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120 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Examples of important oncogenes
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Ras and Myc
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Three enzymes found in HIV--important targets for antiretroviral drugs
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Protease, reverse transcriptase, and integrase
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_______ surface protein of HIV interacts with _______ on T-cells
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GP-120; CD4
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Integrated retroviral DNA has _________ on each end which attract _________ and promote transcription of both viral DNA and normal DNA
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long terminal repeats; RNA polymerase II
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What is the function of the Myc protein?
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acts as a transcription factor to activate cell proliferation genes
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What is the cause of most virus-derived oncogenic mutations?
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Retroviruse integration into host chromosomes which subsequently promotes downstream oncogenic transcription
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Humans Herpe Virus: 1) enveloped/nonenveloped 2)What kind of genome?
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1) enveloped 2)dsDNA
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Where do most type-1 alphaherspesvirinae establish latency?
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sensory ganglion
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HSV-2 is associated with:
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genital herpes
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Cold sores and fever blisters are recurrent infection in:
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Herpes labialis (HSV-1)
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Ocular infections are associated with
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HSV-1--the leading cause of blindness in the US
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This drug reduces the transmission of HSV-2:
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Valacyclovir
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Pregnant women with genital herpes are treated with which drug:
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Acyclovir
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Anti-HSV drugs are activated by:
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viral enzymes, predominantly viral thymodine kinase
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T/F: Anti-HSV drugs eliminate the latent virus.
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False: the latent virus is never eliminated; Anti-HSV drugs are nucleoside analogs that are active only against replicating viruses
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Mechanism of acyclovir:
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acts as a nucleotide analog; when it's incorporated into the growing chain, it terminates/inhibits DNA polymerase
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Cytomegalovirus: Production infection is seen in ______ and latent infection is seen in ________
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Cytomegalovirus: Production infection is seen in macrophages and fibroblasts and latent infection is seen in B and T lymphocytes and bone marrow stromal cells
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What are "owl's eyes" cells?
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The characteristic halo surrounding intranuclear inclusion bodies in cytomagalovirus infected cells
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The most common virus transmitted in utero is ______ and can cause _______
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Congenital CMV; cytomegalic inclusion disease
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Two best drugs for CMV infections:
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Ganciclovir and Foscarnet. Note, Acyclovir is not effective at all for CMV
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Compare and contrast Alpha and Beta Herpes Viruses
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Alpha: very promiscuouse, variable host range, short reproductive cycle, spread rapidly, latent infection stored in sensory ganglion.....Beta: very restrictive host range, long reproductive cycle, latent virus maintained in secretory glands, lypmphoreticular cells, or kidneys
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Most common HHV Type 6 associated disease
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Roseola, or sixth disease
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What "structure" in the viral DNA is characteristic of all herpes viruses?
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terminal repeat sequences which encode regulatory genes for the virus
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What is the oncogene associated with Burkitt's lymphoma?
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C-myc. Burkitt's lymphoma is associated with epstein barr virus.
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Name the drug used to treat EBV:
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no drugs are available
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EBV is in an alpha, beta, or gamma herpesvirus:
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gamma
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Which form of Hepatitis does not have a chronic stage?
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Hepatitis A: antibodies form as symptoms develop
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This form of hepatitis possesses a reverse transcriptase
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Hepatitis B (HBV)
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Which form of Hepatitis exhibits immune complex disease?
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HBV
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What happens to HB surface antigen (HBsAg) in acute versus chronic infection?
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In acute, HBsAg goes up and then down. In chronic, HBsAg remains elevated
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Cellular injury due to HBV is mediated via cytopathic effects of the virus. T/F
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False. Cellular injury due to HBV is mediated via immune responses
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HCV viral levels can be reduced to undetectable levels by a combination of interferon and the antiviral drugs _______ and _______.
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Ribavirin and Peginterferon
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Which enzyme mediates the transformation of an immature HIV to a mature, infectious virus?
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a protease
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Does HIV replicate in the blood or lymphatic tissue?
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lymphatic tissue
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_______ is a marker of the effectiveness of anti-retroviral therapy.
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viral load
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Active/Inactive CD4 cells can be infected with HIV.
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ACTIVE
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In the lymph node, B cells reside in the _______, while T cells reside in the _______.
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B cells reside in the GERMINAL centers, while T cells reside in the PARACORTICAL region.
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What enzyme is necessary to free a new influenza virus from the host cell?
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neuraminidase
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What influenza viral protein binds to host cell-surface receptors for cell entry?
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hemagglutinin
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The drug of choice for HSV-1:
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Penciclovir: a topical nucleoside analog
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2 drugs that treat influenza A only:
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amantadine and rimantadine
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2 drugs that treat both influenza A and B:
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zanamavir and oseltamivir/Tamiflu
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MOA for Amantadine and Rimantadine
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inhibitors of uncoating and thus replication
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MOA for Fomivirsen
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Inhibitor of translation with antisense mutation
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CMV drugs:
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Ganciclovir/Valganciclovir, foscarnet, cidofovir, fomivirsen
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MOA for acyclovir and valacyclovir
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terminates DNA elongation: nucleoside analog- high specificity for HSV and VZV thymidine kinase
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MOA for penciclovir and famciclovir
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terminates DNA elongation: nucleoside analog- high specificity viral thymidine kinase
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MOA for Ganciclovir and Valganciclovir:
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inhibits DNA polymerase; activated by cellular and viral enzymes to its active triphosphate form; nucleoside analog
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MOA for Foscarnet
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Inhibits DNA polymerase
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What ophthalmic drugs are used to treat HSV keratitis?
