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172 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What does ACS stand for?
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Acute Coronary Syndrome
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How many bpm is bradycardia?
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< 60 bpm
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How many bpm is Tachycardia?
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> 100 bpm
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What is arrythmia?
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Normal variation in rhythm - speeds up in inspiration and slows in expiration.
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What does PAC stand for?
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Premature Atrial Contractions.
Beats start in atrium or AV node instead of Sinus Node. Come earlier than next normal beat. |
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What is PVC?
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Premature Ventricular Contractions. Beats arise in ventricles instead of Sinus Node and come earlier than next normal beat.
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PMI is normally located where?
a. Rt 5th intercostal space at mid-clavicular line b. Rt 5th intercostal space at anterior clavicular line c. Lt 4th intercostal space at mid-clavicular line d. Lt 5th intercostal space at mid-clavicular line |
d
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The following valves have cordae tendineae & papillary muscles:
a. aorta & pulmonary valves b. mitral & tricuspid valves c. aorta & mitral valves d. tricuspid & pulmonary valves |
b
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Blood from the lungs normally returns to the left side of the HT via:
a. pulmonary arteries b. pulmonary veins c. ductus arteriosus d. foramen ovale |
b
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a problem valve would include which:
a. bicuspid aortic valve b. bicuspid mitral valve c. tricuspid aortic valve d. tricuspid atrioventricular valve in the right heart |
a
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in western med, the pericardium is a metaphysical organ similar to tcm:
T or F |
F
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in the scheme of things, a right bundle branch block is worse than a left bundle branch block because the right side of the heart does all the work.
T or F |
F
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the pumping efficiency of the heart is best measured directly by:
a. stroke volume b. heart rate c. ejection fraction d. EKG |
c
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The loudest murmur is grade 1.
T or F |
F
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A palpable thrill is associated with a ____ murmur:
a. grade 1 b. grade 2 c. grade 3 d. grade 4 |
d
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the "P" wave is related to:
a. atrial activity b. ventricular activity c. injury current d. repolarization |
a
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The following is true for heart attack EXCEPT:
a. most often confused with indigestion b. 30% of patients or more die before they reach the ER c. heart pain may be atypical especially in postmenopausal women d. patients with new & significant chest pain should try outpatient TCM before referring out for immediate western consultation |
d
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The ideal LDL is:
a. <100 b. <200 c. >40 d. >50 |
a
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a patient presents with orthopnea, PND, lower extremity edema, a summation gallop, posterior crackles and has a previous history of mi. What is his probably diagnosis?
a. pericarditis b. pancreatitis c. chronic lung disease d. congestive heart failure e. laziness |
d
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one of the most common of heart arrhythmias, especially in the elderly is atrial fibrillation. Clinically this usually presents itself as one of the kinds of:
a. irregular, irregular pulse b. regular, irregular pulse |
a
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Which of the following rhythms requires a pacemaker:
a. third degree heart block b. SVT c. PVC d. sinus arrhythmia |
a
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Wich is the most common cause of hypertension?
a. idiopathic or essential b. renal artery stenosis c. pheochromocytoma d. Cushing's disease |
a
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Tetralogy of Fallot is:
a. aorta & pulmonary artery switched position b. opening in atrial septum c. opening in the ventricular septum d. a condition in which there is a connection from the pulmonary artery to aorta in fetus e. a confluence of 4 different anomalies: vsd, overriding of aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis f. hypertension in upper extremities and low blood pressure in lower extremities |
e
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TV or tidal volume is which of the following:
a. the amount of gas left in lungs with maximum inhalation b. amount of gas left in lungs with maximum exhalation c. amount of gas exchanged in a typical breath, in and out d. how much gas can be brought into lungs when starting from a resting state and taking as big a breath as possible |
d
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apnea is:
a. shortness of breath when recumbent b. greater respiratory effort than normal both in and out c. not breathing or a period of not breathing d. rapid breathing e. SOB after lying down for a while, gradual build up rather than immediate |
c
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Status asthmaticus means that the asthma is continuous
T or F |
T
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"Honey-combed" appearance of the lung is typical for:
a. COPD b. asthma c. interstitial lung disease d. pulmonary edema |
c
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a peak flow meter is helpful in the office setting. a formal spirometry is more involved.
