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140 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The NCRP indicates that an occupational radiation dose should not exceed _____ in a three month period of time. a. 0.5 rem b. 1 rem c. 2 rem d. 3 rem |
d. 3 rem |
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What is the minimum lead equivalent required for radiation protection of the eye in vascular interventional? a. 0.35 b. 0.5 c. 0.75 d. 5.0 |
c. 0.75 |
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To reduce patient dose and scatter radiation, the distance between the patient and the flat panel detector should be _____. a. Increased b. Decreased c. Distance will not affect dose |
b. Decreased |
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The increase dynamic range provided by digital imaging may result in which of the following? Please select all that are correct. a. Wider exposure latitude b. Increased patient dose c. Increased contrast resolution d. Decreased patient dose e. Dose creep |
a. Wider exposure latitude b. Increased patient dose e. Dose creep |
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If the matrix size remains the same and the FOV decrease, what happens to the spatial resolution? a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains the same |
a. Increases |
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Define: Post processing |
ability to manipulate images |
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Define: Window width |
Adjusts the contrast on an image |
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Define: Window level |
Adjusts the density on an image |
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Define: Matrix |
Group of pixels |
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Define: Archiving |
Means of storage of digital images |
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Define: Pixel dynamic range |
Picture element |
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Define: Dynamic range |
Total amount of contrast on an image |
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Modern high-frequency generators utilize which of the following? a. Low kVp, Low mAs b. Low kVp, High mAs c. High kVp, High mAs d. High kVp, Low mAs |
d. High kVp, Low mAs |
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What file type is used for 3D printing? a. HTML b. STL c. DICOM d. HTTP |
b. STL |
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Advantages of FPD fluoroscopy over II based digital fluoroscopy include which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Compact design b. Use of grids to decrease scatter c. Lower dynamic range d. No II artifacts e. Better low contrast resolution
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a. Compact design b. Use of grids to decrease scatter d. No II artifacts e. Better low contrast resolution |
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An increase in pixel size (with same FOV) will have what effect on the image? a. Decrease contrast resolution b. Increase contrast resolution c. No effect d. Increase spatial resolution e. Decrease spatial resolution |
e. Decrease spatial resolution |
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A vascular interventional patient has contrast media injected. The patient becomes hypotensive and bradycardic. The team administers IV fluids and atropine. What type of adverse reaction is the patient experiencing? a. Anaphylactic b. Vasovagal c. Angioedema d. Bronchospasm |
b. Vasovagal |
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An increase in catheter length will have what effect on flow rate? a. No effect b. Decrease c. Increase |
b. Decrease |
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A vascular interventional patient has contrast media injected. The patient becomes hypotensive and tachycardic. The team administers IV fluids and epinephrine. What type of reaction is the patient experiencing? a. Anaphylactic b. Vasovagal c. Angioedema d. Bronchospasm |
a. Anaphylactic |
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Which of the following will have an effect on PSI a. Injection pressure b. Catheter diameter c. Viscosity of CM d. Flow rate e. All of the above
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e. All of the above |
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If a catheter has a diameter of 3 mm, what would be the equitable French size? a. 12 b. 9 c. 6 d. 3 |
b. 9 |
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What is the upper limit for a normal INR? a. 0.5 b. 1.0 c. 1.5 d. 2.0 |
c. 1.5 |
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Match the following automatic pressure injector safety devices with the correct definition. a. Acceleration regulator b. Pressure limiting device c. Volume limiting device ensures that PSI is compatible guards against catheter recoil protects against a maximum volume |
a. Acceleration regulator guards against catheter recoil b. Pressure limiting device ensures that PSI is compatible c. Volume limiting device protects against a maximum volume |
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If a physician requests a flow rate of 25ml/sec injected over 5 seconds, what would be the total volume? a. 125ml b. 100ml c. 25ml d. 5ml e. 2ml
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a. 125ml |
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Match the embolic agent with its correct classification. a. Temporary, particulates b. Permanent, mechanical c. Permanent, particulates
coils
embolic spheres
gelfoam
