to June
-feedlines increase risk of contact with aborted fetuses
-scavengers help remove fetuses and may reduce risk
-increased elk pops = inc risk
-females spend more time investigating than juveniles or males
-increased risk at feed grounds
JWD 09 45(2):398
Which of the following diseases is well established in feral swine populations but erradicated in all domestic swine?

a. brucellosis
b. pseudorabies
c. classical swine fever
d. porcine repro and respiratory disease
b. pseudorabies
-brucellosis: feral, TX domestics
-swine fever: erradicated
-PRRSV: not well est in feral
JWD09 45(2):422
Which of the following is true about the effects of Sin Nombre virus on populations of deer mice?

a. higher antibody prevalence in juveniles
b. may decrease male reproductive output
c. no seasonal effect on epidemics
d. the number of recent infections is indicative of epizootic intensity
e. leads to acute population declines with fast recoveries
d. the number of recent infections is indicative of epizootic intensity
JWD09 45(2):430
-speculate SNV may reduce repro output of females
-May > September
-adults > juveniles
-urine and saliva shedding highest during early stages of infection
JWD09 45(2):430
Which of the following was reported when using butorphanol, azaperone, and medetomidine combination for immobilization of captive white tailed deer?

a. increased risk of hyperthermia
b. hypoventilation followed by tachypnea
c. improved oxygenation in lateral recumbency
d. body tremors, leg paddling, and side to side head movement
e. bloating and regurgitation
d. body tremors, leg paddling, and side to side head movement
-lower risk of hyperthermia
-hypoventilation
-better in strenal
-excellent induction with low volume and good recoveries
JWD09 45(2):457
Which of the following is not a side effect of xylazine or xylazine drug combinations in deer?

a. bloating
b. bradycardia
c. hypoxemia
d. anorexia
e. alkalemia
e. alkalemia
-acidemia
-bloating and regurg
-bradycardia
-hypoxemia
-anorexia
-temp regulation/hyperthermia
-glycosuria
JWD09 45(2):457
Which of the following was not a factor influencing injury of badgers captured in stopped restraints?

a. increased injuries in the summer
b. smaller badgers had more injuries
c. more severe lesions with restraint across abdomen
d. smaller stop distance increased skin injury
e. age association for muscle injuries
c. more severe lesions with restraint across abdomen
-overall low injury severity
-only season and age influenced sq and muscle injuries
-more severe w/ restraint diagonal across thorax
-young and old higher muscle injury vs adults
JWD09 45(2):481
Which of the following is true about experimental infection with West NIle virus in Hawaii Amakihi?

a. do not develop viremia
b. mild clinical signs with low viral loads
c. poor amplification host
d. survivors clear infection in 7 to 10 days
e. no evidence of neutralizing antibodies
d. survivors clear infection in 7 to 10 days
-all birds viremic
-mosquito exposed birds shed 1d PI
-anorexia, lethargy, 41%mort
-high viral load in tissues
-antibodies in 9-46d
-Cx quinquefasciatus competent vector
-Amakihi is adequate amplification host
JWD09 45(2):257
Which of the following was identified in anurans in farm ponds in Tennessee?

a. eosinophilic droplet degeneration was commonly present in renal tubules with myxospordia infection
b. myxosporidia and ranavirus co-infection higher in bullfrog tadpoles in the summer
c. severe changes in the liver associated with ranavirus
d. all individuals had some evidence of disease
e. ranavirus identified as the etiologic agent of red-leg
a. eosinophilic droplet degeneration was commonly present in renal tubules with myxospordia infection
-all but one bullfrog were healthy
-myxo and rana higher in bullfrog tadpoles in winter
-ranavirus affects renal tubular epithelium mostly, also no histo changes in study
-A. hydrophila from single red leg case
JWD09 45(2):314
Which of the following is true about skeletal lesions in wild opossums?

