Volume 4 General Comm/nav Systems Theory (Part Ii)

Front 1

601. Purpose and characteristics of very-high frequency omnirange ground stations
Why are VOR stations spaced 90 – 110 miles apart?

Back 1

To ensure an aircraft is always within range of VOR signals.

Front 2

601. Purpose and characteristics of very-high frequency omnirange ground stations
Where are TVOR stations located? Why?

Back 2

Near an airport for ATC.

Front 3

601. Purpose and characteristics of very-high frequency omnirange ground stations
What’s the basic operating principle of VOR?

Back 3

Phase comparison of the 30-Hz reference and 30-Hz variable signals to determine the bearing to the VOR
station.

Front 4

601. Purpose and characteristics of very-high frequency omnirange ground stations
How does the ground station prevent interference between the 30-Hz reference and 30-Hz
variable signals?

Back 4

The 30-Hz reference is transmitted on a 9,960-Hz FM subcarrier.

Front 5

601. Purpose and characteristics of very-high frequency omnirange ground stations
If an aircraft is south of a ground station, what’s the phase relation of the reference and variable
signals?

Back 5

180° out-of-phase.

Front 6

602. Purpose and characteristics of the instrument landing system

Back 6

(1) a, b.
(2) e.
(3) d.
(4) b.
(5) a.
(6) c.
(7) b.

Front 7

603. Microwave landing system
What components make up the MLS on the C–130H?

Back 7

Two receiver/processors and four antennas.

Front 8

603. Microwave landing system
How are the MLS navigation systems controlled?

Back 8

Through the SCNS IDCUs.

Front 9

603. Microwave landing system
What are the outputs of the MLS navigation system?

Back 9

Azimuth deviation, azimuth warning flag, GS deviation, and GS warning flag.

Front 10

603. Microwave landing system
On how many channels are the MLSs capable of operating?

Back 10

200.

Front 11

603. Microwave landing system
How many antennas are utilized by one MLS?

Back 11

Three.

Front 12

603. Microwave landing system
When selecting MLS 1 or MLS 2 on the FDMS, what information is provided to the indicators
and FDCs?

Back 12

Navigation deviation, GS information, and validity signal.

Front 13

604. Indicator characteristics
What information does the RMI display?

Back 13

Aircraft magnetic heading and relative bearing to the VOR ground station.

Front 14

604. Indicator characteristics
What’s the HSI indication when unreliable VOR signal is being received?

Back 14

The HSI NAV flag is in view and the bearing pointer parks at the 4 o’clock position on the ARN–127
system (3 o’clock on the ARN–147 system).

Front 15

604. Indicator characteristics
Where does the ARN–127 system park the HSI bearing pointer in the ILS mode?

Back 15

4 o’clock position.

Front 16

604. Indicator characteristics
In the ILS, how much course error is represented by the second deviation dot on the HSI?

Back 16

2.5°

Front 17

604. Indicator characteristics
How does the ADI indicate a 0.6° GS error?

Back 17

The GS displacement pointer is positioned next to the second deviation dot.

Front 18

604. Indicator characteristics
Which aircraft system drives the ADI pitch and bank steering bars?

Back 18

FDC

Front 19

605. Identifying very-high frequency omnirange indicator responses
What are VOR radials?

Back 19

Magnetic courses that extend from the VOR station providing 360 magnetic courses.

Front 20

605. Identifying very-high frequency omnirange indicator responses
What does the TO/FROM flag indicate?

Back 20

Shows whether the selected course will take the aircraft to or from the VOR station.

Front 21

606. Identifying instrument landing system indicator responses
What HSI and ADI component displays LOC information?

Back 21

The HSI course deviation bar and the ADI bank steering bar.

Front 22

606. Identifying instrument landing system indicator responses
If the ADI bank steering bar is right of center, in what direction must the aircraft turn to get back
on course?

Back 22

Right.

Front 23

606. Identifying instrument landing system indicator responses
If the GS displacement pointer on the ADI is aligned with the first deviation dot above center,
how many degrees is the aircraft off the angle of descent?

Back 23

0.3°.

Front 24

606. Identifying instrument landing system indicator responses
Which MB lamp illuminates when a 400-Hz tone (dashes) is heard in the headsets?

Back 24

Blue.

Front 25

607. Major components of the AN/ARN–147
Where is the VOR/LOC antenna located?

Back 25

In the upper half of the vertical stabilizer.

Front 26

607. Major components of the AN/ARN–147
The VOR control unit is capable of selecting 200 channels within what frequency range?

Back 26

108.00 – 117.95 MHz.

Front 27

607. Major components of the AN/ARN–147
What three receivers are contained within the VOR/ILS receiver?

Back 27

(1) VOR/LOC.
(2) GS.
(3) MB.

Front 28

607. Major components of the AN/ARN–147
In the VOR mode, what information is provided by the VOR portion of the VOR/LOC
receiver to the HSI, ADI, and FDC?

Back 28

Relative bearing, magnetic bearing, left/right deviation, flag alarm, and TO/FROM.

Front 29

607. Major components of the AN/ARN–147
What’s the frequency range of the GS receiver?

Back 29

329.15 – 335.00 MHz.

