Volume 2

Front 1

1. (201) When an 1023 management notice indicates suitable interchangeable or substitute items are available for issue, with whom must Demand Processing personnel verify approval?

a. Flight chief,
b. Commander.
c. Requesting agency,
d. Responsible item manager.

Back 1

c. Requesting agency

Front 2

2. (201) Issues from a supply point are considered

a. multiple issues.
b. over-the-counter,
c. one-for-one exchange,
d. serviceable for unserviceable.

Back 2

b. over-the-counter

Front 3

3. (201) What do personnel in a supply point use to process issues when they are operating without a terminal function?

a. Pre-post, TEX 6.
b. Pre-post, TEX 7.
c. Post-post, TEX 6.
d. Post-post, TEX 7.

Back 3

c. Post-post, TEX 6.

Front 4

4. (201) The computer transaction automatically created to record the withdrawal of a mobility readiness spares package asset to satisfy a mission capability requirement is called
a. B9(x) MICAP report,
b. BV(x) MICAP report,
c. BVDA MICAP notification,
d. BVDB MICAP notification.

Back 4

a. B9(x) MICAP report,

Front 5

5. (202) What activity code identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system document?
a. X.
b. R.
c. J.
d. C.

Back 5

c. J.

Front 6

6. (202) What Standard Base Supply System output notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status?
a. DUO.
b. 1SH.
c. ISU.
d. CSU.

Back 6

b. 1SH.

Front 7

7. (203) How are cannibalizetions processed for a mission capability termination?
a. TRIC SPR, delete code 4.
b.TRIC SPR, delete code 8:
c. TRIC NOR, delete code 4.
d. TRIC NOR, delete code 8.

Back 7

d. TRIC NOR, delete code 8.

Front 8

8. (203) Which system provides visibility of mission capability and awaiting parts transactions by accepting transactions from depots and bases worldwide, maintains master records and reports for all levels of Air Logistics Center management, and provides the capability to reconcile your base's
MICAP/AWP data with the depot?
a. C001.
b. D165B.
c. D043B.
d. D200A.

Back 8

b. D165B.

Front 9

9. (204) To perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation, what listing is used?
a. D19.
b. D20.
c. D23.
d. Q04.

Back 9

c. D23.

Front 10

10. (204) What due-in from maintenance detail records can be updated by the transaction identification code "DFM" input?
a. Memo and credit,
b. Firm and credit.
c. Firm and memo.
d. Credit only.

Back 10

c. Firm and memo.

Front 11

11. (205) When monitoring awaiting parts end items, personnel at bases submit requests for repair parts on a fill or backorder basis using the urgency justification code
a. "AB" only,
b. "AR" only,
c. "AA" or "AB."
d. "AR" or "BR."

Back 11

d. "AR" or "BR."

Front 12

12. (206) Failure to process transaction identification code "TRN" data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by personnel in
a. HQ AFMC.
b. CASO.
c. GSA.
d. DLA.

Back 12

a. HQ AFMC.

Front 13

13. (206) What product would you use to verify transaction identification code "TRN" processing is completed?
a. Supply Point Listing.
b. Daily Document Register.
c. Base Supply Surveillance Report,
d. Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

Back 13

b. Daily Document Register.

Front 14

14. (206) The net repair cycle days for a transaction identification code "TRN" input must be manually computer
a. when directed by the operation support officer,
b. when the turnaround time exceeds 15 days,
c. when the turnaround quantity exceeds 15.
d. upon receipt of a 256 Reject.

Back 14

d. upon receipt of a 256 Reject.

Front 15

15. (207) To manage the flow of repair cycle assets properly, the preferred location for the processing of due-in from maintenance turn-ins is
a. receiving.
b. distribution,
c. war readiness.
d. repair cycle support.

Back 15

d. repair cycle support.

Front 16

16. (207) The small groups of selected "XD" items that are candidates for two-level repair are known as

a. DLR.
b. DLT.
c. OAR.
d. ALR.

Back 16

a. DLR

Front 17

17. (207) What listing will stock control personnel use to monitor property awaiting disposition instructions from the item manager?

a. D19, Part 2.
b. D23,Part4.
c. D20, Part 2.
d. D19, Part 4.

Back 17

b. D23,Part4.

Front 18

18. (207) An XF3 item cannot be considered for condemnation unless it cannot be repaired or the cost to repair exceeds what percentage of the replacement cost?

a. 50.
b. 75.
c. 90.
d. 100.

Back 18

b. 75.

Front 19

19. (208) What supply condition code and action code is used to process a Product Quality/ Materiel Deficiency Report turn-in?
a. F, 1.
b. H, 9.
c. A, B.
d. Q, C.

Back 19

d. Q, C.