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Trifluridine and Idoxuridine
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What two HIV glycoproteins bind to CD4 receptors on the T cell during attachment?
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gp120 and gp41
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MOA of Maraviroc
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inhibits interaction between T cell chemokine receptor CCR5 and HIV-1 gp 120
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What is the only HIV entry inhibitor?
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Maraviroc
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MOA of Enfuvirtide
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inhibits HIV fusion with cell: binds to HIV gp41 subunit
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MOA of nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors:
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"False building blocks" that compete with nucleosides and abort DNA synthesis
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MOA of nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors:
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bind to the reverse transcriptase, causing disruption of the enzyme's catalytic site; Ex. nevirapine- the drug given to pregnant women
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MOA of Raltegravir
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inhibits HIV integrase which covalently links the viral DNA to the host genome
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MOA of protease inhibitors
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prevent cleavage of the polyproteins into smaller proteins which are able to infect new cells
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What class of HIV drugs are potent inhibitors of the CYP450 system?
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protease inhibitors
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Name common side effects of protease inhibitors:
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dorsocervical fat pad ("buffalo hump"); peripheral lipodystrophy syndrome (fat redistribution)
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the virus of the common cold
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rhinovirus
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this enterovirus can spread to the heart
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coxsackievirus
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this enterovirus can spread to the motor neurons in the CNS
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Polio virus. The secondary infection is called poliomyelitis
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Which has the broadest range of infection: rhinovirus, polio virus, or coxsackievirus? Why?
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Cosackievirus, because its host receptors are broadly distributed across the body
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MOA of polio vaccine
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contains all 3 polio virus serotypes and prevents poliomyelitis by neutralizing viremic polio (thus, doesn't prevent primary polio infection)
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Regarding polio, the ______ vaccine utilizes a killed virus while the _______ vaccine utilizes a live, attenuated virus.
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The SALK vaccine utilizes a killed virus while the SABIN vaccine utilizes a live, attenuated virus.
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The Rhinovirus receptor molecule is ______ and is found predominantly in _______ tissue.
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The Rhinovirus receptor molecule is ICAM-1 and is found predominantly in NASAL tissue.
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T/F: There are no vaccines against rhinovirus.
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True: Rhinovirus undergoes extensive antigenic variation (as does HIV) and makes the development of a vaccine impossible. Rhinovirus has more than 100 serotypes.
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In cases of Respiratory Synctial Virus and Measles, synctia are detected in the histology. What are synctia?
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Multinucleated giant cells that form because viral fusion protein is produced and appears on the surface of infected cells, fusing the cells together.
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The predominant viral cause of acute lower respiratory infection in childhood and most common overall cause of bronchiolitis:
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Respiratory Synctial Virus: child presents with history of funny nose, followed by cough and rapid breathing, chest retractions, low grade fever, and wheezing on auscultation
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______ is the typical manifestation of parainfluenza virus.
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CROUP--narrowed, inflamed trachea due to edema and swelling
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_______ have non-segmented RNA genomes while _______ have segmented RNA genomes. Segmented genomes allow antigenic SHIFT through genome reassortment.
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PARAMYXOVIRUSES have non-segmented RNA genomes while ORTHOMYXOVIRUSES have segmented RNA genomes. Segmented genomes allow antigenic SHIFT through genome reassortment.
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"CCC and P"- cough, coryza (runny nose), conjunctivitis, photophobia; Koplik's spots....these are manifestations of ______.
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Measles
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_____ is unlike other paramyxoviruses, in that it has no fever, rash, or pneumonia, just parotitis.
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Mumps
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All ________ viruses are enveloped.
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negative strand RNA
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During the _______ phase, the virus has been uncoated and has released the genome, but has not yet replicated.
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eclipsed phase
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________ shields the virus from the immune response.
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Glycosylation
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___ strand RNA viruses encode RNA polymerase, but do not carry it in the virus, while ___ strand RNA viruses actually carry the RNA polymerase in the virus.
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+ strand RNA viruses encode RNA polymerase, but do not carry it in the virus, while - strand RNA viruses actually carry the RNA polymerase in the virus.
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New viral strains are formed via ________.
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segmented genomes
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The best predictor of HIV outcome is ________.
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the viral load
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Do skin lesions in small pox reflect primary or secondary viremia?
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secondary
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Burkit's lymphoma is associated with what virus?
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Epstein Barr Virus
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What cytokines induce an antiviral state in the cell?
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Type 1 interferons; interferons alpha and beta
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the presence of dsRNA in a cell will trigger the release of _______.
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type 1 interferons
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Type I interferon inhibits cellular protein synthesis by activating two pathways, ____________ and ____________.
