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115 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Define reservoir of an infection.
reservoir = site where microorganisms reproduce and maintain themselves for a long time.

all reservoirs are sources
Define source of infection.
source = site where microorganisms are temporarily deposited and little/no multiplication takes place

not all sources are reservoirs
List portals of entry for infections.
Mucous membranes: conjunctivae, respiratory tract, GI tract, genitourinary tract
Skin
Most common nosocomial infection.
urinary tract infection
Highest mortality of nosocomial infections
pneumonia
In infection surveillance data for infection rates, what is the numerator and what is the denominator.
Numerator = patients who developed the infection of interest

denominator = patient population at risk for this infection due to risk factors (devices, underlying diseases, medications, procedures, duration of stay)
What is cumulative incidence?
Cumulative incidence is the proportion of patients at risk for an infection who developed that infection at some point during a period of observation.
What is the incidence rate for an infection?
Incidence rate is the number of cases of infection per unit of time.
What are the 3 basic principles needed for valid comparisons of nosocomial infection rates over time and between institutions?
1. Uniform application of uniform definitions
2. Uniform density/intensity of surveillance (reporting is essential)
3. Adjustment of the denominator for severity of illness.
3 classes of helminths
cestodes, nematodes and trematodes
Ascaris lumbricoides
Nematode
Largest parasitic nematode
fecal-oral transmission
normally found in small intestines but may wander to bile duct or appendix
can obstruct blood flow

treatment: mebendazole and pyrantel pamoate
Hookworm
causes iron-deficiency anemia (they suck blood from intestine walls)
Strongyloides stercoralis
Acquired from skin contact with soil infected with filariform larva - migrate to the lungs and break through into alveoli - coughed up and swallowed and adults develop in intestine and produce eggs
What is strongyloides stercoralis autoinfection?
most eggs made by adults in the intestine pass through feces and go back to living in soil but some can become filariform and re-infect the host, called autoinfection
can develop into life threatening hyperinfection - massive autoinfection caused by immunosuppression (AIDS, corticosteriods) and can lead to death from enteric bacterial sepsis and respiratory failure from hemorrhage and pneumonia
Enterobius vermicularis
pinworm - most common helminth infection in US
life cycle only in humans
ingested eggs hatch in the small intestine, become adults and migrate to colon
females migrate to the perianal skin and release eggs (eggs not found in stools) --> perianal pruritis
diagnose with scotch tape test
treat with mebendazole or pyrantel pamoate
trichuris trichiura
often innocuous but can be associated with anemia and rectal prolapse
Filiaria
blood and tissue nematodes, cause lymphoid obstructions
often more active at night
list the 4 types of malaria
plasmodium falciparum - ~15%, highest mortality
plasmodium vivax - 80%
plasmodium ovale
plamsodium malariae
What is the best stain for parasites?
Geimsa
What animal is the plasmodia vector and definitive host (sexual stage)?
Anopheles mosquito
Which two plasmodium types cause latent infection in the liver?
vivax and ovale
Why does p. falciparum cause more severe malaria?
look for distinctive banana shape!

it can infect RBCs of any age - worse anemia

erythrocyte membrane protein 1 (PfEMP1) forms knobs on surfaces of RBCs and binds to ligands on endothelial cells (CD36, thrombospondin, VCAM1, ICAM1, E-selectin) resulting in seqestration and also RBCs clump together (rosetting) => thrombosis and ischemia due to poor perfusion can cause cerebral malaria

stimulated production of high levels of cytokines which increase fever, induce NO production and increase tissue damage and induce expression of endothelial receptors for PfEMP1 (exacerbates sequestration)
Describe plasmodium life cycel as it relates to latent period, appearance of symptoms and febrile paroxysm.
sporozoites injected by mosquito bite enter hepatocytes and begin replicating (latent period)

merozoites burst out of liver cells and infect RBCs (appearance of symptoms)

erythrocytic phase, plasmodium becomes ring-shaped trophozoite, them a schizont filled with merozoites, when they release the merozoites from the RBC you get the recurrent chills, fever, and sweat symptoms
What is SERM?

drug
selective estrogen receptor modulators
What are the two types of aromatase inhibitors?

drug
Type 1: steroidal - false substrate for aromatase that is converted to a reactive intermediate that binds to the enzyme and inactivates it

Type 2: non-steroidal - competetive aromatase inhibitors, bind to the heme of cytochrome P450
What do aromatase inhibitors do?

drug
Treatment for breast and ovarian cancer that inhibits the aromatase enzyme conversion of androgens to estrogens and thus blocks this step of estrogen synthesis
List three SERM drugs.

drug
tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
raloxifen (Evista)
toremifene (Fareston)
List 4 aromatase inhibitors and their type.

drug
anastrozole (Arimidex) - Type 2
letrozole (Femara) - Type 2
exemestane (Aromasin) - Type 1
formestane (Lentaron)
Adriamycin

aka. doxorubicin, hydroxydaunorubicin

drug
Antitumor antibiotic - inhibits DNA synthesis

anthrocycline antibioitic that intercalates DNA and stops replication

requires iron
toxic to heart muscle and can lead to heart failure
Cyclophophamide

drug
alkylating agent - inhibits DNA synthesis

can cause hemorrhagic cystitis
Herceptin

aka. trastuzumab

drug
monoclonal antibody to HER2 receptors - interrupts signaling and triggers apoptosis