Front 20

20. (208) What input is used to load the warehouse location/Product Quality/ Materiel Deficiency Report control number on the due-in from maintenance detail record?

a. FSP.
b. MDR.
c. DFM.
d. PCS.

Back 20

c. DFM.

Front 21

21. (209) What management level includes war reserve materiel equipment requirements in appropriate allowance documents and assigns composition codes to war reserve materiel allowance standards?
a. HQ USAF.
b. HQ AFMC.
c. MAJCOM.
d. Materiel management functional community.

Back 21

b. HQ AFMC

Front 22

22. (210) Which part of the SOS lists authorizations for which the computer could not find a war reserve materiel detail record?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three,
d. Four.

Back 22

b. Two.

Front 23

23. (210) What financial restraint supportability code is loaded to all initial and increased war reserve materiel authorizations to prevent unauthorized use of materiel management activity group money for war reserve materiel purposes?

a. F.
b. M.
c. R.
d. W.

Back 23

a. F.

Front 24

24. (210) What report lists unsupportable war reserve materiel requirements?
a. SOS.
b. Q07.
c. Q05.
d. S07.

Back 24

b. Q07

Front 25

25. (211) How many days can a mobility readiness spares package support a weapon system or weapon support system in a deployed location before re-supply is necessary?
a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120.

Back 25

b. 60

Front 26

26. (211) What form is attached to readiness spares package functional check items before they are moved to maintenance?
a. DD Form 1577.
b. DD Form 1576.
c. DD Form 1575.
d. DD Form 1574.

Back 26

b. DD Form 1576.

Front 27

27. (211) Who is accountable for materiel during a deployment of 130 days?
a. Responsible AFMC item manager,
b. Losing accountable officer,
c. Gaining CSB.
d. Losing CSB.

Back 27

c. Gaining CSB.

Front 28

28. (211) How many days before a deployment can a CONUS unit restrict readiness spares package assets from Military Capability Asset Sourcing System lateral sourcing? a. 7. b. 9. c. 11. d. 14.

Back 28

b. 9

Front 29

29. (211) What transaction identification code input produces the necessary transactions, record updates and files to upload at the gaining activity, and produces documentation to support the transfer of MRSP/IRSP/MSK detail records?
a. 1ED.
b. FME.
c. 1WD.
d. FKD.

Back 29

c. 1WD

Front 30

30. (211) When processing short-term equipment deployments, what transaction identification code input is used to deploy single items?
a. 1ED.
b. 1ET.
c. FET.
d. FME.

Back 30

a. 1ED.

Front 31

31. (211) When processing a short-term equipment deployment, what transaction identification code input and action code sets the deployed indicator to "D" and loads the deployed routing identifier to reflect where the asset is deployed?
a. 1ED, D.
b. 1ET, E.
c. FET, E.
d. FME, D.

Back 31

a. 1ED, D.

Front 32

32. (211) The Air Force Equipment Management System (C001) provides e-mail notices to the gaining accountable officer when deployed equipment assets are not reported received within
a. 7 days,
b. 10 days,
c. 14 days,
d. 21 days.

Back 32

a. 7 days,

Front 33

33. (212) Who selects the method for document distribution and creation?
a. Team Chief.
b. ELRS Commander,
c. Accountable Officer,
d. Computer operations.

Back 33

a. Team Chief.

Front 34

35. (213) How many personnel and fighter squadrons will a BEAR Industrial Operations Set support?
a. 3300 personnel/3 fighter squadrons,
b. 550 personnel/3 fighter squadrons,
c. 3300 personnel/5 fighter squadrons,
d. 550 personnel/5 fighter squadrons.

Back 34

a. 3300 personnel/3 fighter squadrons,

Front 35

36. (213) Accountability of deployed BEAR assets are maintained for up to how many days on the account of the storing command's owning unit who shipped the assets? a. 30. b. 60. c. 90. d. 179.

Back 35

d. 179.

Front 36

37. (214) During which phase of the deliberate planning process are support agreements drawn and finalized? a. I. b. II. c. III. d. V.

Back 36

d. V.

Front 37

38. (214) As it applies to wartime capability documents, what computer database tells you the who, what, where, when, and how things need to deploy if the operations plan is implemented?
a. TPFDD.
b. WSMIS.
c. PC-ASM,
d. LOGMOD.

Back 37

a. TPFDD

Front 38

39. (214) For wartime capability, a unit that is fully combat ready is identified by a

a. C-l rating.
b. C-2 rating,
c. C-3 rating,
d. C-4 rating.

Back 38

a. C-l rating.

Front 39

40. (215) What wartime capability system provides HQ USAF, AF component commanders, MAJCOMs, and the Aerospace Expeditionary Force Center readiness information to employ, manage, and sustain Expeditionary Air Force operations?
a. ART.
b. SORTS.
c. AFWUS.
d. PC-ASM.