T or F |
T
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A "pink puffer" describes a patient with chronic bronchitis.
T or F |
F
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the western pathophysiology for treating asthma does not include addressing:
a. bronchospasm b. inflammation and edema of the airways c. infection when present d. sweating |
d
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in the care of an acute asthmatic, which is the least accurate tool for assessing therapeutic success:
a. wheezing that clears after treatment b. patient telling you that he/she feels better but no objective changes c. a normal oxygen saturation test post-treatment (improved blood oxygen) d. improvement in peak flow meter |
b
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in lung physiology, diffusion is a term that is used to describe the capability for gas exchange between the alveolus and a capillary.
T or F |
T
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a high school football player often has trouble doing his laps because of cough and dyspnea that begins shortly after he starts to run. Which is the most likely cause?
a. exercise-induced asthma b. emphysema c. pneumonia d. exercise anxiety |
a
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The estimated tidal volume for an adult male is:
a. 250 b. 300 c. 500 d. 1000 |
c
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pure chronic bronchitis if it exists alone would have all the following except:
a. chronic recurrent cough b. productive cough c. possible wheezing d. blebs |
d
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most of absorption of nutrients takes place in the:
a. small intestine b. stomach c. colon d. pancreas |
a. small intestine
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which is true about vitamin k?
a. made with the help of sunlight b. intestinal bacteria manufacture it c. it is abundant in the newly born d. has nothing to do with coagulation |
b. intestinal bacteria manufacture it
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ideal weigh according to the body mass index (BMI) is:
a. 20-24 b. 25-29 c. 30-39 d. 40-49 |
a. 20-24
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lactose intolerance is an example of which kind of diarrhea?
a. osmotic diarrhea b. secretory diarrhea c. diarrhea due to malabsorption syndrome d. travelers diarrhea |
a. osmotic diarrhea
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blood from the upper gi tract that causes a tar-like stool with a very characteristic smell:
a. melena b. hematochezia c. hematemesis d. hemoptysis |
a. melena
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the following is true about stomach EXCEPT:
a. the acting upper esophageal sphincter is the cricopharyngeal muscle b. the cause of GERD is failure to close off the laower esophageal sphincter c. amylase digests fat d. pepsin digests protein e. mucus cells protect the stomach lining |
c. amylase digests fat
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the following is true about the pancreas EXCEPT:
a. insulin is secreted by the alpha islet cells b. glucagon increases blood sugar c. the islets cells are part of endocrine pancreas d. exocrine glands of the pancreas make and secrete the digestive enzymes via ducts |
a. insulin is secreted by the alpha islet cells
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the main submandibular gland duct is called:
a. stenson's b. wharton's c. subdental d. simpson |
b. wharton's
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the Peyer Patches located primiarily in the wall of the ileum are:
a. important for their digestive function b. important for Vit B12 absoprtion c. important for their immunological functions d. not important for anything |
c. important for their immunological functions
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"Dysphagia" means:
a. difficulty swallowing b. pain or discomfort in the upper abdomen, a sensation of extreme fullness, bloating, or burning pain, reflux c. burping d. hiccups |
a. difficulty swallowing
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which of the following drugs can cause diarrhea or loose stools:
a. iron b. calcium c. magnesium d. narcotics |
c. magnesium
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which is NOT true about Hirschsprung's disease and/or Achalasia:
a. both involve a problem with the nerve innervation of the gut b. Hirschsprung's is the lower colon c. Achalasia affects the lower esophagus c. both are disease of adults only |
c. both are disease of adults only
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ruptured esophageal varices are all EXCEPT:
a. a cause of upper GI bleeding b. associated with portal hypertension c. found in advanced liver cirrhosis d. easily treated by TCM in the office setting |
d. easily treated by TCM in the office setting
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classic complications of peptic ulcer disease can include all EXCEPT:
a. hemorrhage b. perforation w/peritonitis or pancreatitis c. epigastric or lower chest pain d. scarring (true but not discussed in class) e. poor response to the newer western meds |
e. poor response to the newer western meds
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Mallory-Weiss refers to:
a. esophageal perforation b. a tear in the lower esophagus c. an A-V malformation d. a peptic ulcer |
b. a tear in the lower esophagus
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Ascites is:
a. pleural effusion b. pericardial effusion c. peripheral edema d. free fluid in the abdominal cavity |
d. free fluid in the abdominal cavity
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What is cheilitis?