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a. Temporary, particulates Gelfoam
b. Permanent, mechanical Coils
c. Permanent, particulates Embolus spheres |
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A pigtail catheter would be utilized for which of the following procedures? Select all that apply. a. Selective femoral arteriography b. Hepatic venography c. Coronary angiography d. Pulmonary arteriography e. Aortic flush
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b. Hepatic venography d. Pulmonary arteriography e. Aortic flush |
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Angiography catheters can be constructed of what type of material(s)? Select all that apply. a. Nylon b. Nitinol c. Teflon d. Polyethylene e. Polyurethane
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a. Nylon c. Teflon d. Polyethylene e. Polyurethane
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Select each of the following that is an approved closure device. a. Manual compression b. Potts device c. Closure with nitinol clip (StarClose) d. Suturing of the vessel (Perclose) e. Collagen plug (Angio-Seal) |
a. Manual compression c. Closure with nitinol clip (StarClose) d. Suturing of the vessel (Perclose) e. Collagen plug (Angio-Seal) |
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Which of the following procedures supplies is designed to maintain vessel access, minimize blood loss, and decrease access site trauma? a. Fem Stop b. Sheath c. Dilator d. Catheter |
b. Sheath |
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For an abscess drain placement or biopsy procedures, which needle would be preferred? a. Amplatz b. Chiba c. Butterfly d. Seldinger e. Potts |
b. Chiba |
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What is the outer diameter for a 6 French catheter? a. 5.25mm b. 2.0mm c. 1.33mm d. 0.66mm e. 0.33mm |
b. 2.0mm |
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Which of the following is/are correct regarding artherectomy? a. None of those listed are true b. All of those listed are true c. Has an increased risk of complication when compared to PTA d. Can be directional or circumferential e. Used as an alternative to PTA |
b. All of those listed are true |
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Which mechanical thrombectomy device/system utilizes oscillating nitinol wires between two balloons and thrombolytic agents injected in between? a. Perc-U-Stay b. Trellis c. Artherectomy d. Angio-Jet |
b. Trellis |
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As a catheter is being threaded over the guidewire, it is the radiographer’s responsibility to: a. All of those listed are correct b. More than 1 of those listed but not all c. Ensure the wire remains in the sterile field d. Keep enough slack to be able to advance the wire if needed e. Keep the wire taught (clothes lining) |
a. All of those listed are correct |
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One French equals: a. 2.54mm b. 1mm c. 1/3mm d. 1/8mm |
c. 1/3mm |
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A catheter with only a single end hole and no side holes may result in: (select all that apply) a. Transient narrowing of the vessel, just beyond the catheter tip b. Less catheter recoil c. Stronger stream of CM |
a. Transient narrowing of the vessel, just beyond the catheter tip c. Stronger stream of CM |
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A Grollman catheter would be used during which of the following angiograms? a. Renal b. Aortography c. Pulmonary d. Cerebral |
c. Pulmonary |
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Which of the following are applicable to a pigtail catheter? a. More than 1 but not all of the above b. Facilitates higher injection c. And end hole d. Multiple side holes |
b. Facilitates higher injection c. And end hole d. Multiple side holes |
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of an informed consent? a. Full disclosure to the patient of the risks involved b. Competency of the patient c. Usually done after the procedure is completed d. Authorization of the procedure by the patient |
c. Usually done after the procedure is completed |
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Which of the following are required to be included on informed consent? a. Risks b. Benefits c. Alternative treatments d. Treatments for possible complications e. All of the above |
e. All of the above |
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True or False: It is the physician’s responsibility to obtain informed consent. |
True |
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Which of the following lab values is utilized to determine a patient’s risk for bleeding? a. All of those listed are appropriate b. PT c. PTT d. INR |
a. All of those listed are appropriate |
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A normal creatinine value is usually between 0.6 to 1.5mg/dL. |
True |
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Match the following terms utilized when performing an ECG, or when talking about the electrical conduction of the heart. a. P wave b. T wave c. QRS complex
contraction of the ventricles, atrial relaxation depolarization of the atria repolarization of the ventricles
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a. P wave depolarization of the atria
b. T wave repolarization of the ventricles
c. QRS complex contraction of the ventricles, atrial relaxation
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True or False: A normal BUN value is usually is between 8-25 mg/dL. |
True |
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Identify the ECG strip's cardiac rhythm.