Front 30

607. Major components of the AN/ARN–147
What’s the MB carrier frequency?

Back 30

75 MHz.

Front 31

607. Major components of the AN/ARN–147
Which aircraft flight director system controls the co-pilot’s instruments?

Back 31

No. 2.

Front 32

607. Major components of the AN/ARN–147
What signals are sent from the FDC to the ADI?

Back 32

Bank steering, pitch steering, GS indicator, GS warning flag, and course warning flag.

Front 33

608. Characteristics of the tactical air navigation radiation pattern
In which direction is the antenna main RF lobe pointing when an MRB is transmitted?

Back 33

Due east.

Front 34

608. Characteristics of the tactical air navigation radiation pattern
How often does the surface beacon transmit BIT?

Back 34

Every 30 seconds.

Front 35

608. Characteristics of the tactical air navigation radiation pattern
What’s the fourth-priority pulsed signal transmitted by the surface beacon?

Back 35

DME.

Front 36

608. Characteristics of the tactical air navigation radiation pattern
Which signals determine the coarse bearing?

Back 36

15-Hz variable and MRB.

Front 37

608. Characteristics of the tactical air navigation radiation pattern
Which signals determine the fine bearing?

Back 37

135-Hz variable and ARB.

Front 38

608. Characteristics of the tactical air navigation radiation pattern
Where is the MRB positioned in the 15-Hz variable signal to indicate a bearing of 90°?

Back 38

Minimum amplitude of the 15-Hz variable signal.

Front 39

608. Characteristics of the tactical air navigation radiation pattern
What information does a SECA provide?

Back 39

Coarse bearing and distance information.

Front 40

608. Characteristics of the tactical air navigation radiation pattern
With A/A Y-channel selected, what’s the distance reply delay time from a CA?

Back 40

74 μsec.

Front 41

609. Interpreting tactical air navigation indicator responses
What TACAN information is displayed on the HSI?

Back 41

Bearing, course deviation, To/From, and warning flags.

Front 42

609. Interpreting tactical air navigation indicator responses
What’s the relative bearing if the magnetic heading is 40° and the magnetic bearing is 150°?

Back 42

Relative bearing is 110°.

Front 43

609. Interpreting tactical air navigation indicator responses
What’s the course error indicated by each HSI deviation dot?

Back 43

5°.

Front 44

609. Interpreting tactical air navigation indicator responses
How is the TO/FROM information calculated?

Back 44

By comparing the difference between the selected course and the bearing pointer.

Front 45

611. Description of the tactical air navigation system major components
What information is sent to the RT adapter by the RT?

Back 45

Distance, bearing, and warning flag.

Front 46

611. Description of the tactical air navigation system major components
What information is produced in the RT adapter?

Back 46

Relative bearing, TO/FROM, and course deviation.

Front 47

611. Description of the tactical air navigation system major components
How does the RT control box provide an indication of self-test initiation and system status?

Back 47

By using a TEST lamp.

Front 48

610. AN/ARN–118 characteristics and modes of operation
What is the total number of channels provided by the AN/ARN–118 TACAN?

Back 48

252 (126 X and 126 Y).

Front 49

610. AN/ARN–118 characteristics and modes of operation
What is the frequency ranges of the RT?

Back 49

Receiver is 962 – 1,213 MHz; transmitter is 1,025 – 1,150 MHz.

Front 50

610. AN/ARN–118 characteristics and modes of operation
What’s the maximum range of the TACAN in air-ground operation? In A/A operation?

Back 50

Air-ground is 390 NMs; A/A is 200 NMs.

Front 51

610. AN/ARN–118 characteristics and modes of operation
Name two factors that affect the operating range of the TACAN system.

Back 51

(1) Aircraft altitude.
(2) Type of terrain.

Front 52

610. AN/ARN–118 characteristics and modes of operation
What happens when 00X or 00Y is selected on the control box?

Back 52

The TACAN RT can be controlled by an external system (i.e., RNAV computer).

Front 53

610. AN/ARN–118 characteristics and modes of operation
What information is provided by the AN/ARN–118 in T/R mode?

Back 53

Bearing, slant range distance, range rate, TO/FROM, course deviation, and BIT.

Front 54

610. AN/ARN–118 characteristics and modes of operation
What information does a CA provide?

Back 54

Distance only.

Front 55

610. AN/ARN–118 characteristics and modes of operation
What’s the bearing indication during the first seven seconds of manual self-test?

Back 55

Bearing pointer slews to 270°.

Front 56

610. AN/ARN–118 characteristics and modes of operation
What’s the HSI indication during automatic self-test?

Back 56

Same as the first 7 seconds of manual self-test––bearing pointer slews to 270° and all flags in view.

Front 57

612. Basic operation of the tactical air navigation system
How is channel and mode information routed from the RT control box to the TACAN RT unit?

Back 57

As a 16-bit ternary word.

Front 58

612. Basic operation of the tactical air navigation system
What information is calculated by the TACAN RT distance circuits?

Back 58

The slant range distance to the ground station.

Front 59

612. Basic operation of the tactical air navigation system
How is distance information routed to the RT adapter?

Back 59

The output converter circuit converts the distance information to a 32-bit serial word and sends it to the RT
adapter.