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inflammation of the lips
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What is glossitis?
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inflammation of the tongue
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What is Stomatitis?
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inflammation of the mouth
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What is the name of candida infection of the mouth, common in infants?
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Thrush
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What is the name of premalignant white patches on bucal mucosa?
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Leukoplakia
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What is Ludwig's angina?
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severe bacterial infection of floor of mouth
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What is Zinker's diverticulum?
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upper pharyngeal collection of food
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What is Barrett's?
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Change in the lining of the esophagus to columnar
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What is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?
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gastrinoma
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What is Plummer-Venson syndrome?
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esophageal web due to iron deficiency
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If patient has ventricular fibrillation, what would you expect to see?
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no pulse, respiration or movement. Needs CPR.
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"Kentucky" is a clue for the position of which heart sound:
a. S3 b. S4 |
a. S3
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If the second heart sound is split in inspiration, that isa normal finding.
T or F |
F
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A summation gallap is a sign of congestive heart failure.
T or F |
True
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Aortic stenosis includes what symptoms (classic triad)?
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Syncope, angina, dyspnea on exertion
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Which of the following murmurs is diastolic and has a "water hammer slapping pulse":
a. aortic stenosis b. aortic regurgitation c. mitral stenosis d. mitral regurgitation |
b. aortic regurgitation
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Which is true of mechanical valves:
a. lasts longer than pig valve b. does not require anticoagulants c. made of animal components d. is a very quiet sounding valve on auscultation |
a. lasts longer than pig valve
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What congenital anomaly has a confluence of the following: VSD, overriding of aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis:
a. Patent Ductus Arteriosus b. coarctation of the aorta c. ASD/Foramen Ovale d. Tetralogy of Fallot |
d. Tetralogy of Fallot
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A conditon in which there is a connection from the pulmonary artery to aorta in a fetus is:
a. Patent Ductus Arteriosus b. coarctation of the aorta c. ASD/Foramen Ovale d. Tetralogy of Fallot |
a. Patent Ductus Arteriosus
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Hypertension in upper extremities and low blood pressure in lower extremities is caused by:
a. Patent Ductus Arteriosus b. coarctation of the aorta c. ASD/Foramen Ovale d. Tetralogy of Fallot |
b. coarctation of the aorta
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An opening in the atrial septum is called:
a. Patent Ductus Arteriosus b. coarctation of the aorta c. ASD/Foramen Ovale d. VSD |
c. ASD/Foramen Ovale
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An opening in the ventricular septum is called:
a. transposition of great vessels b. coarctation of the aorta c. ASD/Foramen Ovale d. VSD |
d. VSD
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The congenital anomaly where the aorta and pulmonary artery have switched positions is called:
a. transposition of great vessels b. coarctation of the aorta c. ASD/Foramen Ovale d. VSD |
a. transposition of great vessel
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The most common cause of hypertension is:
a. idiopathic or essential b. renal artery stenosis c. pheochromocytoma d. Cushings diesease |
a. idiopathic or essential
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What are the ideal values for the following?
Cholesterol HDL LDL Triglycerides |
Cholesterol <200
HDL >50 F, >40 M LDL <100 Triglycerides <60 |
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What does DVT stand for?
