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80 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense(ID)? A. ID threat risk B. ID principles of risk C. ID risk management D. ID principles of critical |
C. ID risk management |
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2. The first step in risk analysis is asset A. Risk assessment B. Threat assessment C. Criticality assessment D. Vulnerability assessment |
C. Criticality assessment |
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3. Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency? A. Staff judge advocate B. Installation commander C. Defense force commander D. Air Force Office of Investigation |
A. Staff Judge advocate |
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4. Through which agency will the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents? A. Site security control B. Security forces C. Higher headquarters D. Installation command post |
D. Installation command post |
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5. The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapon... A. Accident B. Incident C. Mistake D. Mishap |
A. Accident |
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6. What does the color code yellow indicate when calling in a LACE report? A. Less than 33% available B. Less than 66% available C. Greater than 33% available D. Greater than 66% available |
C. Greater than 33% available |
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7. Personnel assigned to the priority II priority category should be evacuated within how many hours? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 |
B. 4 |
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8. Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours? A. 6 B. 12 C. 18 D. 24 |
D. 24 |
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9. Who much approve each installation localized integrated defense plan (IDP)? A. Staff judge advocate B. Installation commander C. Defense force commander D. Air force office of Investigation |
B. Installation commander |
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10. Who determines what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages? A. Flight chief B. Operations officer C. Flight commander D. Defense force commander |
D. Defense force commander |
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11. How many days are the majority of SF unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support? A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 |
A. 5 |
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12. Which type of attack may involve an insider threat? A. Standoff B. Penetration C. Chemical, Biological D. Information operation |
B. Penetration |
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13. Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US? A. Department of State B. Department of Justice C. Department of Defense D. Federal Bureau of Investigation |
A. Department of State |
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14. Which agency is the lead for domestic terrorism within the US? A. Department of State B. Department of Justice C. Department of Defense D. FBI |
B. Department of Justice |
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15. What type of supporters do not actually commit violent act but assist the terrorists by providing money, intelligence, legal, or medical services? A. Passive supporter B. Active supporter C. Hardcore leadership D. Active operational cadre |
B. Active supporter |
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16. What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation? A. Significant B. Moderate C. High D. Low |
C. High |
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17. What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology? A. Activity B. Intentions C. Operational capability D. Operational environment |
C. Operational Capability |
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18. What terrorist threat level is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities? A. Threat level I B. Threat level II C. Threat level III D. Threat level IV |
A. Threat level I |
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19. What threat level consists of guerrilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units? A. Threat level I B. Threat level II C. Threat level III D. Threat level IV |
B. Threat level II |
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20. What desired effect is achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed circuit television? A. Anticipate B. Deter C. Detect D. Warn |
C. Detect |
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21. What desired effect is achieved through threat and effects based planning that integrate all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring friendly forces are trained and Qualified on arming and use of force? A. Warn B. Defeat C. Delay D. Defend |
D. Defend |
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22. How many random antiterrorism measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily? A. At least one B. At least two C. At least three D. At least four |
C. At least three |
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23. How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies? A. Less than one century B. Less than two centuries C. Within the last 50 years D. More than two centuries |
D. More than two centuries |
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24. What must units develop about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain? A. Insurgency picture B. Counterinsurgency picture C. Common operating picture D. Operational environment picture |
C. Common operating picture |
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25. What will insurgents resort to it they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them? A. Bribery B. Coercion C. Persuasion D. Encouragement |
B. Coercion |
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26. Joint doctrine defines a nongovernmental organization (NGO) as a A. Government supported, self-governing, not-for-profit organization B. Government supported, self-governing, for profit organization C. Private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization D. Private, self-governing, for profit organization |
C. Private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization |
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27. What type of agency is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments? A. Multinational corporation B. Governmental organization C. Host nations security council D. Intergovernmental organization |
D. Intergovernmental organization |
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28. Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world? A. United Nations B. World health organization C. North Atlantic treaty organization D. International refugee organization |