Front 60

612. Basic operation of the tactical air navigation system
How is distance information routed to the RT adapter?

Back 60

Bearing and OBS.

Front 61

613. Purpose and characteristics of identification, friend or foe
Why is the ground radar synchronized with the IFF interrogator?

Back 61

So that the radar returns and IFF replies for any approaching aircraft are displayed together on the same
PPI.

Front 62

613. Purpose and characteristics of identification, friend or foe
Other than identification, what IFF information can help an air traffic controller pinpoint an
aircraft’s location?

Back 62

Altitude.

Front 63

613. Purpose and characteristics of identification, friend or foe
What’s the aircraft’s altitude if a display of 325 is presented on the scope?

Back 63

32,500 feet.

Front 64

613. Purpose and characteristics of identification, friend or foe
What does AIMS stand for?

Back 64

A - Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System; I - IFF; M - Mark XII; and S - System.

Front 65

614. Identification, friend or foe interrogation and reply signals
Match each mode of operation in column B to its corresponding interrogation signal in column A.
Each item in column B is used only once.
Column A
____ (1) A pair of 0.8-μsec pulses spaced 21 μsec apart.
____ (2) A pair of 0.8-μsec pulses spaced 5 μsec apart.
____ (3) Four 0.5-μsec pulses spaced 2 μsec apart.
____ (4) A pair of 0.8-μsec pulses spaced 3 μsec apart.
____ (5) A pair of 0.8-μsec pulses spaced 8 μsec apart.
Column B
a. Mode 1.
b. Mode 2.
c. Mode 3/A.
d. Mode C.
e. Mode 4.

Back 65

(1) d.
(2) b.
(3) e.
(4) a.
(5) c.

Front 66

614. Identification, friend or foe interrogation and reply signals
What’s the main purpose of the SLS?

Back 66

To prevent the aircraft from replying to a side lobe interrogation.

Front 67

614. Identification, friend or foe interrogation and reply signals
Define side lobes.

Back 67

RF energy, known as spillover, radiating from the antenna for approximately 5 miles.

Front 68

614. Identification, friend or foe interrogation and reply signals
What’s the time between P1 and P2 (SLS)?

Back 68

2 μsec.

Front 69

614. Identification, friend or foe interrogation and reply signals
Using figure 3–3 and 3–4, match each mode and code in column B to its corresponding reply
pulse designation in column A. Each item in column B is used only once.
Column A
____ (1) A1, A2, and B2.
____ (2) A2, B1, C2, C4, and D2.
____ (3) A1, B1, and C2.
____ (4) A1, A2, A4, B1, B2, and B4.
____ (5) B1 and B2.
____ (6) A1, A2, B1, C2, D1, and D4.
Column B
a. Mode 2, code 2162.
b. Mode C, code 1120.
c. Mode 1, code 32.
d. Mode 1, code 03.
e. Mode 3/A, code 7700.
f. Mode 2, code 3125.

Back 69

(1) c.
(2) a.
(3) b.
(4) e.
(5) d.
(6) f.

Front 70

614. Identification, friend or foe interrogation and reply signals
Why would the REPLY light on the IFF control box illuminate?

Back 70

To indicate a mode 4 reply is being transmitted.

Front 71

614. Identification, friend or foe interrogation and reply signals
What causes the IFF CAUTION light on the pilot’s instrument panel to illuminate?

Back 71

When the system fails to reply to a mode 4 interrogation, or if the mode 4 computer is zeroized or fails.

Front 72

615. Identification, friend or foe line replaceable units
Match each LRU in column B with its function in column A. Items in column B may be used
more than once.
Column A
____ (1) Used to select the mode of operation.
____ (2) Provides selection of antennas.
____ (3) Receives IFF interrogation pulses picked up from the antenna.
____ (4) Overcomes blind spots.
____ (5) Amplifies coded replies to trigger the transmitter.
____ (6) Monitors pulse spacing and power output.
____ (7) Referenced to 29.92 inches of mercury.
____ (8) Decodes interrogation signals.
____ (9) Illuminates the IFF warning light.
Column B
a. Antenna switching unit.
b. RT.
c. Control box.
d. Test set.
e. Mode 4 computer.
f. Altitude-encoder.
g. Antennas.

Back 72

(1) c.
(2) a.
(3) b.
(4) g.
(5) b.
(6) d.
(7) f.
(8) b.
(9) e.

Front 73

615. Identification, friend or foe line replaceable units
What are the receive and transmit frequencies of the RT?

Back 73

Receive is 1,030 MHz; transmit is 1,090 MHz.

Front 74

615. Identification, friend or foe line replaceable units
What two functions are performed by the TS–1873A test set?

Back 74

(1) Provide a GO/NO-GO test on the RT.
(2) Monitor the RT’s replies for each interrogation.

Front 75

615. Identification, friend or foe line replaceable units
What warns the pilot the mode 4 interrogations aren’t properly decoded?

Back 75

The IFF warning light on the pilot’s instrument panel illuminates.

Front 76

615. Identification, friend or foe line replaceable units
Why are aircraft normally configured with two antennas?

Back 76

Ensures the interrogation signal won’t be missed because of blind spots around the aircraft.