a. the ribs were the most commonly affected bone
b. most commonly affects the caudal body
c. car trauma was the primary cause of injuries
d. average less than 1 per animal
e. more common in young
a. the ribs were the most commonly affected bone
-most common cranial
-ribs>scapula>pelvis>fibula>vertebra>teeth>tibia>podia
-avg 4/animal
-predator attacks>fall and car trauma
JWD0945(2):325
Which of the following species was found to infect Hawaii Amakihi birds?

a. Knemidokoptes jamaicensis
b. Knemidocoptes mutans
c. Procnemidokpotes janssensi
d. Knemidocoptes avium
e. Procnemidokoptes hensalii
a. Knemidokoptes jamaicensis

K. mutans - domestic fowl
K. pilae - parrots
P. janssensi - restricted to lovebirds
others made up
JWD09 45(2):497
Which of the following is a factor associated with clinical manifestation of Demodex cafferi in African buffalo?

a. sex
b. age
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Brucellosis
e. pregnancy
b. age
young > old

JWD09 45(2):502
Which of the following is true about the occurrence of dermoid cysts in Caribou from Canada?

a. more prevalent in females
b. more common in juveniles
c. characterized by swirl of hair on the surface
d. mostly occur in the legs
e. are non pathogenic
e. are non pathogenic

-cervical
-adults
-no sex predilection
-hair on the inside

JWD09 45 (2):505
Which of the following conclusions is true about the use of real time RT-PCR on fresh avian droppings to survey for avian influenza virus?

a. results yield a lower prevalence than oropharyngeal swabs
b. results yield a higher prevalence than cloacal swabs
c. results are accurate when applied to geese but not duck feces
d. results are comparable to oropharyngeal and cloacal swabs
e. specificity was higher but sensitivity lower than for cloacal swabs
d. results are comparable to oropharyngeal and cloacal swabs
-prevalence was very low for both bird feces and urine samples and cloacal and oropharyngeal swabs
JWD09 45(2)512
Which of the following was identified as a positive factor for detection of Leptsopira and CDV antibodies in raccoons from Indiana?

a. higher weight for both
b. age for Leptospirosis only
c. sex for CDV only
d. rural environment for CDV
e. urban environment for Leptospirosis
a. higher weight for both
-also age (adults > juvies) for CDV
heavier animals were more likely to be seropositive for both

JWD09 45(2):531
What is the primary reservoir of mycobacterium bovis in Michigan?
A) Badger
B) Opossum
C) Skunk
D) Deer
E) Mice
D) Deer
JWD04 1
What is the ideal tissue to collect for determination of mycobacterium prevalaence in white tailed deer?
A) Obex
B) Mediastinal lymph node
C) Trachobronchial lymph node
D) Tonsil
E) Feces
D) Tonsil
Palantine tonsils are close the the inoculation point, either inhalation or oral ingestion.
JWD04 1
Apparent prevalence of M. bovis in Michigan deer underestimates true prevalence
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
A) TRUE
JWD04 1
Wolves in Wood Buffalo National Park are not a reliable species to transmit Brucella to bison
A)TRUE
B)FALSE
True. Though they can carry and die from experimental infection, they do not readily shed it.
JWD04 1
What is the principle vector for hemorrhagic disease viruses of deer?
A) Ticks
B) Lice
C) Biting midges
D) Deer fly
E) Nematodes
C) Biting midges
What is the principle etiology of Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome?
A) Sin Nombre virus
B) West Nile virus
C) Leptospirosis
D) El Moro Canyon virus
E) Nipah virus
A) Sin Nombre virus
JWD05 vol1
What is the primary vector for Sin Nombre virus?
A) Rat
B) Mouse
C) Cockroach
D) Starling
E) Pigeon
B) Mouse
*Peromyscus maliculatus, the deer mouse
JWD05 vol1
Which of the following have been shown to have a carrier state of Pastuerella multocida?
A) White fronted geese
B) Trumpeter swans
C) Mallard
D) Lesser Snow geese
E) Canada geese
D) Lesser Snow geese
JWD05 vol1
What is the host of Borrelia burgdorferi in California?
A) Mule deer
B) Black-tailed deer
C) White tailed deer
D) Elk
E) Caribou
B) Black-tailed deer
JWD05 vol1
What is the primary vector for Borrelia burgdorferi in the western U.S.
A) Ixodes scapularis
B) Ixodes pacificus
C) Ornithodoros coriaceus
D) Damalinia sp.
E) Dermacentor occidentalis
B) Ixodes pacificus
JWD05 vol1
Which of the following harbors but does not develop disease from Paraelaphostrongylus tenuis?
A) Elk
B) White-tailed deer
C) Black-tailed deer
D) Mule deer
E) Moose
B) White-tailed deer
JWD05 vol1
Which of the following is false regarding Parelaphostrongylus tenuis?
A) White-tailed deer shed the L1 larvae
B) Larvae are shed more abundantly in the spring
C) The degree of fecal shedding does not reflect severity of disease
D) Young animals shed more larvae than older animals
E) Worms can be found in the pia mater
E) Worms can be found in the pia mater
*Worms can be found in the subdural space embedded in the dura
JWD05 vol1
Which of the following 2 agents causes disease in caribou?
A) Parelaphostrongylus tenuis
B) Parelaphostrongylus andersoni
C) Parelphaostrongylus odocoilei
D) Elaphostrongylus rangiferi
E) Elaphostrongylus cervi
B) Parelaphostrongylus andersoni
D) Elaphostrongylus rangiferi
*P. tenuis causes disease in many species and is hosted by WT deer, P. andersoni causes disease in caribou, P. odocoilei is found in mule deer and black-tailed deer. E. rangiferi is found in caribou and white-tailed deer. E. cervi is found in many species