A. United Nations |
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29. To avoid adverse effects on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US A. Senators B. Governors C. Ambassador D. Congressman |
C. Ambassador |
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30. Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key A. Terrain issues B. Logistical issues C. Sovereignty issues D. Transportation issues |
C. Sovereignty issues |
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31. If countries do not use the English alphabet, a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names should be set by the A. Defense force commander B. Non-DoD agencies C. Local commander D. DOD agencies |
B. Non-DoD agencies |
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32. Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions? A. Sniper B. Rifleman C. Grenadier D. Crew-served weapons operator |
D. Crew-served weapons operator |
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33. What illusion does the ground sloping upward method of range determination give to the observer? A. Greater distance B. Shorter distance C. Equal distance D. Real distance |
A. Greater distance |
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34. Based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility, leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to... A. 500 meters B. 400 meters C. 300 meters D. 200 meters |
B. 400 meters |
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35. Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures? A. Flight B. Squadron C. Command post D. BDOC |
D. BDOC |
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36. What type of fire control measures do Security Forces (SF) flight leaders or subordinate leaders use as a means to control their defenders? A. Direct B. Indirect C. Sustained D. Suppressive |
A. Direct |
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37. What is the most common means of giving fire commands? A. Sound B. Visual signals C. Airman-initiated D. Radio communications |
B. Visual signals |
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38. What is your first course of action when caught in an assault? A. Throw hand grenades B. Look for the enemy and return fire C. Immediately return fire and assault the enemy D. Immediately return fire and take a covered position |
D. Immediately return fire and take a covered position |
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39. Machine gunners fire at groups of five or more targets when in the A. Secondary sector from farthest to closest B. Secondary sector from closest to farthest C. Primary sector from closest to farthest D. Primary sector from farthest to closest |
D. Primary sector from farthest to closest |
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40. Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid? A. Sound B. Movement C. Regularity of outline D. Contrast with the background |
D. Contrast with the background |
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41. When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is A. Spacing B. Aiming point C. Reference point D. Range determination |
B. Aiming point |
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42. The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of A. Air B. Light C. Terrain D. Atmospheric pressure |
B. Light |
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43. On the AN/PVS-14 monocular night vision device (MNVD), what component enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular? A. Compass B. Tethering Cord C. De-mist shield D. Sacrificial window |
A. Compass |
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44. How should pre-combat inspections be tailored? A. Location B. Weather conditions C. Number of personnel assigned D. Specific unit and mission requirements |
D. Specific unit and mission requirements |
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45. When should SF perform checks of their individual issued items? A. Daily B. Weekly C. Bi-Monthly D. Monthly |
A. Daily |
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46. In tactical deployment situations, what movement techniques do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the rushing technique? A. Roll B. High Crawl C. Low Crawl D. Spider crawl |
B. High Crawl |
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47. Selection of team movement techniques is based on...? A. The ability of the team leader to control the team B. Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed C. Patrol objectives D. The enemy threat |
B. Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed |
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48. Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team? A. File B. Wedge C. Bounding D. Traveling |
B. Wedge |
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49. When is the bounding overwatch movement technique used? A. When speed is essential B. When enemy contact is expected C. When enemy contact is not likely D. During dense vegetation or limited visibility |
B. When enemy contact is expected |
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50. During bounding overwatch the bounding team should not move more than how many meters forward of the overarching team? A. 50 B. 100 C. 150 D. 200 |
C. 150 |
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51. Which movement technique do you use when speed is important and contact with an adversary is not likely? A. Traveling B. Wedge formation C. Traveling overwatch D. Bounding overwatch |
A. Traveling |
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52. What are the two types of ambushes? A. Distant and near B. Point and area C. Area and far D. Near and far |
B. Point and area |
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53. What are the most common types of reconnaissance patrols? A. Area, route, and zone B. Route, point, intel, and traveling C. Intel, contact, area, and zone D. Bounding, traveling, intel, and contact |
A. Area, route, and zone |
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54. What type of reconnaissance patrols involves a directed effort to obtain detailed information on all routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces within a defined sector? A. Route B. Point C. Zone D. Area |
C. Zone |
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55. To perform transition to a handgun drill with a 3-point tactical sling, you must first place the rifle on A. Safe B. Fire C. Semi D. Burst |
A. Safe |
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56. How do you perform the hand and arm signal for attention? A. Tao the back of the helmet repeatedly with an open hand B. Point at the palm of the hand with the index finger of the other hand C. Extend the arm sideways, slightly above the horizontal; palm to the front; wave the arm to and from the head several times D. Raise the hand in front of the forehead, palm to the front, and swing the hand and forearm up and down several times in front of the face |