Front 77

616. Basic operation of the identification, friend or foe system
At what rate does the IFF antennas switch with the IFF ANTENNA switch in the BOTH
position?

Back 77

38 times per second.

Front 78

616. Basic operation of the identification, friend or foe system
What does the XTAL CUR indicator on the front of the RT indicate?

Back 78

Satisfactory operation of local oscillator crystal mixer circuits in the RF module.

Front 79

616. Basic operation of the identification, friend or foe system
What’s the purpose of the echo (side lobe) suppression circuit?

Back 79

To check to see if the aircraft is receiving a side lobe interrogation.

Front 80

616. Basic operation of the identification, friend or foe system
When does the REC VID indicator illuminate?

Back 80

When there is satisfactory operation of the video circuits.

Front 81

616. Basic operation of the identification, friend or foe system
When are the I/P circuits enabled? Explain.

Back 81

When the UHF radio is keyed; with the I/P control circuits enabled, the coding circuits generate two
complete reply trains required for I/P operation.

Front 82

616. Basic operation of the identification, friend or foe system
In what increments does the altitude encoder supply digitized altitude information to the
transponder set for determination of the mode C reply code?

Back 82

100-foot.

Front 83

616. Basic operation of the identification, friend or foe system
What’s the transponder transmit frequency?

Back 83

1,090 MHz.

Front 84

616. Basic operation of the identification, friend or foe system
When does the HVPS indicator illuminate?

Back 84

When there is satisfactory operation of the transmitter HVPS.

Front 85

616. Basic operation of the identification, friend or foe system
With the test set operating in the TEST mode, what information does the test set check?

Back 85

The resulting replies from the transponder set for proper bracket pulse spacing, frequency, power, reply
rate, and antenna VSWR.

Front 86

616. Basic operation of the identification, friend or foe system
When is a mode 4 coincidence signal generated?

Back 86

When the first, second, and third delayed pulses from the 5.8-, 4-, and 2-μsec taps of the delay line are
applied to the mode 4 recognition circuit at the same time as the nondelayed fourth pulse.

Front 87

616. Basic operation of the identification, friend or foe system
616. Basic operation of the identification, friend or foe system
Why does the mode 4 caution light illuminate?

Back 87

To indicate interrogations aren’t properly decoded by the mode 4 computer or replies to properly coded
interrogations aren’t transmitted.

Front 88

616. Basic operation of the identification, friend or foe system
How are the mode 4 code settings retained?

Back 88

Aircraft power must be maintained at least 15 seconds after selecting HOLD and the landing gear must be
down and locked.

Front 89

617. Purpose and characteristics
What is the advantage of an active onboard collision system?

Back 89

It provides for a worldwide solution because it works anywhere in the world, does not depend on local
ground radar infrastructure, and has an onboard system that queries local transponders, collects the replies,
and creates an image of the local traffic situation on the MFD.

Front 90

617. Purpose and characteristics
What is the purpose of an RA coordination data link between two aircraft?

Back 90

To avoid the generation of a similar vertical maneuvering RA in both aircraft.

Front 91

617. Purpose and characteristics
What are the three critical calculations that must be made by the TCAS?

Back 91

(1) Range.
(2) Bearing.
(3) Intruder altitude.

Front 92

617. Purpose and characteristics
The type of symbol generated by the TCAS processor is based on what?

Back 92

The intruder’s location (distance and altitude) and closing rate.

Front 93

617. Purpose and characteristics
A red square RA indicates what?

Back 93

A nearby threat is within approximately 35 seconds of CPA.

Front 94

617. Purpose and characteristics
Describe an altitude tag.

Back 94

It shows the relative altitude, compared to the intruder’s altitude, in hundreds of feet; indicates whether the
intruder is climbing, descending, or maintaining a set flying level.

Front 95

617. Purpose and characteristics
RAs are used by the pilot for what purpose?

Back 95

To recommend a maneuver to increase vertical separation relative to an intruding aircraft or a warning
against maneuvering.

Front 96

618. Principles
How many aircraft can the TCAS processor track simultaneously?

Back 96

30.

Front 97

618. Principles
How many aircraft can RAs be issued for simultaneously?

Back 97

Three.

Front 98

618. Principles
What missing information causes the TCAS not to issue RAs?

Back 98

Intruder’s altitude.

Front 99

618. Principles
What is the purpose of the mode-S address?

Back 99

To tell other aircraft the type and characteristics of its airplane and allows a TCAS-equipped airplane to
know what maneuvers it might need to make to avoid a collision.

Front 100

618. Principles
When is a preventive advisory used?

Back 100

When no change to the present flight path is necessary for safe separation of aircraft.

Front 101

618. Principles
When is a corrective advisory used?

Back 101

When a change to the present flight path is necessary for safe separation of aircraft.

Front 102

619. Principles of satellite communications
What is the advantage of satellites over ground-based relay stations?

Back 102

Satellites can relay transmissions over a large portion of the Earth’s surface with only a single repeater.

Front 103

619. Principles of satellite communications
Explain the movement of geosynchronous satellites.

Back 103

Geosynchronous satellites in circular equatorial orbits move with the same angular velocity as the Earth, so
they appear stationary in space with respect to a point on Earth.