JWD05 vol1
True or False. House finches that survive Mycoplasma gallisepticum infection are immune to further clinical disease.
False. House finches that recover from infection can develop clinical signs of infection at a later date. This could be either reinfection or recrudescence of the organism.

JWD05 vol2
Name the 2 types of lungworms that affect bighorn sheep.
Muellerius and protostrongylus, though Muellerius is more abundant.

JWD05 vol2
True or False .
A rise in fecal glucocorticoids concentration corresponds to increase fecal shedding of lungworms larvae.
False
JWD05 vol2
Sodium chloride poisoning in house sparrows and other passerines is commonly due to what?
A) Drinking seawater
B) Habitat contaminated by salt mining
C) Environmental waste exposure
D) Deicing agents for winter roads
E) Acid rain
D) Deicing agents for winter roads
JWD05 vol2
Which of the following is not commonly found in birds affected by oil spills?
A) Dehydration
B) Cachexia
C) Edema under the koilin
D) Anemia
E) Ventricular ulcers
C) Edema under the koilin
*Edema under the koilin occurs with salt toxicity.
JWD05 vol2
Naturally occurring nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism in egrets has been known to occur where?
A) Gulf coast of Mississippi
B) Rio Grande valley
C) Central Texas
D) Northeastern New Mexico
E) Southern Arizona
C) Central Texas
*Vertebrate prey are low in calcium in this area.
JWD05 vol2
What is the most common serotype of Pastuerella multocida outbreaks in waterfowl?
A) Serotype 1
B) Serotype 2
C) Serotype 3
D) Serotype 4
E) Serotype 5
A) Serotype 1
JWD05 vol3
True or False. Antibodies to pasteurella multocida persist for life in the infected waterfowl.
False. They are thought to persist for 3-4 months after infection. A positive antibody probably indicates recent infection. Note: birds vaccinated seem to have a different antibody response.
JWD05 vol3
The idea that Pastuerella multocida is spread by snow geese is due to both experimental studies as well as knowledge of snow geese behavior. Which of the following snow geese traits has been identified to contribute to spread of avian cholera?
A) Short gastrointestinal transit time
B) Omnivorous diet
C) Frequent aggression to other species
D) Gregarious behavior
E) Tend to die at water’s edge
D) Gregarious behavior
JWD05 vol3
True or False. White fronted geese are suspected carriers of avian cholera.
False, Lesser snow geese and Ross’ geese are known carriers