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asystole |
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Identify the ECG strip's cardiac rhythm. |
ventricular fibrillation |
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Identify the ECG strip's cardiac rhythm. |
atrial fibrillation |
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Identify the ECG strip's cardiac rhythm. |
tachycardia |
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Identify the ECG strip's cardiac rhythm.
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premature ventricular contraction |
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Identify the ECG strip's cardiac rhythm.
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Torsades de Pointes |
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Identify the ECG strip's cardiac rhythm.
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Normal sinus rhythm |
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Which lab value pertaining to coagulation is commonly referenced for patients on heparin therapy? a. PT b. PTT c. INR d. ACT |
d. ACT |
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Which oxygen delivery system administers between 5-8 liters of oxygen per minute at a concentration of 28-50%? a. Nasal cannula b. Face mask c. Partial non-rebreathing mask d. Non-rebreathing mask e. Mechanical ventilation |
b. Face mask |
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True or False: The difference between an ionic and nonionic contrast media is the presence of iodine. |
False |
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True or False: The most common problem associated with transcatheter angiography is anaphylactic reaction to CM. |
False |
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On the Benzoic Acid Ring, at which locations would iodine appear? a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3 e. 2 f. 1 |
a. 6 c. 4 e. 2 |
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Which of the following is the correct dose for Versed? a. 1-4 mg IV per dose b. 1 mg IV per dose c. 0.2 mg IV per dose d. 0.25-1 mg IV per dose |
d. 0.25-1 mg IV per dose |
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Narcan is the reversal agent for which of the following analgesics? a. Lidocaine b. Demerol c. Morphine sulfate d. Fentanyl citrate |
b. Demerol c. Morphine sulfate d. Fentanyl citrate |
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Epinephrine may cause which of the following complications? a. Ventricular arrythmias b. Anxiety c. Hemorrhage d. Headache e. Palpitations |
a. Ventricular arrythmias b. Anxiety d. Headache e. Palpitations |
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Heparin is used for _____ administration and its reversal agent is _____. a. Long term, FFP b. Long term, protamine sulfate c. Short term, protamine sulfate d. Short term, FFP e. Short term, Vitamin K |
c. Short term, protamine sulfate |
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Match the following cardiac medications with their indications. a. Torsades de Pointes b. Asystole c. Used to increase response to defibrillation d. Left bundle branch blocks e. SVT adenosine atropine amiodarone lidocaine magnesium sulfate |
a. Torsades de Pointes magnesium sulfate b. Asystole atropine c. Used to increase response to defibrillation lidocaine d. Left bundle branch blocks amiodarone e. SVT adenosine |
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What is the correct dosage for fentanyl citrate? a. 0.1-0.2 mg/dose b. 0.5-1 mg/kg c. 25-50 mcg d. 2-5 mgm/kg |
c. 25-50 mcg |
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What is the correct reversal agent for heparin? a. Protamine sulfate b. Physotigmine c. Remazicon d. Vitamin K e. Fresh frozen plasma |
a. Protamine sulfate |
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Which is the correct dosage for the vasoconstrictor Procardia? a. 0.2 U per minute b. 25 mg intra-arterially c. 0.3 mg sublingual d. 100-200 ug intra-arterially e. 10 mg PO or sublingually |
e. 10 mg PO or sublingually |
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Match the following medical emergencies with the appropriate symptom, associated procedure, response, and/or medication. a. Air embolism b. Arrhythmia: PEA c. Arrythmia: Torsades de Pointes d. Hypotensive episode e. Hypertensive episode f. Hemothorax g. Pneumothorax h. Thrombolytic embolism i. Vasovagal response j. Vasovagal reaction b…administer atropine c…administer magnesium sulfate d…administer vasoconstrictors, give fluids e…administer vasoconstrictors such as nitroglycerin j…declare medical emergency, Administer oxygen, increase IV fluids, Atropine may be necessary i…have patient lie down, elevate legs, and monitor vital signs h…patients will experience/display the 5 P’s g…place chest tube f…place chest tube, fibrolytic agents may be necessary a…place patient in Trendelenburg position on their left side |