Front 104

619. Principles of satellite communications
What data is the manpack-type radio capable of handling?

Back 104

Single-voice or low-speed data.

Front 105

619. Principles of satellite communications
In what frequency range do the AFSATCOM terminals normally operate?

Back 105

UHF or SHF range.

Front 106

619. Principles of satellite communications
What two characteristics of an AFSATCOM receiver are important in picking up a weak transmit
signal?

Back 106

(1) Antenna gain.
(2) Receiver’s sensitivity.

Front 107

620. Description of the Air Force satellite communication system
Match the statement in column A with the pertinent satellite in column B.
Column A
____ (1) Provides polar coverage.
____ (2) Paired with the FLTSATCOM satellites
for additional UHF coverage.
____ (3) Provide overlapping Earth coverage in all
areas, except the polar region.
____ (4) Was a part of an R&D program.
Column B
a. LES 8 and 9.
b. FLTSATCOM.
c. LEASATCOM.
d. SDS.

Back 107

(1) d.
(2) c.
(3) b.
(4) a.

Front 108

620. Description of the Air Force satellite communication system
In what frequency ranges does a DSCS III satellite operate?

Back 108

UHF and SHF.

Front 109

620. Description of the Air Force satellite communication system
The number of simultaneous users in the wideband mode depends on what factors?

Back 109

Data rate, modulation, bandwidth, power, and other factors.

Front 110

620. Description of the Air Force satellite communication system
What is the digital teletype capability of a SIOP terminal?

Back 110

75 bps.

Front 111

620. Description of the Air Force satellite communication system
What is the frequency range and output power of a type 1 terminal?

Back 111

225.000 – 399.975 MHz; 100 watts.

Front 112

621. Operation of the AN/ASC–19(V)3
What are the components that make up the RF group?

Back 112

Subsonic satellite antenna, UHF antenna, UHF preamplifier, band pass filter, preamp bypass relay, transfer
relay, dummy load, and low-pass filter.

Front 113

621. Operation of the AN/ASC–19(V)3
In LOS mode, what is the RT–1264 RT frequency range and output power?

Back 113

225.0 – 399.975 MHz; 30 watts.

Front 114

621. Operation of the AN/ASC–19(V)3
What system unit contains all controls for UHF LOS and for switching system control for satellite
operation controls?

Back 114

C–9665(V)1/A radio set control.

Front 115

621. Operation of the AN/ASC–19(V)3
If no fault conditions are detected, how long does the C–10357 SATCOM control panel perform
its automatic BIT test?

Back 115

Until the numbers 66666 are displayed on the control-indicator display.

Front 116

621. Operation of the AN/ASC–19(V)3
What is the purpose of the MD–1035-telegraph modem?

Back 116

To provide half-duplex communication for transmitting and receiving digital data.

Front 117

621. Operation of the AN/ASC–19(V)3
What is the print rate of the TT–712/A high-speed printer?

Back 117

100 words per minute with 20 characters per line.

Front 118

621. Operation of the AN/ASC–19(V)3
What ASC–19 system LRUs are controlled by the C–10091 control power supply?

Back 118

C–10080/A keyboard and TT–712/A printer.

Front 119

621. Operation of the AN/ASC–19(V)3
When is the LOS mode used?

Back 119

For normal UHF or guard communication.

Front 120

621. Operation of the AN/ASC–19(V)3
What’s the purpose for the I/O?

Back 120

To provide the means for the operator to send and receive information.

Front 121

621. Operation of the AN/ASC–19(V)3
To operate the satellite system, what operating parameters are entered to the terminal?

Back 121

Frequency and mode information on the dual-capability modem control.

Front 122

621. Operation of the AN/ASC–19(V)3
During receive, what FSK IF frequency is produced by the RT and sent to the dual-capability
modem?

Back 122

A 70-MHz FSK IF signal.

Front 123

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
What two types of secure voice communications can be selected by the pilot?

Back 123

(1) Encrypted.
(2) Decrypted.

Front 124

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
List the four LRUs that make up the secure voice system.

Back 124

(1) KY–58 RCU secure voice panel.
(2) KY–58 secure voice processor.
(3) Z-AHQ adapter.
(4) KYK–13 fill device.

Front 125

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
What is the primary function of the KY–58 processor?

Back 125

To provide the operator the capability to transmit and receive secure voice messages.

Front 126

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
What is the purpose of the Z-AHQ adapter?

Back 126

To allow the KY–58/TSEC to be integrated into existing KY–28 aircraft installations.

Front 127

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
What is the purpose of the KYK–13 fill device?

Back 127

To transfer crypto variables into the KYK–58 processor.

Front 128

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
Why does the KY–58 processor require a battery?

Back 128

To provide power to maintain the secure voice code.

Front 129

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
List the five modes of operation.

Back 129

(1) P (plain).
(2) C (cipher).
(3) CO.
(4) LD (load).
(5) RV (receive variable).

Front 130

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
Which switch position on the processor FILL switch zeroizes variables 1 – 5 only?

Back 130

Z 1–5.

Front 131

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
What two types of secure voice communications can be selected by the pilot?

Back 131

(1) Encrypted.
(2) Decrypted.

Front 132

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
What effect does placing the secure voice power switch in the TD position have on the
transmitted signal?