JWD05 vol3
True or False. Mule deer in vehicular related deaths are more likely to be infected with CWD.
True. Mule deer are both more likely to test CWD positive as well as have spongioform encephalopathy on histopathology. This indicates mule deer struck by vehicles may be at a later stage of disease.
JWD05 vol3
Cheetah in Namibia have all of the following diseases
A) Venoocclusive disease
B) Glomerulosclerosis
C) Gastritis
D) Amyloidosis
E) None of the above
E) none of the above
Wild cheetah do not have the same diseases as captive cheetah
JWD05 vol3
Which of the following is false regarding tetracycline marked rabies oral vaccines?
A) low biomarker detection rates are reported
B) A premolar is usually removed for evaluation of tetracycline
C) Rabies baits contain a polymer shell with the vaccine inside a sachet
D) tetracycline had a 90% bioavailability
E) Epitetracycline is the active metabolite in baits
D) tetracycline had a 90% bioavailability
JWD05 vol3
Which of the following was a commonly diagnosed problem in deceased Ovis canadensis in New Mexico before 1997, which has subsequently not occurred?
A) Mountain lion predation
B) Drought
C) Psoroptes spp.
D) Flooding
E) Yersinia pestis infection
C) Psoroptes spp.
JWD-5 vol3
Which of the following is risk factor for infection with hemoproteus in Arizona sparrows?
A) Age
B) Season of emergence of vectors
C) Diet
D) Nesting height
E) Rainfall
D) Nesting height
*Roufous winged sparrows had a high prevalence of hemoproteous over other sparrow species sampled. The roufous winged sparrows nest above ground, whereas the others are ground dwellers.
JWD05 vol3
Which of the following is a clinical sign of canine hepatozoonosis in coyotes?
A) Mydriasis
B) Anemia
C) Icterus
D) Bone lesions
E) Atonic bladder
D) Bone lesions
*Hepatozoonosis, transmitted by Amblyomma maculatum, causes periosteal bone proliferation. Occurs in south and southeast U.S. Dogs become infected when they ingest the tick, presumably through grooming.

JWD05 vol3
What is the natural host for avian paramyxovirus 1?
A) Chicken
B) Turkey
C) Pigeons
D) Ducks
E) Gulls
D) Ducks
*APM 7 is generally associated with gulls and pigeons
JWD05 vol3
Flying fox are known carriers of all of the following except?
A) Leptospira
B) Brucella
C) Menangle virus
D) Hendra virus
E) Nipah virus
B) Brucella
JWD05 vol4
At 100 days of infection where is Parelaphostrongylus odocoileus located when experimentally infected in thinhorn sheep?
A) Arachnoid space
B) Cerebral parenchyma
C) Peripheral blood
D) Muscle
E) Heart
D) Muscle
*0-50 days-direct or hematogenous spread to CNS, 50-70 days-develop in CNS, 70-100 days-paired/mated mature worms leave CNS migrate to muscles, 100 days-worms found in muscle.
jwd05 vol4
Which of the following diseases are Pallas’ cats extremely susceptible to?
A) Feline herpesvirus
B) Canine distemper virus
C) Feline pox
D) Toxoplasma
E) Cytauxzoon
D) Toxoplasma
JWD05 vol4
What is the most common lesion in vultures with diclofenac poisoning?
A) Glomerulonephritis
B) Ischemia
C) Tubular necrosis
D) Hepatitis
E) Myocardial infarction
C) Tubular necrosis
*Birds also had renal and visceral gout
What is the most likely pathology that leads to death from diclofenac poisoning in vultures?
A) Reduction of GFR
B) Loss of control of the renal portal system
C) Excess bile acid production
D) Incomplete hepatic nitrogen metabolism
E) Myoelectrical disease
B) Loss of control of the renal portal system
*The diclofenac causes a loss of prostaglandin which would normally regulate adrenal function. With the loss of adrenal function, the renal portal valves are uncontrolled. Unregulated redirection of blood away from the renal cortex resulting in necrosis of the proximal convoluted tubules. Urate aggregates occur in the tubules. Early in the disease the glomerulus, distal tubules, and collecting ducts are spared but eventually affected by the aggregates of urates.
JWD05 vol4
Which sampling approach is best when collecting tonsils for CWD testing?
A) Dorsolateral
B) Dorsomedial
C) Ventrolateral
D) Ventromedial
E) Tonsils are not effective to diagnose CWD
A) Dorsolateral
JWD05 vol4
What is the primary mechanism for survival of black tailed prairie dogs to Yersinia pestis infection?
A) Avoidance behavior
B) Cellular immunity
C) Humoral immunity
D) Colostral immunity
E) All exposed prairie dogs die
C) Humoral immunity
JWD06 vol1
Which of the following is false regarding West Nile virus in raptors?
A) Experimentally infected birds are often sub-clinical
B) Eye tissue is the most common location to isolate virus
C) Arteritis is a common finding
D) Common histopathology includes myocarditis and encephalitis
E) Raptors shed WNV in the conjunctiva
E) Raptors shed WNV in the conjunctiva
*Virus is shed orally and cloacally
JWD06 vol1
Sealion pox virus are in which of the following groups.
A) Orthopox
B) Parapox
C) Calicivirus
D) Morbillivirus
E) Influenzavirus
B) Parapox
JWD06 vol1
Pasturella multocida infections can lead to infected wetlands after an outbreak. How long does the wetland carry infective Pastuerella after an outbreak?
A) 1 week
B) 4 weeks
C) 7 weeks
D) 20 weeks
E) 25 weeks
C) 7 weeks
*Some sampled ponds do not have detectable Pastuerella. Others had Pastuerella but it did not persist beyond 7 weeks.
JWD06 vol1
Which of the following factors contributes to the persistence of Pastuerella multocida in wetlands?
A) pH
B) Temperature
C) Soil mangesium
D) Soil calcium
E) No environmental conditions correlated
E) No environmental conditions correlated
JWD06 vol1
True or False, Pigeons are not important carriers of shiga toxin producing E. coli.
important carriers of shiga toxin producing E. coli.

