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83 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Periodic, recurring seizures are treated with what ROA?
long term PO
Which anticonvulsants are more susceptible to ataxia side effects?
phenobarb & primidone
Anticonvulsants: long acting? short acting? ultrashort acting?
long: phenobarb
short: pentobarb
ultra: thiopental, methohexital
What ROA can phenobarb be admin?
PO and IV

tolerance w/ repeated use
Which anticonvulsant is useful for controlling seizures due to toxins?
pentobarb

IV preferred
Which anticonvulsant is used for status epilepticus?
diazepam

need adjunct for long term therapy
Difference btw tranquilizer vs sedative.
tranq: calms to reduce anxiety and aggression; helpful in noncompliant
sedative: decrease irritability and excitement
T/F. Anti-anxiety will make animal drowsy.
False
T/F. Phenothiazine have anti-emetic effects but no analgesic effects.
True
Phenothiazine drugs (3) and side effects.
hypotension, lower seizure threshold, paraphimosis in horses (swollen penis)

acepromazine, chlorpromazine, promazine
Benzodiazepines are often combined with ____ for short term anesthesia.
ketamine

alpha2 agonist: xylazine
Reversal agent for benzo-
flumazenil
What animals should alpha2 agonists be dose with caution?
cattle
What is the main side effect of xylazine?
CV
Reversal agents of xylazine.
yohimbine, tolazoline
Which animal are these alpha2 agonist used in: detomidine? medetomidine?
d: horses
m: dogs (used as restraint also)
Reversal agent of medetomidine.
atipamezole
Difference btw general vs local anesthetics.
gen: partial or complete loss of consciousness
local: loss of sensation w/o loss of consciousness
___ anesthetics duration of action can be lengthened by epinephrine.
local
Induction agents are a type of ___ anesthetic.
general
Inhalable halogenated compounds suffix?
-ane
T/F. Barbiturates are highly protein bound.
True. Hypoproteinemia doses should be decreased
Which barbiturate is used in thin animals as a general anesthetic? Which should not be used in thin animal due to fat redistribution?
methohexital
thiopental
Dissociative anesthetics belong to ____ family. Name of drugs?
cyclohexamine family

ketamine, tiletamine, ketamine-diaz mixture
ROA of ketamine? Side effects?
IM or IV
Jerking - must combine for optimal anesthesia benefit
Tiletamine is used in combo with ___. Approved in what animals?
zolazepam

dogs and cats
MAC? MAC and potency relationship.
minimum alveolar concentration: lowest [] that produces no response to painful stimuli in 50% of pts

lower MAC, higher potency (vice versa)
Higher blood-to-gas solubility means?
longer induction and recovery time
Addition of ___ atoms increase stability of inhalant anesthetic agents.
fluoride
T/F. Isoflurane is more potent than halothane.
False
Which inhalant anesthetic can cause malignant hyperthermia?
halothane and isoflurane
What are the 3 isomers of isoflurane?
enflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane
Location of ganglion in PS vs S.
PS: closer to organ (pregang - long); ACh
S: just outside spinal cord (postgang - long); NE
Location: alpha1, 2 and beta1, 2
a1: blood vessels
a2: postganglionic
b1: heart
b2: lung

1's: excitatory
2's: inhibitory
M2 receptors mainly located where?
heart - inhibitory
T/F. Nicotinic receptors are excitatory.
True.
Adrenergic agonists/sympathomimetic drug names (10).
1. epi
2. NE
3. isoproterenol
4. dopamine
5. dobutamine
6. phenylpropanolamine
7. isoetharine, albuterol, terbutaline
10. ephedrine
Sympatholytic drugs
alpha blockers (-zosin)
beta blockers (-lol)
Phenoxybenzamine should not be used when? useful when?
horses w/ colic
horses w/ laminitis (hoof inflammation)
Parasympathomimetics/cholinergic agonists: direct acting vs indirect acting MOA.
D: mimick action of ACh
ID: inhibiting ACh breakdown
Direct acting cholinergic drug names (3).
bethanechol, metoclopramide, pilocarpine
Indirect acting cholinergic drug names (4).
1. edrophonium
2. neostigmine & physostigmine
3. demecarium & isoflurophate
4. organophosphates
Reversal agent of organophosphate.
pralidoxime
Atropine.
antidote for organophosphate poisoning
preanesthetic
anticholinergic/parasympatholytic
Anticholinergic drugs (4).
atropine, glycopyrrolate, aminopentamide, propantheline
T/F. Only productive coughs should be suppressed.
False - nonproductive/dry coughs
Mucolytic drug.
acetylcysteine