C. Extend the arm sideways; slightly above the horizontal; palm to the front; wave the arm to and from the head several times |
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57. How do you perform the hand and arm signal for line formation? A. Extend the arms parallel to the ground B. Two or three movements upward with the open hand, palm uppermost C. Extend the arms overhead, palms inward, the slowly lower arms to a horizontal position D. Raise both arms sideward to the horizontal ; bend arms at the elbows and place both hands across the face, palms to the front |
A. Extend the arms parallel to the ground |
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58. When processing captives, detainees, and prisoners (DCP) at collection points, which is NOT one of the principles of STRESS? A. Search B. Tag C. Release D. Safeguard |
C. Release |
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59. What convoy movement formation can only be used on multilane roads. A. File B. Offset C. Staggered D. Inverted (T) |
C. Staggered |
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60. What convoy movement formation can be used to block third party traffic and assist in changing lanes? A. File B. Offset C. Staggered D. Inverted(T) |
B. Offset |
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61. Where will drivers position themselves during a short halt? A. Front of vehicle B. Remain in vehicle C. Left side of vehicle D. Right side of vehicle |
B. Remain in vehicle |
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62. Who signals for rollout after a long haul and movement commences? A. Driver B. Vehicle commander C. Convoy commander D. Crew-served weapon gunner |
C. Convoy commander |
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63. You can find the sheet name of a map in the A. Center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin B. Corner of the top margin and on the lower left area margin C. Corner of the upper left margin and on the right lower margin D. Center of the center margin and on the right side lower margin |
A. Center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin |
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64. What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers? A. Hill B. Saddle C. Valley D. Depression |
C. Valley |
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65. What terrain feature is a low point in the ground or a sinkhole? A. Hill B. Saddle C. Valley D. Depression |
D. Depression |
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66. What terrain feature is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out front the side of a ridge? A. Cut B. Spur C. Cliff D. Draw |
B. Spur |
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67. Contour lines are the most common method of showing A. Location of a ridge B. Location anywhere on a map C. Elevation in relation to the water D. Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map |
D. Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map |
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68. What does an index contour line show when going from a lower to upper contour line? A. Fading in elevation B. Increase in elevation C. Decrease in elevation D. No change in elevation |
B. Increase in elevation |
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69. To plot a grid coordinate on a topographical map, you read it from A. Right to left; bottom to top B. Right to left; top to bottom C. Left to right; top to bottom D. Left to right; bottom to top |
D. Left to right; bottom to top |
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70. How close will a six-digit refined grid coordinate get you to the point you want to identify? A. 10 meters B. 100 meters C. 1000 meters D. 10000 meters |
B. 100 meters |
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71. An azimuth is defined as a A. Vertical line measured up or down B. Diagonal angle measured clockwise for the centerline C. Horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line D. Horizontal angle measured counter clockwise from south base line |
C. Horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line |
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72. What is the center of the protractor circle from where all directions are measured called? A. Mils B. Square C. Degrees D. Index mark |
D. Index mark |
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73. The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use A. A ruler B. A Compass C. A protractor D. The tick marks |
A. A ruler |
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74. Which method lets you locate an unknown point using at least two known positions on the ground? A. Resection B. Intersection C. Modified resection D. Straightedge method |
B. Intersection |
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75. Which method lets you locate your position on a map by converging a grid azimuth to a back azimuth of at least two well-defined locations pinpointed on the map? A. Resection B. Intersection C. Modified resection D. Straightedge method |
A. Resection |
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76. What is the first step in navigating using terrain association? A. Determine direction of the declination diagram B. Convert magnetic azimuth to a back azimuth C. Convert grid azimuth to a back azimuth D. Orient your map |
D. Orient your map |
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77. What direction is always the first shadow mark when using the shadow-tip method? A. North B. South C. West D. East |
C. West |
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78. The Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) provides the user position, A. Air speed, time reporting, and navigational capabilities B. Velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities C. Jamming detector, time reporting, and navigation capabilities D. Communication, time reporting, and navigation capabilities |
B. Velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities |
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79. What is the Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Recievers (DAGR) primary function? A. Operate in ground facilities, air, sea, and land vehicles B. Operate waypoint calculations, data transfer, and targeting C. Determine jamming sources, gun laying, and man overboard. D. Navigate through terrain using stored waypoint position information |
D. Navigate through terrain using stored waypoint position information |
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80. Which Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) mode reduces power usage but does not track satellites? A. Fix B. Average C. Standby D. Continuous |
C. Standby |