a. Air embolism place patient in Trendelenburg position on their left side b. Arrhythmia: PEA administer atropine c. Arrythmia: Torsades de Pointes administer magnesium sulfate d. Hypotensive episode administer vasoconstrictors, give fluids e. Hypertensive episode administer vasoconstrictors such as nitroglycerin f. Hemothorax place chest tube, fibrolytic agents may be necessary g. Pneumothorax place chest tube h. Thrombolytic embolism patients will experience/display the 5 P’s i. Vasovagal response have patient lie down, elevate legs, and monitor vital signs j. Vasovagal reaction declare medical emergency, Administer oxygen, increase IV fluids, Atropine may be necessary |
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Epinephrine may cause which of the following complications? a. Ventricular arrhythmias b. Anxiety c. Hemorrhage d. Headache e. Palpitations |
a. Ventricular arrhythmias b. Anxiety d. Headache e. Palpitations |
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Patients experiencing an air embolism should be placed in which of the following positions? a. Trendelenburg b. Reverse Trendelenburg c. Lithotomy d. Fowler’s e. Left lateral decubitus |
a. Trendelenburg e. Left lateral decubitus |
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True or False: Caution should be taken when utilizing a reversal medication because this type of medication may last twice as long as the initial drug administered. |
False |
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What frequently causes premature ventricular contractions to occur? a. Analgesic medication administration b. Sedation medication administration c. Small flutters in the atria d. Expansion of PTA balloon e. Guide wire in the heart |
e. Guide wire in the heart |
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During moderate contrast media reaction, the patient experiences bronchospasm and laryngeal edema. What actions does the appropriate response of the technologist include? a. Document the incident b. Monitor VS c. Raise the patient’s head d. Increase IV fluids e. Administer epinephrine f. Administer oxygen g. 3 of the above but not all h. All of the above are appropriate |
h. All of the above are appropriate |
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During a moderate contrast media reaction, the patient experiences moderate hives. What dosage of Benadryl should be given? a. 0.1 mg IV b. 40 mg orally c. 40-80 mg IV d. 25-50 mg IV |
d. 25-50 mg IV |
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Match the letter to the correct arterial structure. |
A. internal carotid B. anterior carotid C. middle cerebral |
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Match the letter to the correct arterial structure. |
A. vertebral B. basilar C. posterior cerebral D. posterior inferior cerebellar |
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AP/PA axial cerebral angiography projection best displays what anatomy: |
frontal view of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries |
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Lateral cerebral angiography projection best displays what anatomy: |
lateral view of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries as well as the carotid siphon |
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Supine oblique cerebral angiography projection best displays what anatomy: |
anterior communicating artery |
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Transorbital cerebral angiography projection best displays what anatomy: |
carotid siphon |
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Tangential cerebral angiography projection best displays what anatomy: |
subdural hemotoma |
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A patient going in for a cerebral angiogram scores a 3 on the Glasgow coma scale. What does this score indicate? |
This score indicates a totally unresponsive patient. |
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This cerebral angiogram shows a stenosis in which vessel? a. Common carotid artery b. External carotid artery c. Internal carotid artery d. Vertebral artery |
c. Internal carotid artery |
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Which projection is displayed? a. AP/PA axialt b. AP/PA c. Lateral d. Oblique e. Tangential
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c. Lateral |
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What would be the intervention of choice?