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Deep Vein Thrombophlebitis
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What does SBE stand for and what is its significance?
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Subacute bacterial endocarditis.
A bacterial growth that destroys the heart valve. |
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A primary feature of cardiac tamponade is:
a. pulsus paradoxicus b. increased exercise tolerance c. greater stroke volume d. it improves over time |
a. pulsus paradoxicus
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The organs most affected by hypertension are:
a. eyes b. kidneys c. brain d. heart e. all of the above |
e. all of the above
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"Prehypertension" is defined as having what BP?
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121-139/80-89
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"Tennessee" is a clue for the position of which heart sound?
a. S3 b. S4 |
b. S4
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If your patient was in asystole, what would you see clinically?
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flatline
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If the second heart sound is split on expiration, that is a normal finding.
T or F |
T
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Which heart murmur is associated with a ruptured chordae tendinae:
a. aortic stenosis b. aortic regurgitation c. mitral stenosis d. mitral regurgitation |
d. mitral regurgitation
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A summation gallop includes all for heart sounds (S1, 2, 3, 4).
T or F |
T
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Which is due to rheumatic fever and includes the following symptoms - severe fatigue, pulmonary edema, atrial fibrillation, hemoptysis:
a. aortic stenosis b. aortic regurgitation c. mitral stenosis d. mitral regurgitation |
c. mitral stenosis
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Which disease is caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, effects connective tissue of the heart, and can cause symptomatic valvular disease later in adults?
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Rheumatic Fever
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Which is true for pig valves?
a. lasts longer than mechanical valves b. does not require anticoagulation c. most resembles the human vales d. precipitates an occasional spontaneous "oink" on auscultation |
b. does not require anticoagulation
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pulsus paradoxicus is a classic finding in:
a. myocardial infarction b. hypertension c. cardiac tamponade d. atrial fibrillation |
c. cardiac tamponade
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Mild hypertension or Stage 1 hypertension is defined as what BP?
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140-159/90-99
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Inflammation of the cardiac muscle due to coxsackie virus is:
a. pericarditis b. myocarditis c. endocarditis d. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
b. myocarditis
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Bacterial infection of the heart valve most commonly caused by streptococcus viridans is called:
a. pericarditis b. myocarditis c. endocarditis d. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
c. endocarditis
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SBE (Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis) can be prevented by a dental prophylaxis in those that have valvular disease.
T or F |
T
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Which is the only artery in the body that carries unoxygenated blood:
a. pulmonary vein b. aorta c. renal artery d. subclavian artery e. pulmonary artery |
e. pulmonary artery
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The "PMI" or point of maximum impulse is located in the 5th intercostal space in the anterior axillary line. This is the point at which the beating heart is most directly palpable.
T or F |
F
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The apex of the heart is closer to the diaphragm and the base is closer to the head.
T or F |
T
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the cardiac output is affected by the stroke volume and the heart rate.
T or F |
T
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The foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus are normal structures in the adult heart.
T or F |
F
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The electric conduction of the heart begins normally in the left atrial sinus.
T or F |
F
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The normal "ejection fraction" is great than 55%. Less than this is a sign of heart failure.
T or F |
T
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The following is true about heart murmurs except:
a. Grade 3 has a palpable thrill b. Grade 1 is barely audible c. Grade 6 is almost loud enough to be heard without a stethoscope d. Diastolic murmurs are considered abnormal |
a. Grade 3 has a palpable thrill
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The p wave reflects activity in which area of the heart?
a. ventricle b. atrium |
b. atrium
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the qrs complex reflects activity in which area of the heart?