treat APAP toxicity in cats
Expectorant drug.
guaifenesin
antitussive drugs (5).
butorphanol (central)
hydrocodone (central): harsh nonproductive cough
codeine (central)
DXM (central): not effective in vet med
trimeprazine (central); combo prednisolone
What 3 things can cause bronchoconstriction?
ACh, histamine, blocked B2 receptor
Anticholinergic bronchodilator drugs (3).
aminoipentamide, atropine, glycopyrrolate

atropine: + ADRs
MOA of B2 receptor agonists.
1. bronchodilation
2. stabilize mast cells
Which B2 agonists are preferred bronchodilators?
terbutaline and albuterol
Antihistamines can prevent ___ in horses and ___ in cats.
heaves, asthma
Respiratory stimulant drugs (3).
doxapram, naloxone, yohimbine
When is doxapram used?
C-section or dystocia
Which antidiarrheal is used to treat tenesmus? Drug names (3).
anticholinergics

atropine, aminopentamide, propantheline
Difference between protectant vs adsorbents. Drugs (3).
p: coat
a: bind

pepto, kaolin/pectin, activated charcoal
What antidiarrheal can cause excite in horses and cats?
opiate related and narcotic analgesics
Paregoric can be combined with ___/___.
kaolin/pectin
Osmotic laxatives are not recommended for what animal?
cats
Stimulant laxative drug names (2).
bisacodyl, phenophthalein

absorbed systemically
Emollients decrease ____.
straining during defecation

stool softeners, lubricants, fecal wetting agents

not absorbed systemically
What emollient is commonly used to treat hairballs in cats?
white petrolatum
Prokinetic drug neostigmine MOA.
competitively inhibits AChE
Dopaminergic antagonist drugs (2). ADR.
metoclopramide
domperidone

behavioral in nature
serotonergic agonist
cisapride
What types of drug classes are used as anti-emetics?
phenothiazine
antihistamines
anticholinergics
procainamide deriv
5HT recep antag
Metoclopramide is contraindicated in what type of patients?
GI obstruction, perforations, or hemorrhage
Which antiemetic has central and peripheral effects?
5HT recep antag: ondansetron, dolasetron

reserved for specific use
What is the emetic choice for dogs? cats?
apomorphine; xylazine
Dose of 3% hydrogen peroxide
1 tsp/5 lbs
Class I block ___ channels. Class II? Class III? IV?
Na, Beta, K, Ca
Speed of association/dissociation in Class I.
Ia: intermediate; ouinidine
Ib: fast; lidocaine
Ic: slow; flecainide
What is used for bracken fern poisoning? and heparin overdose?
protamine sulfate
What is used to treat rodenticide poisoning?
vit k1 or phytonadione
Which diuretic is used to treat resp. hemorrhage in racing horses?
loop
Uroliths in bladder causes? in urethra?
hematuria/dysuria

obstruction: narrow urethra
Alkaline urine is what type of urolith? acidic?
struvite

Ca oxalate, cystine, ammo urate
T/F. Renal disease patients should not be fed acidifying diets.
True
Which drugs are used to treat urinary incontinence? retention?
anticholinergics

cholinergic agonist or adrenergic antag
What is used to treat spinal cord bladders?
cholinergic agonist e.g. bethanechol
What drugs are used to treat stress incontinence?
alpha and beta adrenergic agonists

phenylpropanolamine, ephedrine