a. Embolization b. Thrombolysis c. Endarterectomy d. Stent placement e. PTA |
c. Endarterectomy |
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When normal flow of arterial blood to the brain is blocked, what structure maintains blood flow to the affected area? a. Semi-circular canals b. Circle of Willis c. Subclavian steal d. AVM |
b. Circle of Willis |
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The right and left vertebral arteries merge at the posterior base of the brain to form which vessel? a. Posterior cerebral artery b. Anterior cerebral artery c. Basilar artery d. Inferior cerebellar artery e. Circle of Willis |
c. Basilar artery |
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The internal carotid arteries serve which of the following portions of the brain? Please select all that are correct. a. Cerebellum b. Structures of the orbit c. Parietal lobe d. Frontal lobe e. Temporal lobe |
b. Structures of the orbit c. Parietal lobe d. Frontal lobe e. Temporal lobe |
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Which structure connects the left and right anterior cerebral arteries? a. Posterior cerebral arteries b. Middle cerebral artery c. Posterior communicating artery d. Anterior cerebral artery e. Anterior communicating artery |
e. Anterior communicating artery |
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A patient going in for a cerebral angiogram scores a 12 on the Glasgow coma scale. What does this score indicate? a. This score indicates a totally unresponsive patient b. This score indicates a comatose patient, but the patient still displays some responses c. This is the best response. Patient is alert and appropriate. |
c. This is the best response. Patient is alert and appropriate. |
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What projection was the image obtained in and what anatomy does it demonstrate?
a. AP/PA, vertebral arterial flow b. Lateral, external carotid arterial flow c. AP/PA, internal carotid arterial flow d. Lateral, external carotid arterial flow e. AP/PA, external carotid arterial flow |
c. AP/PA, internal carotid arterial flow |
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In which vessel is the stenosis present? a. Vertebral artery b. Internal carotid artery c. External carotid artery d. Common carotid artery e. Brachiocephalic artery |
d. Common carotid artery |
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Intervention should begin no later than _____ hours after onset for ischemic cerebral stroke. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 |
c. 3 |
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Match the correct arterial structure with the appropriate letter.
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A. right vertebral artery B. internal thoracic C. left common carotid D. aortic arch E. right internal carotid F. left subclavian G. right common carotid H. right subclavian I. brachiocephalic |
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An endovascular stent-graft is indicated when an aneurysm of the thoracic aorta reaches greater than _____% of normal diameter. a. 50 b. 25 c. 15 d. 10 |
a. 50 |
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What can cause a pulmonary AVM? a. Medication b. Infection c. Congenital d. Neoplasm e. Cirrhosis |
b. Infection c. Congenital d. Neoplasm e. Cirrhosis |
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Stage of effusion: exudative What is the appropriate treatment for the state? |
antibiotics |
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Stage of effusion: fibropurulent What is the appropriate treatment for the state? |
drainage catheter placement |
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Stage of effusion: organizing What is the appropriate treatment for the state? |
surgical intervention |
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Which of the following are complications related to tracheobronchial stent placement? a. Reflux b. Stent malposition c. Esophageal perforation d. Hemorrhage |
b. Stent malposition d. Hemorrhage |
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Which type of catheter is utilized for pulmonary arterial thrombectomy? a. Pigtail b. Cobra c. Greenfield d. Grollman |
c. Greenfield |
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Biopsy of the thorax is indicated when the lesion reaches _____. a. >8mm b. >6mm c. >4mm d. >2mm |
a. >8mm |
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What degree of obliquity would best visualize the aortic arch? a. No obliquity is needed. Straight AP/PA best visualizes this anatomy. b. 60 c. 45 d. 20 |
c. 45 |
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Which vessel is preferred to visualize the pulmonary arteries? a. Jugular vein b. Brachial artery c. Common femoral vein d. Common femoral artery |
c. Common femoral vein |
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During a pulmonary arteriogram, which degree of obliquity would best visualize the bifurcation bilaterally? a. No obliquity is needed. Straight AP/PA best visualizes this anatomy. b. 60 c. 45 d. 20 |
c. 45 |
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Which type of IVC filter is indicated in megacava patients? a. Patient’s with megacava cannot receive an IVC filter. b. Bird’s nest c. Titanium d. Greenfield |