a. ventricle b. atrium |
a. ventricle
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In an EKG, an ST depression reflects:
a. ischemia / angina b. ventricular tachycardia c. injury / heart attack d. supraventricular tachycardia |
a. ischemia / angina
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In an EKG, a convex ST elevation represents:
a. ischemia / angina b. ventricular tachycardia c. injury / heart attack d. supraventricular tachycardia |
c. injury / heart attack
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In an EKG, if the wave looks normal but very close together with a rate up to 300bpm, this reflects:
a. ischemia / angina b. ventricular tachycardia c. injury / heart attack d. supraventricular tachycardia |
d. supraventricular tachycardia
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Shortness of breath when recumbent is:
a. tachypnea b. orthopnea c. apnea d. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea |
b. orthopnea
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Greater respiratory effort than normal both in and out is:
a. tachypnea b. hyperventilation c. apnea d. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea |
b. hyperventilation
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Rapid breathing is:
a. tachypnea b. hyperventilation c. apnea d. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea |
a. tachypnea
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Shortness of breath after lying down for a while, gradual build up rather than immediate is:
a. tachypnea b. hyperventilation c. apnea d. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea |
d. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
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Hemoptysis means to vomit up blood.
T or F |
F
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The two main components of asthma are bronchospasm and inflammation or edema of the airways.
T or F |
T
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Status asthmaticus means that the asthma is stable.
T or F |
F
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Western treatment of asthma includes:
a. bronchodilators for spasm b. inhaled or oral steroids for inflammation c. mortin d. a & c e. a & b f. all of the above |
e. a & b
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COPD is the same as asthma.
T or F |
F
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A pink puffer is primarily someone with emphysema.
T or F |
T
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A blue bloater is primarily someone with chronic bronchitis.
T or F |
T
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An example of negative pressure would be:
a. taking a deep breath b. being ventilated by a machine c. blowing up a balloon d. use of gills under water |
a. taking a deep breath
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In lung physiology, diffusion is a term that is used to describe the ability for gas exchange between the alveolus and a capillary.
T or F |
T
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emphysema is classically described as being thin with a barrel chest or increased A-P diameter, possible dorsal kyphosis, clubbing of the fingers and hyperpnea but no cyanosis.
T or F |
T
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Extensive smoking over a long period of time destroys what two tissues in the lung?
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alveoli and bronchioli
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In western medicine a peak flow meter is used to measure:
a. the forced expiratory volume b. the tidal volume c. the inspiratory volume d. testosterone levels |
a. the forced expiratory volume
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An acute and serious bacterial infection involving the trachea itself is:
a. Epiglottitis b. Croup c. Tracheitis d. Foreign body aspiration |
c. Tracheitis
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Can present with wheezing on one side of the lung:
a. Epiglottitis b. Croup c. Tracheitis d. Foreign body aspiration |
d. Foreign body aspiration
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Acute viral infection with barking cough, hoarseness, and persistent stridor that is common in childhood and usually benign:
a. Epiglottitis b. Croup c. Tracheitis d. Foreign body aspiration |
b. Croup
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Acute bacterial infection with drooling, dysphagia, and swelling of the area above teh glottis that can progress to life-threatening upper airway obstruction:
a. Epiglottitis b. Croup c. Tracheitis d. Foreign body aspiration |
a. Epiglottitis
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Bronchiectasis is:
a. disease of the bronchus that is characterized by areas of abnormal widening b. disease of the bronchus that often presents with frequent pneumonias in the same area c. disease of the bronchus with paroxysmal coughing and the expectoration of mucopurulent matter d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
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aspiration pneumonia is a problem in which of the following:
a. toddlers who eat peanuts b. patients who are semiconscious or have no cough reflex (overdoses, drunks) c. some post-stroke patients d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
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Four causes of pneumonia are bacterial, viral, tubercular, and fungal.
T or F |
T
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Which is NOT true about TB:
a. mycobacterium tuberculosis is a bacteria b. it is slow growing in culture c. early detection is done with a positive skin test (PPD/Mantoux) d. contagiousness is determined by a productive cough, positive acid-fast stain of sputum, positive chest x-ray e. patients with the disease do not need to be treated because it is self-limited f some countries immunize the population against TB with BCG |
e. patients with the disease do not need to be treated because it is self-limited
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a postive skin test does not necessarily mean teh patient has active (contagious) disease.