Back 132

Delays secure voice transmission for 800 ms.

Front 133

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
List the four LRUs that make up the secure voice system.

Back 133

(1) KY–58 RCU secure voice panel.
(2) KY–58 secure voice processor.
(3) Z-AHQ adapter.
(4) KYK–13 fill device.

Front 134

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
What is the primary function of the KY–58 processor?

Back 134

To provide the operator the capability to transmit and receive secure voice messages.

Front 135

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
What is the function of the REM/LOC switch on the Z-AHQ adapter?

Back 135

To put the KY–58 processor in the remote or local operation.

Front 136

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
What is the purpose of the Z-AHQ adapter?

Back 136

To allow the KY–58/TSEC to be integrated into existing KY–28 aircraft installations.

Front 137

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
What is the purpose of the KYK–13 fill device?

Back 137

To transfer crypto variables into the KYK–58 processor.

Front 138

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
Why does the KY–58 processor require a battery?

Back 138

To provide power to maintain the secure voice code.

Front 139

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
List the five modes of operation.

Back 139

(1) P (plain).
(2) C (cipher).
(3) CO.
(4) LD (load).
(5) RV (receive variable).

Front 140

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
Which switch position on the processor FILL switch zeroizes variables 1 – 5 only?

Back 140

Z 1–5.

Front 141

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
What effect does placing the secure voice power switch in the TD position have on the
transmitted signal?

Back 141

Delays secure voice transmission for 800 ms.

Front 142

622. Wideband secure voice/KY–58
What is the function of the REM/LOC switch on the Z-AHQ adapter?

Back 142

To put the KY–58 processor in the remote or local operation.

Front 143

623. Narrowband secure voice/KY–100
What components make up a KY–100 narrowband system?

Back 143

TSEC/KY–100 MTU, Z-AVH remote control, COMSEC mode control panel, and KY/RAD switch unit.

Front 144

623. Narrowband secure voice/KY–100
What is the purpose of the equipment contained within the MTU?

Back 144

To encode and decode the transmitted and received audio signals.

Front 145

623. Narrowband secure voice/KY–100
What does the Z-AVH remote control allow for?

Back 145

Operating modes to be selected and zeroizing of all codes presently loaded in the KY–100 MTU (except
EB mode).

Front 146

623. Narrowband secure voice/KY–100
Which component provides switching of plain text, guard, COMSEC, and mic audio (PTT)
between the AN/AIC18 interphone system, the command or V/UHF radio sets, and the KY–100
secure voice system?

Back 146

KY/RAD unit.

Front 147

623. Narrowband secure voice/KY–100
How is the secure voice system addressed?

Back 147

AN/AIC 18 interphone system.

Front 148

624. KOI–18 and KYK–13 loading devices
What type of output is tape converted to by the KOI–18?

Back 148

Serial.

Front 149

624. KOI–18 and KYK–13 loading devices
How many cryptographic keys can be stored in a KYK–13?

Back 149

Six.

Front 150

624. KOI–18 and KYK–13 loading devices
In the KYK–13, what indicates a key is stored in one of the six positions?

Back 150

The red indicator flashes once when the initiate button is pushed while the MODE SELECT switch is in the
OFF CHECK position.

Front 151

624. KOI–18 and KYK–13 loading devices
What is the function of the Z position on the mode select switch?

Back 151

To zeroize the key in the selected address.

Front 152

625. CYZ–10 data transfer device
How many lines are displayed on the CYZ–10 LCD display?

Back 152

Two.

Front 153

625. CYZ–10 data transfer device
What is the function of the CIK?

Back 153

To encrypt information stored in the DTD.

Front 154

625. CYZ–10 data transfer device
How many microprocessors are contained in the DTD host/application section?

Back 154

One.

Front 155

625. CYZ–10 data transfer device
What keys on the keypad route directly to the COMSEC section of the DTD?

Back 155

ZERO and ON/OFF.

Front 156

625. CYZ–10 data transfer device
What happens to classified operations when the CIK is removed?

Back 156

Classified operations are inhibited.

Front 157

625. CYZ–10 data transfer device
How long are batteries expected to last during normal operational periods?

Back 157

30 days.

Front 158

625. CYZ–10 data transfer device
What is the default shutoff time?

Back 158

2 minutes.

Front 159

625. CYZ–10 data transfer device
How do you enter the zeroize function of the CYZ–10?

Back 159

By pressing the ZERO key three times.

Front 160

625. CYZ–10 data transfer device
When does a cold boot start-up occur?

Back 160

The first time the DTD is powered up after a zeroize, and every time the DTD is restarted after a battery
change that took longer than two minutes.

Front 161

625. CYZ–10 data transfer device
How long does warm boot BIT take to complete?

Back 161

Between 30 and 60 seconds.

Front 162

626. Emergency communications equipment
What is the purpose of emergency communications equipment?

Back 162

To transfer intelligence during an emergency condition or situation.

Front 163

626. Emergency communications equipment
What are the emergency frequencies for the HF, VHF, and UHF radio bands?

Back 163

HF is 8.364 MHz; VHF FM is 40.5 MHz; VHF AM is 121.5 MHz; and UHF is 243.0 MHz.