b. Bird’s nest |
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Where should an IVC filter be placed? a. Below the level of the renal veins b. Below the level of the renal arteries c. Above the level of the renal veins d. Above the level of the renal arteries |
a. Below the level of the renal veins |
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Match the correct letter with the appropriate arterial structure of the abdomen. |
a. Celiac trunk b. Left gastric c. Common hepatic d. Gastroduodenal e. Right gastric f. Proper hepatic artery g. Left hepatic h. Right hepatic i. Cystic |
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A patient has a free hepatic venous pressure of 40mmHg and a hepatic wedge pressure of 35mmHg. What is the corrected sinusoidal pressure? a. 75 b. 40 c. 35 d. 5 e. -5 |
d. 5 |
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Identify each of the following arterial structures. |
1 aorta 3 right hepatic 4 common hepatic 7 left common iliac 8 left renal 9 splenic 10 left gastric |
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The inferior mesenteric artery arises at approximately which vertebral level? a. S1 b. L3 c. L1 d. T11 |
b. L3 |
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Once the renal artery reaches the hilum, it divides into how many segmental arteries? a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3 e. 2 |
b. 5 |
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The left colic flexure of the large intestine would be supplied with oxygenated blood by which main branch of the abdominal aorta? a. IMA b. SMA c. Left gastric artery d. Celiac trunk |
a. IMA |
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Which degree of obliquity is necessary to visualize the kidneys due to their position within the abdomen? a. 45 b. 40 c. 35 d. 30 e. 20 |
d. 30 |
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A pressure gradient of greater than _____% across a renal stenosis would indicate intervention. a. 40 b. 30 c. 20 d. 10 |
d. 10 |
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Which of the following are complications related to esophageal stent placement? a. Hemorrhage b. Esophageal perforation c. Stent malposition d. Reflux |
a. Hemorrhage b. Esophageal perforation c. Stent malposition d. Reflux |
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Which of the following abdominal structures are served by branches of the celiac artery? a. Lesser omentum of stomach b. Inferior duodenum c. Liver d. Head of pancreas e. Superior duodenum
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a. Lesser omentum of stomach c. Liver d. Head of pancreas e. Superior duodenum
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A TIPS procedure decreases portal HTN by connecting which of the two following structures? a. Portal vein b. IVC c. Hepatic artery d. Hepatic vein |
a. Portal vein d. Hepatic vein |
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The mean aortic intravascular pressure in a normal patient should be between which range? a. >140mmHg b. 60-90mmHg c. 70-105mmHg d. 100-140mmHg |
c. 70-105mmHg |
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Match the letter with the correct anatomy. |
a. Minor calyx b. Major calyx c. Renal pelvis d. UPJ |
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In the abdomen, the duct of Wirsung is also known as: a. Duct of Vater b. Hepatopancreatic duct c. Common bile duct d. Pancreatic duct |
d. Pancreatic duct |
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Due to its close proximity to the anterior aspect of the abdominal wall, the most likely placement for gastrostomy tubes is in the _____ portion of the stomach. a. Jejunum b. Pylorus c. Body d. Fundus |
c. Body |
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True or False: A dose of glucagon can be administered to slow gastric motility and ensure a safer gastrointestinal intervention. |
True |
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Normal total bilirubin is _____mg/dL and normal direct bilirubin is _____mg/dL. a. 0.1, 0.3 b. 1, 0.3 c. 10, 3 d. 0.3, 1 e. 3, 10 |
b. 1, 0.3 |
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Which of the following is the access location for a left sided biliary intervention directly into the gallbladder? a. 11-12 intercostal space, at the tip of the xiphoid process b. 11-12 intercostal space, 1-2cm posterior to mid-axillary line c. 30-40 degrees to the right at the tip of the xiphoid process d. 30-40 degrees to the right at the 11-12 intercostal space |
c. 30-40 degrees to the right at the tip of the xiphoid process |
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Match the needs of the patient with the appropriate gastrointestinal tube. a. Gastrostomy/jejunostomy b. Jejunostomy c. Gastrostomy can be used for tube feeding only tube feeding only one port for suctioning/crushed medications |
a. Gastrostomy/jejunostomy one port for suctioning/crushed medications b. Jejunostomy tube feeding only c. Gastrostomy can be used for tube feeding only |
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Match the letter with the correct anatomy.