T or F |
T
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Which of the following is a fungal disease called "desert fever" or "valley fever" and is found in the southwest US in dusty areas like construction sites and archeological digs:
a. mycobacterium tuberculosis b. cocciciodomycosis c. cryptococcosis d. hemophilus influenza |
b. cocciciodomycosis
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cryptococcosis, aspergillosis, mucormycosis and pneumocystosis can cause serious infections in which of the following groups:
a. HIV positive b. severe diabetics c. transplant patients d. all of the above |
d
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All of the following is true for Cystic Fibrosis EXCEPT:
a. genetic b. only in the lung c. thick mucus secretions that plug airways and ducts d. limited life span due to infections |
b. only in the lung
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The diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is:
a. bierman test b. sweat test c. no test d. 24 hr squeeze test |
b. sweat test
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sarcoidosis is a disease that is caused by tiny sarcoids that invade the blood.
T or F |
F
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There are several findings in sarcoidosis that can be confused with tuberculosis such as hilar adenopathy (large central lymph nodes on chest xray), fever, malaise, dyspnea, multiple organ disease.
T or F |
T
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Pulmonary fibrosis or interstitial lung disease involves primarily or initially:
a. the bronchi b. the area around & between the alveoli c. the genes d. the liver |
b. the area around & between
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Cause of interstitial lung disease can be from:
a. inhaled inorganic materials or industrial particulates b. compost piles c. certain drugs d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
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Which of the following can occasionally cause lung disease as a side effect:
a. macrodantin (nitrofurantoin) b. methotrexate c. cyclophosphamide (cytoxan) d. bleomycin e. dilantin f. all of the above |
f. all of the above
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Which disease includes dyspnea and hypoxemia, clots in the pelvis or lower legs, sudden severe chest pain, diagnosed with a ct angiogram, more common in patients with cancer or polycythemia or smokers on hormones, people who are immobilized post-op:
a. pulmonary embolus b. pulmonary hypertension c. cor pulonale d. pulmonary edema |
a. pulmonary embolus
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which disease is the result of right ventricular hypertrophy and right heart failure due to lung disease or pulmonary vascular disease:
a. cor pulmonale b. bacterial gingivitis c. tinea cruris d. varicose veins |
a. cor pulmonale
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In tension pneumothorax the trachea is:
a. in the midline b. pointed toward the site of the injured lung c. pointed toward the normal lung d. not involved |
c. pointed toward the normal lung
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COPD consists of emphysema, chronic bronchitis or combinations of both.
T or F |
T
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FEV1 is a measurement of:
a. timed inhalation b. timed exhalation c. breath holding d. fever |
b. timed exhalation
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A healthy lung is:
a. elastic but not compliant b. elastic and compliant c. not elastic and not compliant d. not elastic but compliant |
b. elastic and compliant
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Different asthmatics can have different triggers, such as:
a. exercise b. pollens c. pets d. infection e. all of the above |
e. all of the above
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Inadequately treated asthma can cause respiratory arrest and death in some patients.
T or F |
T
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Zollinger-Ellison is caused by:
a. insulinoma b. glucagonoma c. astrocytoma d. gastrinoma |
d. gastrinoma
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Gastrinoma has the following characteristics EXCEPT:
a. secretes gastrin b. causes Whipple syndrome c. causes chronic peptic ulcers d. increases the secretion of hydrochloric acid |
b. causes Whipple syndrome
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The following is true about ileus except:
a. it is due to a "lazy" bowel and can act like a termporary "paralysis" of the gut b. commonly occurs post-op after general surgery to abdomen c. a true "bowel obstruction" lacks a real physical block d. the bowel motility is greatly reduced causing little or no bowel sounds |
c. a true "bowel obstruction" lacks a real physical block
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Volvulus is a form of bowel obstruction that involves a "telescoping" or entering of one part of the bowel into the other.