Front 164

626. Emergency communications equipment
Why don’t you transmit on a guard frequency for more than a few seconds?

Back 164

Because these channels need to be kept clear for real emergencies, and automatic satellite systems report
your transmission as a distress call.

Front 165

626. Emergency communications equipment
What are two types of personal emergency radios?

Back 165

(1) Survival.
(2) Parachute.

Front 166

626. Emergency communications equipment
What emergency frequency radio spectrum does the parachute radio transmit on?

Back 166

UHF.

Front 167

626. Emergency communications equipment
What are the two fixed emergency frequencies the PRC–90 transmits on?

Back 167

(1) 243.0 MHz.
(2) 282.8 MHz.

Front 168

626. Emergency communications equipment
In what three modes can the PRC–90 personal-emergency radio operate?

Back 168

(1) Two-way voice communications.
(2) Warbling (variable audio modulation).
(3) Morse code.

Front 169

626. Emergency communications equipment
What are the three types of crash location transmitter systems?

Back 169

(1) CPI.
(2) ELT.
(3) UAB.

Front 170

626. Emergency communications equipment
What emergency communications system transmits pulses of HF sound?

Back 170

UAB.

Front 171

627. Emergency locator transmitter system
What causes the ELT to activate?

Back 171

An impact along the longitudinal axis of the aircraft above a predetermined amplitude and time period.

Front 172

627. Emergency locator transmitter system
How long does the ELT continuously transmit?

Back 172

Until the self-contained battery pack is exhausted, or reset is selected on the control switch or ELT
operation switch.

Front 173

627. Emergency locator transmitter system
What are the ELT emergency transmit frequencies?

Back 173

VHF-AM 121.5 MHz and UHF 243.0 MHz.

Front 174

627. Emergency locator transmitter system
How many g’s can the transmitter and antenna survive?

Back 174

100.

Front 175

627. Emergency locator transmitter system
What component is bypassed when you have the control unit control switch set to TEST mode?

Back 175

The impact sensor.

Front 176

627. Emergency locator transmitter system
For what is the g-force reset switch used?

Back 176

To reset the g-force (impact) sensor circuits to their predetermined level after installation of the ELT or
when jolts activate the sensor.

Front 177

627. Emergency locator transmitter system
How can you stop ELT transmissions?

Back 177

By placing the control switch or the ELT operation switch in the RESET position.

Front 178

628. Interphone operations
List the two basic functions of the interphone system.

Back 178

(1) It provides a means of amplifying the audio signals from various aircraft systems and keys.
(2) It provides a means of modulating the radio transmitters.

Front 179

628. Interphone operations
Describe the relationship between audio return lines and battery ground.

Back 179

They are connected to aircraft ground at a single, common point.

Front 180

628. Interphone operations
What is the reason for having audio common connected to ground at a single point?

Back 180

To minimize the stray electromagnetic radiation picked up by the system.

Front 181

629. Components and functions of the AN/AIC–25 interphone system
What’s the purpose of the individual volume controls on the monitor switches of the C–6567
interphone panel?

Back 181

To compensate for weak audio of a particular system.

Front 182

629. Components and functions of the AN/AIC–25 interphone system
What’s the function of the rotary select switch on the C–6567?

Back 182

To allow the operator to select, monitor, key, and modulate any one of six radios, or to listen and talk on the
interphone.

Front 183

629. Components and functions of the AN/AIC–25 interphone system
When is the CALL function used?

Back 183

For emergency or high-priority communications between crewmembers.

Front 184

629. Components and functions of the AN/AIC–25 interphone system
During CALL operation, what is the purpose of the +17 to +29 volts DC?

Back 184

To activate the AGC circuits in all aircraft control panels causing the audio signal to be heard.

Front 185

629. Components and functions of the AN/AIC–25 interphone system
How does the CALL operation affect the interphone audio level?

Back 185

CALL audio is at least 6 dB louder than any other signals.

Front 186

629. Components and functions of the AN/AIC–25 interphone system
What is the purpose of the hot-mic function?

Back 186

To give a crewmember the ability to talk to other aircraft interphone positions without needing to press the
mic button.

Front 187

629. Components and functions of the AN/AIC–25 interphone system
What interphone function allows you to listen to a TACAN identification tone?

Back 187

Monitor.

Front 188

629. Components and functions of the AN/AIC–25 interphone system
What is the function of the radio transmitter selection switch?

Back 188

To enable a crewmember to control the keying and modulation of a selected transmitter or interphone.

Front 189

629. Components and functions of the AN/AIC–25 interphone system
What is the advantage of two-button operation over one-button operation?

Back 189

An operator may talk on the interphone line or on the selected radio transmitter without the need for
operating the rotary selector switch on the interphone control panel.

Front 190

629. Components and functions of the AN/AIC–25 interphone system
What are the interphone functions available when using the C–6624 bulkhead control panel?

Back 190

To listen to hot-mic, CALL, and interphone; also allows talk on call and interphone.

Front 191

630. Interphone accessory items
To which pins of the H–78/AIC headset plug do the HEADSET LOW and HEADSET HIGH
lines connect?

Back 191

HEADSET LOW to pin 4 and HEADSET HIGH to pin 2.