TRUE
Which of the following is false regarding Yersina pestis?
A) Y. pestis first arrived on the Pacific coast of North America.
B) The vector for disease is the flea
C) Prairie dog colonies repopulate sites of plague epizootics
D) Y. pestis remains dormant in prairie dog colonies
E) Small mammals in the prairie dog habitat are not reservoirs of sustained infection
D) Y. pestis remains dormant in prairie dog colonies
*Y. Pestis first arrived on Rattus sp. on ships from Asia in Pacific ports in 1900. Prairie dogs will repopulate and recolonize areas after plague epizootics. The population can then experience another epizootic years later or never experience any further problems. Y. pestis does not remain dormant in prairie dog colonies. Small mammals (rodents, rabbits) and fleas sampled in prairie dog areas did not contain antibodies to Y. pestis.
JWD06 vol1
Name 3 species known to be reported with Cryptococcosis?
Name species known to be reported with Cryptococcosis?
Koala, Dall’s porpoises (and other british colombia wildlife), Potoroos
JWD06 vol1
At a wildlife rehabilitation facility in Virginia, which of the following species is most likely to present with neurologic disease associated with West Nile virus?
A) Great horned owl
B) Red tailed hawk
C) Peregrine falcon
D) Bald eagle
E) Sharp-shined hawk
A) Great horned owl
JWD06 vol2
Which of the following is true regarding Pastuerella multocida in Antarctic birds?
A) kuas appear more resistant to disease
B) Kelp gulls are likely to have brought P. multocida to Antarctica
C) Contaminated ice flows are the method of transmission between species
D) Emperor penguins sustained major die offs
E) Adelie penguins did not exhibit clinical signs or deaths from Pastuerella
B) Kelp gulls are likely to have brought P. multocida to Antarctica
*Nonbreeding Kelp gulls are thought to have brought Pastuerella to Antarctica. Contaminated water is the method of transmission between species. Skua and Adelie penguins that were near the infected pond were affected. Skuas developed subacute infection. Adelie penguins developed acute infection. Skuas were the most affected. Adelies were the least affected. This may have had to due with Adelie penguin migration timing.
JWD06 vol2
True or false. Elk in the Greater Yellowstone area are infected with Brucella suis.
False. They are infected with B. abortus serovars 1 and 4.
What is the most common cause of death in tundra and trumpeter swans in Washington state, USA?
A) Aspergillosis
B) Trauma
C) Lead toxicity
D) Zinc toxicity
E) Organophosphate toxicity
C) Lead toxicity
JWD06 vol2
True or false. Cytauxzoon are categorized as large piroplasms.
True or false. Cytauxzoon are categorized as large piroplasms.
False, they are categorized as small piroplasms. Feline Babesia sp. can be found in both the small and large piroplasm categories.
JWD06 vol2
Which of the following is the reservoir for Cytauxzoon felis?
A) Tiger
B) Florida panther
C) Texas cougar
D) Bobcat
E) Domestic cat
D) Bobcat
*Disease occurs in all species, including bobcat.
JWD06 vol2
Which of the following is the invertebrate vector for Hepatozoon?
A) Megabothris abantus
B) Megabothris asio megacolpus
C) Aetheca wagneri
D) Peromyscopsylla selenis
E) Peromyscopsylla hesperomys
A) Megabothris abantus
*These are all fleas found on voles.
JWD06 vol2
What is the primary reservoir for infectious keratoconjunctivitis in bighorn sheep?
A) Cattle
B) domestic Sheep
C) domestic Goats
D) White-tailed deer
E) Elk
C) domestic Goats
*This disease is caused by Mycoplasma conjunctivae.