T or F |
F
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Intussusception is a form of bowel obstruction in which the bowel revolves or twists around itself.
T or F |
F
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The usual age for screening patients with colonoscopy who have no other risk factors is:
a. 50 b. 30 c. 90 d. 100 |
a. 50
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The following patients are at greater risk for colon cancer than the general population and may need earlier and more frequent screening EXCEPT:
a. history of familial polyposis b. Patients with ulcerative colitis c. Patients with a strong family history of colon cancer especially in the immediate family (parents, siblings) d. patients whose spouses have colon cancer |
d. patients whose spouses have colon cancer
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The following is true about diverticular disease EXCEPT:
a. less common in people who eat a low fiber diet such as the average American diet b. diverticula are tiny pockets extending outward from the wall of the large intestine c. diverticulitis is a blockage of a diverticulum causing pain and sometimes fever, white count elevation and an associated abscess d. diverticula are usually asymptomatic |
a. less common in people who eat a low fiber diet such as the average American diet
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The following is true about Crohn's disease EXCEPT:
a. fistulas b. surgery can cure it c. skipped lesions d. can occur anywhere in the gi tract |
b. surgery can cure it
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The following is true about ulcerative colitis EXCEPT:
a. since it is limited to the colon only, surgery can cure it b. 50% of patients only have involvement of the lower colon (sigmoid/rectum) c. bloody diarrhea with mucus and abdominal pain d. biopsy shows "cryptitis, cryptic abscesses" e. fistulas are common |
e. fistulas are common
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McBurney's Point is in the right upper quadrant and corresponds with gall bladder pain.
T or F |
F
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Hirschsprung's disease is all EXCEPT:
a. seen in infants b. presents with constipation c. due to the absence of nerve enervation of the lower colon d. an infectious disease |
d. an infectious disease
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The liver manufactures most of the body's cholesterol.
T or F |
T
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The small intestine includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. duodenum b. jejunum c. ileum d. appendix |
d. appendix
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chronic hiccups can be a manifestation of a serious underlying disease.
T or F |
T
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Which is due to lactose attracting water into the colon (no lactase):
a. osmotic diarrhea b. secretory diarrhea c. diarrhea due to malabsorption syndrome d. travelers diarrhea |
a. osmotic diarrhea
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Which is due to non-tropical sprue or celiac disease, an allergy to gluten:
a. osmotic diarrhea b. secretory diarrhea c. diarrhea due to malabsorption syndrome d. travelers diarrhea |
c. diarrhea due to malabsorption syndrome
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Which of the following is due to a reaction to toxins from cholera (for example):
a. osmotic diarrhea b. secretory diarrhea c. diarrhea due to malabsorption syndrome d. travelers diarrhea |
b. secretory diarrhea
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Which of the following is due to a mild intolerance to drinking water microbes in a foreign country
a. osmotic diarrhea b. secretory diarrhea c. diarrhea due to malabsorption syndrome d. travelers diarrhea |
d. travelers diarrhea
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The following is true about flatulence EXCEPT:
a. can be caused by aerophagia (gulping air) b. certain foods can cause it c. colon bacteria manufacture methane d. most people appreciate its delicate fragrance and crowd appeal |
d. most people appreciate its delicate fragrance and crowd appeal
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The following is true about the pancreas EXCEPT:
a. insulin is secreted by the alpha islet cells b. glucagon increases blood sugar c. the islets cells are part of endocrine pancreas d. exocrine glands of the pancreas make and secrete the digestive enzymes via ducts |
a. insulin is secreted by the alpha islet cells
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The parotid duct is called:
a. Stenson's b. Wharton's c. Sublingual d. Daffy |
a. Stenson's
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Dyspepsia means:
a. difficulty swallowing b. Pain or discomfort in the upper abdomen, a sensation of extreme fullness, bloating or burning pain c. burping d. hiccups |
b. Pain or discomfort in the upper abdomen, a sensation of extreme fullness, bloating or burning pain
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