hepatopancreatic sphincter pancreatic duct common bile duct common hepatic duct left hepatic duct right hepatic duct cystic duct neck of gallbladder body of gallbladder fundus of gallbladder |
1 fundus of gallbladder 2 body of gallbladder 3 neck of gallbladder 4 cystic duct 5 right hepatic duct 6 left hepatic duct 7 common hepatic duct 8 common bile duct 9 pancreatic duct 10 hepatopancreatic sphincter |
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Patients going home with a nephrostomy tube should be instructed to call the IR department if which of the following occur? Select all that are correct. a. Foul-smelling urine in drainage bag b. Purulent drainage at insertion site c. Redness at insertion site d. Nausea/vomiting e. Difficulty flushing the tube f. No drainage into the bag g. Stitch holding the tube in place becomes dislodged h. Tube gets pulled back or falls out |
All are correct |
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The hepatopancreatic ampulla is also termed: a. The ampulla of Vater b. The ampulla of Wirsung c. The ampulla of Oddi d. The ampulla of Papilla |
a. The ampulla of Vater |
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Match the step to nephrostomy tube placement to the correct number in the procedure order. +guide wire removed, catheter in position +catheter placed over the wire +needle removed with guide wire in place +guide wire passed through the needle +needle inserted into kidney |
1. needle inserted into kidney 2. guide wire passed through the needle 3. needle removed with guide wire in place 4. catheter placed over the wire 5. guide wire removed, catheter in position |
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The puncture site for percutaneous nephrostomy should be: a. Above the 10th rib b. Between the 10th and 11th ribs c. Between 11th and 12th ribs d. Below the 12th rib |
d. Below the 12th rib |
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A major cause of death from portal HTN is exsanguination from ruptured varices in what location?a. Gastroesophageal b. Enteric c. Colonic d. Rectal |
a. Gastroesophageal |
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Nephrostomy tubes should be flushed with _____ ml of normal saline every _____ hours. a. 5, 12 b. 10, 12 c. 5, 24 d. 10, 24 e. 5, 48 f. 10, 48 |
f. L 10, 48 |
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Match the letter with the correct peripheral arterial structure.
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a. Plantar b. Posterior tibial c. Popliteal d. Profunda femoris e. External iliac f. Internal iliac g. Dorsalis pedis h. Anterior tibial i. Superficial femoral j. Common femoral k. Common iliac l. Abdominal aorta |
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A patient with CLI who receives a 3 on the Rutherford Classification has what symptom? a. Tissue loss b. Tissue ulceration c. Ischemic rest pain d. Severe claudication e. Moderate claudication |
d. Severe claudication |
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Regarding intervention in the SFA, what is the minimum restenosis percentage post PTA what would indicate the need for stent placement? a. 25 b. 30 c. 50 d. 75 |
b. 30 |
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For aortoiliac intervention, a lesion in the common iliac artery would require which type of approach? a. Ipsilateral b. Contralateral |
a. Ipsilateral |
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Match the type of fistula with the correct description. Straight graft Loop graft Brescia-Cimino radial artery connected to basilic vein distal radial artery grafted to the cephalic vein connect brachial artery to basilic vein |
Straight graft radial artery connected to basilic vein Loop graft connect brachial artery to basilic vein Brescia-Cimino distal radial artery grafted to the cephalic vein |
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True or False: Temporary catheters will only be used for patients with acute renal failure. |
False |
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When placing a non-tunneled CVL, the goal for coagulation would be to have the INR below _____. a. 3 b. 2.75 c. 2.5 d. 2.25 e. 2.0 f. 1.5 |
e. 2.0 |
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Match the following condition with the appropriate description. a. Budd-Chiari Syndrome b. May-Thurner Syndrome c. Thoracic Outlet Syndrome d. Paget-Schroetter Syndrome compression of subclavian vein between muscles/ligaments compression of subclavian vein between first rib and clavicle overlying right iliac artery compresses the adjacent left iliac vein web of stenosis in the IVC or hepatic veins |
a. Budd-Chiari Syndrome web of stenosis in the IVC or hepatic veins b. May-Thurner Syndrome overlying right iliac artery compresses the adjacent left iliac vein c. Thoracic Outlet Syndrome compression of subclavian vein between first rib and clavicle d. Paget-Schroetter Syndrome compression of subclavian vein between muscles/ligaments |
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Select each that may be an indication for central venous catheter placement. a. Chemotherapy b. IV administration of fluids or medications c. Parenteral nutrition d. Performance of plasmapheresis e. Performance of hemodialysis |
All of the above |