JWD06 vol2
Which of the following is false regarding Brucella?
A) Faculatative anaerobic
B) Gram negative bacteria
C) Extracellular bacteria
D) Brucella is present on both sides of the pacific ocean in marine mammals
E) Cross-reactivity of testing occurs with bacteria of other genera
C) Extracellular bacteria
JWD06 vol2
True or False. Swift fox are a reservoir for Y pestis infected fleas for black-tailed prairie dogs.
False. Swift fox have antibodies to Y. pestis, but fleas tested from the swift fox were negative. Additionally the type of fleas on the swift fox (Pulex irritans) are different than prairie dog fleas (P. simulans and Oropsylla hirsuta).
JWD06 vol2
Which of the following is false regarding Mycoplasma.
A) Causes disease in wild house finches in eastern U.S.
B) Spread of Mycoplasma is limited by the Appalachian mountains
C) Likely occurred from a single point exposure
D) New introductions of mycoplasma strains are rare
E) Has seasonal occurrence
B) Spread of Mycoplasma is limited by the Appalachian mountains
*Spread of Mycoplasma is moving westward. Disease is limited to the eastern half of the country, but Mycoplasma has been detected via PCR in western states.

JWD06 vol2
Which of the following is not used to assess depth of experimentally induced chiropteran anesthesia?
A) Toe clenching
B) Corneal response
C) Bite response
D) Laying in horizontal recumbency
E) Loss of righting reflex
B) Corneal response
*Palpebral response is also measured
JWD06 vol2
Which of the following is false regarding chiropteran anesthesia with ketamine and medetomidine?
A) Palpebral response is rarely lost during anesthesia
B) The higher the dose the longer the biting reflex was absent
C) Toe clenching was absent longer than any other response
D) Muscle tone was less than when anesthetized with ketamine and xylazine
E) Wing flapping is a side effect of ketamine only anesthesia
C) Toe clenching was absent longer than any other response
*Toe clenching returned before the biting response
JWD06 vol2
True or False, The prevalence of brucella antibodies is higher in bears and wolves than in caribou in Alaska.
True. This is theorized to be due to bears and wolves preying on young calves or aborted fetuses, placenta, or cows that die of brucellosis.
JWD06 vol3
Which of the following is false regarding rabies in raccoons in Ontario, Canada?
A) Rabid raccoons exhibit abnormal behavior
B) Disease occurs more in juvenile raccoons
C) Rabid raccoons occur less frequently in the summer
D) Rabies occurs during times of denning and mating
E) Rabid raccoons were commonly found near barns
B) Disease occurs more in juvenile raccoons
*Disease occurs more frequently in adults. It occurred in fall, winter, and spring, which would correlate to denning and mating seasons. It’s association with barns may have to do with the denning.
JWD06 vol3
Which of the following is false regarding Renibacteria salmoninarum?
A) Etiologic agent of bacterial kidney disease
B) Affects Salmonids
C) Sea lamprey can be a host for this bacteria
D) Found in the Great Lakes basin
E) Commonly isolated in the gills and lateral line
E) Commonly isolated in the gills and lateral line
*Commonly isolated in the kidney
JWD06 vol3
