• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/67

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

67 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Max Withdrawl of a 1 ton CL2 cylinder

8 Lbs

Total Coliform NPDES approved procedures

MF and MPN

Depth Range of synthetic media of a trickling filter

15-30 feet

Settling tank detention time

2-3 hours

Nitrification

NH3 to NO2 to NO3

Denitrification

NO3 to N2 (gas)

How deep are shallow lagoons

3-6 feet

What does SCADA stand for?

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

Primary detention time

1.5 to 2 hours

What does tertiary treatment remove?

Suspended solids, nitrogen, and phosphorus

Grit channel flow

1 fps

Most common activated sludge plant

A package plant

Avg community BOD and TSS

BOD = 200 mg/L


TSS = 240 mg/L

Velocity of sampler tubing of 2-5 fps produces what?

Calcium

5 stages of a construction zone

Advanced warning area, transition area, buffer space, work area and termination area

Best method for grit removal

Reduce the velocity of wastewater

What gases are produced when no DO is present in pre-treatment?

Methane and Hydrogen Sulfide

Comminutors are a combo of what?

Screen and grinder

Diffused air system normal range of air application rate

0.5 to 1.0 ft3 of air per gallon of wastewater

As temperature of water increases the settling rate of what does what?

Increases

What happens if you breathe in too much hydrogen sulfide

Bronchitis and pulmonary edema

Typical safety factor to determine the size of an equalization tank

10-20% of the calculated volume of the tank

F/M ratio optimal range

.2-.5

What does ORP stand for?

Oxidation-reduction potential

Major causes of abnormal operations

Hydraulics, water quality, equipment malfunctions, plant changes, process controls, environmental changes and design deficiencies

2 types of foams

Unstable and persistent

What causes unstable foam?

Nutrient deficiencies, recycled solids, or polymer overdosing

What causes persistent foam?

Process imbalance

Sludge blanket desired in the secondary clarifier

1 to 3 feet

3 types of filamentous bacteria that cause foaming in an aeration tank

Nocardia, M. Parvicella, and 1863

Protoza (single-celled and heterotrophs) 3 groups

Amoeba, flagellate, and Ciliate

What are rotifers a sign of?

Old activated sludge with a high MCRT

3 types of bacterial cells

Coccus, bacillius, and spirillum

4 phases of bacterial growth over time

Lag, log, stationary, and death

Which microorganisms don't have cells?

Viruses

What microorganisms are of importance to the activated sludge process

Bacteria, protozoans, rotifiers, viruses, fungi, and algae

What microorganisms do you see in large quantities of when the MCRT or SRT of the process is at the proper level?

Stalked ciliates

What kind of diffusers are more prone to fouling and require more frequent maintenance?

Porous diffusers

Which item is crucial in meeting secondary clarifier effluent requirements?

Solids loading rate

Typical SRT value for a conventional ASP designed for BOD only removal

1 to 5 days

When is the Kraus process used?

Nitrogen deficient wastewater and sludge has poor settling characteristics

2 major groups of variables that affect an ASP

Collection system variables and treatment plant variables

What will prevent the formation of sludge deposits that could become septic in channels and pipelines?

A velocity over 1.5 ft/sec

2 types of sludge collection tubes with a pumping system

A rake system and suction tubes with a pumping system

What does RBC stand for?

Rotating Biological Contactors

CT for RBC's tanks

1 to 4 hours

% of RBC that is typically submerged

40%

What action provides the media with another chance to feed on remaining pollutants and maintains a minimum amount of flow through the media?

Recirculation

What media can be used as a direct replacement for rock media?

Random media

Why is it essential that sludge be removed quickly from the secondary clarifier?

To avoid gasification and denitrification

What is looping of A RBC?

Unbalanced rotation of the RBC shaft

What indicates the front of an RBC reactor might be overloaded?

Excess biofilm thickness in the first stages of the reactor

Which treatment process is the most complex to operate?

IFAS

Why must both MBBR and IFAS processes be operated at a higher DO concentration than conventional activated sludge?

A greater driving force is needed to diffuse oxygen through the biofilm compared to a dispersed floc

OSHA's permissible exposure limit for chlorine gas

1 ppm

What is the point of evaporators in chlorine systems?

To vaporize liquid chlorine

Max temperature a chlorine cylinder should be stored

100 degrees F or 43 degrees C

How often should operators exercise all the valves on the evaporator?

Monthly

Why are contact basins unnecessary for declaration with sulfur dioxide?

Relatively short reaction time

What happens to heavy solids that settle to the bottom of a lagoon?

The are decomposed anaerobically by bacteria

Physical factors that contribute to varying treatment efficiencies in lagoons

Sunlight, surface area, and temperature

Warning that pH of the lagoon could change in a day or two if corrective action is not taken

Change in alkalinity

What do subscript numbers in chemical formulas indicate?

Number of atoms

What is specific conductance?

A numerical expression of the ability of a water or wastewater sample to conduct an electrical currant

What does the alkalinity of a water or wastewater sample measure?

It's capacity to neutralize acids

What is Total Kjeldahl Nitrogen?

Sum of organic nitrogen and ammonia nitrogen

What does the presence of E. Coli indicate?

Fecal contamination and the possible presence of disease causing organisms