Back 39

a. ART.

Front 40

41. (216) What allowance manager has the responsibility for the final review and approval or disapproval of organizational and individual equipment items, quantities and basis of issue, and non-routine requests to be included in equipment allowance standards?
a. USAF.
b. AFEMS.
c. USAFE.
d. HQ AIA.

Back 40

b. AFEMS.

Front 41

42. (217) A custodian uses what Air Force form to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items? a. 2005. b. 2003. c. 2001. d. 2000.

Back 41

a. 2005.

Front 42

43. (217) Non-equipment authorization inventory data item requests are identified by what Expendability, Recoverability, Reparability, Cost Designator?
a.NF1
b. ND1.
c. XB3.
d. XD2.

Back 42

a.NF1

Front 43

44. (217) What Air Force form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or an equipment item whose basis of issue requires approval above wing or base level?
a. 600.
b. 601.
c. 2005.
d. 2009.

Back 43

b. 601

Front 44

45. (217) What menu option in the Air Force Equipment Management System (C001) is used to enter equipment allowance change requests electronically?
a. TORC.
b. TRAC.
c. TACR.
d. OLVIMS.

Back 44

c. TACR.

Front 45

46. (218) A reporting organization file is accomplished
a. daily.
b. weekly,
c. monthly,
d. semiannually.

Back 45

b. weekly,

Front 46

47. (219) Personnel at what Air Force activity maintains a central file of all weapon items by serial number?

a. Ogden Air Logistics Center,
b. San Antonio Air Logistics Center,
c. Oklahoma City Air Logistics Center,
d. Warner-Robins Air Logistics Center.

Back 46

d. Warner-Robins Air Logistics Center.

Front 47

48. (219) Serial numbers for weapon items on hand in the LRS are maintained on what type detail? a. 249. b. 250. c. DIFM. d. Non-EAID.

Back 47

a. 249.

Front 48

49. (219) What is sent from the Serial Number Control System to a base that fails to process the communication security reconciliation as required?

a. XHA COMSEC variance record,
b. COMSEC error assessment notification.
c. XHA, COMSEC variance record with COMSEC error assessment code "2B."
d. XHB, COMSEC control reject report with COMSEC error notification code "7B."

Back 48

d. XHB, COMSEC control reject report with COMSEC error notification code "7B."

Front 49

50. (220) What type of adjusted stock level is used to restrict stockage?

a. Fixed,
b. Minimum.
c. Maximum,
d. Restricted.

Back 49

c. Maximum,

Front 50

51. (220) What input changes an Adjusted Stock Level detail record from unconfirmed (memo) to confirmed (firm)?
a. 1F3A.
b. 1F3C.
c. 1F3D.
d. 1F3L.

Back 50

a. 1F3A.

Front 51

52. (221) How often does the readiness based level system run at AFMC to push readiness based levels to both base and depot?
a. Daily,
b. Monthly.
c. Quarterly,
d. Semi-annually.

Back 51

c. Quarterly,

Front 52

53. (221) Readiness based levels are forwarded to the base for retail supply system implementation by
a. SNUD.
b. message, mail, or phone call.
c. an electronic HQ AFMC Computed Level Transaction (XCC).
d. an electronic HQ AFMC Computed Level Transaction (XCA).

Back 52

d. an electronic HQ AFMC Computed Level Transaction (XCA).

Front 53

54. (222) What transaction identification code is used to transfer assets to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office?
a. A2x.
b. FTR.
c. SHP.
d. TRM.

Back 53

d. TRM.

Front 54

55. (223) Within what time frame must action required (ARC) images be worked before another one is output?

a. Three days.
b. Five days,
c. Seven days,
d. Nine days.

Back 54

b. Five days,

Front 55

56. (223) What status code deletes a due-in that does not have a due-out under program control?

a. "Z7".
b. "Z6".
c. "ZC".
d. "ZD".

Back 55

a. "Z7"

Front 56

57. (223) What transaction identification code is input if a requirement no longer exists?
a. AC1.
b. AC2.
c. AF1.
d. AF2.

Back 56

a. AC1.

Front 57

58. (224) What cancellation status code indicates a due-in cancellation was generated by offline action? a. BS. b. CA. c. ZC. d. ZD.

Back 57

c. ZC.

Front 58

59. (225) During file status or requirements computation, what does the program produce, when an item record contains an excess exception code?

a. ECC.
b. FEX.
c. FTE.
d. FTR.

Back 58

b. FEX

Front 59

60. (225) At a minimum, how often are item records with a shipping exception code reviewed and validated?
a. Weekly.
b. Semiannually.
c. Annually,
d. Every two years.

Back 59

b. Semiannually.