Front 192

630. Interphone accessory items
To what pins on the U–92A/U would you connect the MIKE HIGH and MIKE LOW wires?

Back 192

MIKE HIGH to pin 3 and MIKE LOW to pin 1.

Front 193

630. Interphone accessory items
What’s the main difference between a U–92A/U and a U–94A/U?

Back 193

The U–94A/U has a PTT button.

Front 194

630. Interphone accessory items
What’s the difference between a WF–14/U cable and WM–85/U cable?

Back 194

The WM–85/U has a yellow fifth wire.

Front 195

631. Moving the tape
Describe the make-up of the videotape.

Back 195

Like a conveyor belt covered with billions of molecule-sized bar magnets, each with a north and south
magnetic pole.

Front 196

631. Moving the tape
What happens to the tape when a recording is made?

Back 196

The particles magnetize and essentially become miniature permanent magnets with a polarity dependent on
the direction and magnitude of the flux field being applied by the record head.

Front 197

631. Moving the tape
What is the electrical difference between the record and playback function?

Back 197

The record process is a current function; the playback process is a voltage function.

Front 198

631. Moving the tape
What effects do timing errors have on the video image?

Back 198

Picture distortion, flutter, and loss of synchronization.

Front 199

631. Moving the tape
What is a closed-loop servo system?

Back 199

A circuit that achieves automatic control via feedback from the output of the system.

Front 200

631. Moving the tape
What component moves the tape through the system?

Back 200

The capstan.

Front 201

631. Moving the tape
Which motor is used to move the tape in fast-forward or rewind?

Back 201

Reel.

Front 202

631. Moving the tape
What are the functions of the drum assembly motor servo?

Back 202

To keep the motor speed constant and control the record/playback heads in relation to the tape.

Front 203

631. Moving the tape
How are the three PG signals generated?

Back 203

An iron pole piece, located in the upper drum subassembly, passes over each of the three PG coils in the
lower drum subassembly, altering the coil’s magnetic flux lines and generating a pulse signal for each PG
coil.

Front 204

631. Moving the tape
What is the PG signal frequency, and what is the rpm speed of the upper drum subassembly?

Back 204

30 Hz; 1,800.

Front 205

631. Moving the tape
What controls the upper drum rotation?

Back 205

The time relationship between PG–1 and PG–2.

Front 206

631. Moving the tape
What signal is recorded on to the tape and used during playback for drum phasing?

Back 206

The 30-Hz signal from each of the three PG coils.

Front 207

631. Moving the tape
What triggers drum muting?

Back 207

The absence of the PG–2 pulse.

Front 208

631. Moving the tape
The speed of which motor is adjusted by the tracking adjuster?

Back 208

Capstan.

Front 209

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What are two main advantages of the AVTR system over film-based systems?

Back 209

(1) Cost.
(2) Immediate mission feedback.

Front 210

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What two controls are on the AVTR unit?

Back 210

(1) EJECT.
(2) UNTHREAD.

Front 211

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What function does the AGC circuit perform?

Back 211

Adjusts the input video signal to 1.5 volts peak-to-peak.

Front 212

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What does the FM circuitry do to the AGC video signal?

Back 212

Converts it into an FM signal.

Front 213

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What are the two audio channels used for in aircraft applications?

Back 213

(1) Cockpit voices.
(2) EMK.

Front 214

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What is a disadvantage of using a cassette head-cleaning device?

Back 214

It doesn’t clean the tape guides thoroughly enough.

Front 215

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What are two things that should never be done when cleaning the heads?

Back 215

(1) Use cotton swabs.
(2) Use an up or down motion.

Front 216

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What is the function of a demagnetizer?

Back 216

To remove the buildup of static electrical charge and magnetic polarization.

Front 217

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What are two things that should never be done to demagnetize a VTR?

Back 217

(1) Use an audio demagnetizer on VTR components.
(2) Touch any metallic part of the VTR with an operating demagnetizing tool.

Front 218

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What are two main advantages of the AVTR system over film-based systems?

Back 218

(1) Cost.
(2) Immediate mission feedback.

Front 219

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What two controls are on the AVTR unit?

Back 219

(1) EJECT.
(2) UNTHREAD.

Front 220

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What function does the AGC circuit perform?

Back 220

Adjusts the input video signal to 1.5 volts peak-to-peak.

Front 221

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What does the FM circuitry do to the AGC video signal?

Back 221

Converts it into an FM signal.

Front 222

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What are the two audio channels used for in aircraft applications?

Back 222

(1) Cockpit voices.
(2) EMK.

Front 223

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What is a disadvantage of using a cassette head-cleaning device?

Back 223

It doesn’t clean the tape guides thoroughly enough.

Front 224

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What are two things that should never be done when cleaning the heads?

Back 224

(1) Use cotton swabs.
(2) Use an up or down motion.

Front 225

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What is the function of a demagnetizer?

Back 225

To remove the buildup of static electrical charge and magnetic polarization.

Front 226

632. Airborne video tape recorder description and operation
What are two things that should never be done to demagnetize a VTR?

Back 226

(1) Use an audio demagnetizer on VTR components.
(2) Touch any metallic part of the VTR with an operating demagnetizing tool.