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Type I interferon inhibits cellular protein synthesis by activating two pathways, 2'5' oligoadenylate synthase pathway which degrades mRNA, and the Protein Kinase R pathway, which inhibits translation.
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Viral nucleic acids are inside this viral structure:
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icosahedral virus
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Viral nucleic acids are integrated with viral protein, forming the structure of the virus. This describes a ____________.
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nucleocapsid
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The influenza antigen, _______, interacts with _______ on the surface of the target cell.
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The influenza antigen, HEMAGGLUTININ, interacts with SIALIC ACID on the surface of the target cell.
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What are the molecular signals for viral protease to cleave out the individual viral proteins from a polyprotein?
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Gln-Gly pairs
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Multiple proteins encoded on one mRNA describes a ________.
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Polyprotein
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In ___ strand RNA virus, the strand must be transcribed first before protein translation.
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negative strand RNA must be transcribed to a positive strand which is then translated.
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How do non-retroviral DNA viruses cause tumors?
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by encoding proteins that inhibit tumor suppressor pathways, such as the Rb protein
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In HHV, tegument proteins are responsible for ________.
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promoting viral transcription following infection
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If viral DNA is maintained in EPISOMAL form, then the viral DNA has not been ________ and the virus is in the ________ stage.
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If viral DNA is maintained in EPISOMAL form, then the viral DNA has not been INTEGRATED and the virus is in the LATENT stage.
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Do cytomegalovirus disease symptoms occur in primary or recurrent infections?
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Primary: the clinical syndrome is mononucleosis
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Gamma Herpesvirus replicate in ________.
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Gamma Herpesvirus replicate in LYMPHOID BLASTOID CELLS and can transform B-cells into immortalized lymphoblast-like cells.
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EBV are tropic for cells that have the same receptor for the ______________.
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EBV are tropic for cells that have the same receptor for the C3d COMPONENT OF THE COMPLEMENT SYSTEM.
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This acute disease can cause a massive loss of hepatocytes in 2-3 weeks that results in inflammatory infiltrates, an exaggerated immune response, and can sometimes cause a shrunken liver, a wrinkled capsule, or a collapsed reticulin network.
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Fulminant hepatitis
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Fulminant hepatic failure is most common in _________.
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HBV
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What form of hepatitis causes liver fatty change?
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HCV
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_________ can reduce mother-to-child HIV transmission, but HIV will become resistant if the drug is used alone.
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Navaropine
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What is "Ritonavir-boosting?"
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Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, inhibits the CYP450 system, allowing other drugs to be more potent
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Of the following paramyxoviruses, which cause viremia? Measles, Parainfluenza, Mumps.
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Measles and mumps cause viremia. Parainfluenza does NOT.
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This influenza protein cleaves sialic acid and prevents virion clumping
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Neuraminidase
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Two neuraminidase inhibitors, _______ and _________, work against influenza by ____________.
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Two neuraminidase inhibitors, ZANAMIVIR and OSELTAMIVIR, work against influenza by INTERFERING WITH VIRION RELEASE AT THE CELL SURFACE.
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Is the injected influenza vaccine a killed virus or live, attenuated virus?
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killed
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T/F: There have been no human-human transmission of avian H5N1 influenza strains.
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True. Only human-human transmission can cause a pandemic. So far, there has only been avian-human transmission of the avain H5N1 strain.
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non-enveloped, linear double-strand DNA respiratory virus
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adenovirus
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this virus is non-seasonal, seen mostly in young children, and only has human-human transmission.
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adenovirus
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Adenovirus infections typically occur in the _____.
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lung, GI, and eye
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What virus can hemagglutinate RBCs?
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adenovirus
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Adenovirus DNA replication, DNA transcription of mRNA, and virion assembly all occur in the host cell _______.
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nucleus
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What virus is used as a gene therapy vector?
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adenovirus
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Fever, headache, altered mental status, and focal neurologic signs indicate __________, while fever, headache, neck stiffness, and normal mental status indicate ____________.
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Fever, headache, altered mental status, and focal neurologic signs indicate VIRAL ENCEPHALITIS, while fever, headache, neck stiffness, and normal mental status indicate BACTERIAL MENINGITIS.
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Cytokine activation resulting in vascular collapse, internal bleeding, thrombocytopenia, and increased hematocrit
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Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever/Shock Syndrome: caused by a vector borne virus
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Bradycardia with fever is called _________ and is associated with ________.
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Bradycardia with fever is called FAGET SIGN and is associated with YELLOW FEVER.
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cause of cervical cancer
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HPV-18
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HPV proteins: ___ complex ubiquinates p53 and promotes its degradation. ___ promotes the degradation of Rb protein.
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HPV proteins: E6 complex ubiquinates p53 and promotes its degradation. E7 promotes the degradation of Rb protein.
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Alpha HPV has tropism for _________, may cause ______ warts, and include the viral strains that cause _________.
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Alpha HPV has tropism for GENITAL-MUCOSAL SITES, may cause GENITAL warts, and include the viral strains that cause CERVICAL CANCER. (HPV-16,18)
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Common, cutaneous warts are caused by ___ HPV.
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beta HPV
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