P. odocoilei causes disease in all of the following species except?
A) Black-tailed deer
B) White-tailed deer
C) Caribou
D) Mountain goat
E) Mule deer
B) White-tailed deer
JWD06 vol3
Which of the following is the most common type of Clostridium botulinum that causes fish eating birds disease in the Great Lakes?
A) Toxin A
B) Toxin B
C) Toxin C
D) Toxin D
E) Toxin E
E) Toxin E
JWD06 vol3:479
True or False. CWD is orally transmissible in moose.
True. It has been experimentally induced by feeding brain homogenate of infected white-tailed deer to moose.
JWD06 vol3
Which of the following postmortem findings is indicative of disseminated visceral coccidiosis in white-naped crane?
A) Enteritis
B) Hepatitis
C) Encephalitis
D) Visceral granulomas
E) Airsac plaques
D) Visceral granulomas
jwd06 vol3
Which of the following is false regarding Richardson’s ground squirrels in Canada?
A) Juvenile squirrels are more likely to be carrying Bartonella
B) Bartonella infection is most common in late summer and early autumn
C) Fleas on ground squirrels may transmit Bartonella to other species
D) Bartonella infection was density dependent
E) Bartonella is zonotic
D) Bartonella infection was density dependent
JWD06 vol4
Which of the following is false regarding wild turkeys in California?
A) Harbors Ixodes pacificus
B) Harbors Dermacentor viriabilis
C) Harbors chicken lice
D) Turkeys are a host of Borrelia burgdorferi
E) Turkeys are introduced from Mexico
D) Turkeys are a host of Borrelia burgdorferi
*While turkeys host I. Pacificus, they do not appear to be a reservoir for B. burgdorferi
JWD06 vol4
Cervids with malignant catarrhal fever in Norway exhibited all of the following clinical sings except?
A) Ocular lesions
B) Oral erosions
C) Gout
D) Vasculitis
E) Mummified fetus
C) Gout
*Ocular lesions were the most common finding. Moose mostly, once roe deer, two red deer.
JWD06 vol4
Which of the following is not a cause of malignant catarrhal fever?
A) Alcelaphine herpesvirus 1 – wildebeest host
B) Ovine herpesvirus 2 – sheep host
C) Caprine herpesvirus 2 – goat host
D) Bovine herpesvirus 2 – bison host
D) Bovine herpesvirus 2 – bison host
Bovine herpesvirus dose not cause malignant catarrhal fever
JWD06 vol4
True or false. Malignant catarrhal fever in moose is most often caused by alcelaphine herpesvirus 1.
False, it can be caused by both caprine and ovine herpesviruses 2.
JWD06 vol4
Which of the following is false regarding lead poisoning in condors
A) Turkey vultures are a good model for lead poisoning in condors
B) Condors are affected by lead toxicity
C) Survival of exposed birds is poor
D) Postmortem lead concentration is higher in kidneys than liver
E) The source of lead is likely bullet fragments
A) Turkey vultures are a good model for lead poisoning in condors
*Turkey vultures are a poor model for lead poisoning in condors
JWD06 vol4
True or false, Mycobacterium bovis can persist on supplemental feed.
True. A study proved can survive on multiple feedstuffs at freezing, refrigeration, and room temperatures.
JWD06 vol4
Which of the following has not been used as a bait marker in Eurasian badgers?
A) Rhodamine B
B) Tetracycline
C) ethyl-iophenoxic acid
D) propyl-iophenoxic acid
B) Tetracycline
JWD06 vol4