HER is responsible for tumor cells developing resistance to chemo
paclitaxel

drug
mitotic inhibitor

discovered in 1967 by Wall and Wani
originally isolated fromt he bark of pacific yew tree (taxol)
What is FOLFOX and what type of cancer do you use it for?

drug
combo of flurouracil, leucovorin and oxalplatin

used for adenocarcinoma of the colon
Fluorouracil

drug
thymidylate synthase inhibitor - blocks synthesis of pyrimidine thymidine and thus stops DNA replication
also methylates deoxyuridine monophosphate (dUMP) to thymidine monophosphate (dTMP)
Name the three platinum-based chemo drugs.
cisplatin - lung cancer
oxalplatin - part of FOLFOX for colon cancer
carboplatin - advanced lung cancer

-platin!
How do the platinum-based chemo drugs work?
platinum complexes form in the cells that bind and cause DNA cross-linking and trigger apoptosis
Leukovorin

drug
folinic acid

adjuvant for methotrexate - helps "rescue" bone marrow b/c it is a derivative of tetrahydrofolate so allows some purine/pyrimidine synthesis to occur

synergistic effect with fluoruricil by inhibiting thymidlyate synthase

part of FOLFOX
Avastin

What is another name?
What does it target?
What are the side effects?
What other chemo drug does it improve the effectiveness of?

drug
aka. bevacizumab

monoclonal antibody that decreases vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) - thus decreases tumor vasculature (tumor growth and metastatic potential)

improves 5-fluorouracil effectiveness by unwinding vessels and permitting access to tumor

can cause severe or fatal hemorrhage (hemoptysis, GI bleeding, hematemesis, CNS hemorrhage, epistaxis, vaginal bleeding)

used with non-small cell lung cancer and adenocarcinoma of the colon
FOLFIRI

drug
fluorouracil, leucovorin, irinotecan (a topoisomerase inhibitor)

often used with cetuximab

treatment of adenocarcinoma of the colon
What chemo drug does the KRAS mutation affect the efficacy of?

drug
EGFR mab: centuximab and panitumumab
centuximab

drug
anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody
How are EGFR and VEGF related in tumor cell signaling of angiogenesis?
EGFR signals the tumor cell to activate NFkb (nuclear factor) which promotes transcription of lots of cytokines, etc, including VEGF, which promote angiogenesis
Rituxan

aka. rituximab

drug
monoclonal antibody to CD20 - binds to B cells and triggers apoptosis, antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, and complement activation to lyse the B cells

used to treat non-hodgkin's B cell lymphomas that are CD20 +
For nonsquamous (adenocarcinoma and large cell) lung cancer and squamous cell lung cancer, do you use Alimta/cisplatin or Gemzar/cisplatin

drug
non-squamous - use Alimta (folate antimetabolite)/cisplatin

squamous - use Gemzar (nucleoside analog)/cisplatin
what virus causes smallpox? Is it DNA or RNA?
Variola virus - dsDNA
true or false, do viruses affect johnny depp?
true!
What type of vaccine is the polio vaccine?
Live attenuated virus
What is an example of a cell protein (taken from infected cell) that a virus requires to infect new cells?

hint: a very important virus
HIV needs the cell protein cyclophilin
Name four routes of entry for viruses and give examples of type of virus that enters this way.
1. Respiratory tract - flu, polio
2. Alimentary tract - polio
3. other mucosa, urogenital - HIV and HPV
4. Skin - wounds, bites (arthropods - arboviruses), breaks (papilloma)
Papilloma virus
is it RNA or DNA?
what is the structure?
Does it have an envelope?
DNA
icosahedral structure
non-enveloped
Herpes viruses:
DNA or RNA?
Envelope?
Name the types
DNA
Enveloped (icosahedral capsid)
Simplex, varicella zoster (chicken pox), EBV, CMV
How do you divide retroviruses into groups based on capsid/membrane morphology on electron microscopy?
A: capsid touches membrane
B: capsid pulled away from membrane
C: irregular surface
Avian C: pulled away and irregular
Define tropism.
Preferentially target specific host species, or specific cell types within those species
Define serology (related to viruse).
Using antibody binding to specific viral antigenic epitopes to distinguish between viral strains or variants.
How does a neutralization assay work?
Antigen capture assay?
Indirect ELISA?
Detecting patient antibodies?
Neutralization - antibodies bind up the virus and then it cannot infect cells when added to cell culture

Antigen capture - antibody bound to plate, antigen binds and then another antibody has a marker/enzyme

Indirect ELISA: antigen on a plate (tissue bound to plate), wash with antibodies to that antigen, and then with antibody to that antibody that has a marker.

Detect patient antibodies - antibody to the antibody is bound to a plate, wash with sample, then with antigen, then with antibody marker to that antigen.
What two factors are needed for tropism of a virus?
1. entry - via virus-receptor interactions (ex. HIV needs CD4)
2. replication permissiveness - cell must contain the correct proteins for the virus to replicate
Name the two types of release mechanisms for viruses getting out of a cell and tell how they are related to envelope existence.
Cytolysis - non-enveloped viruses
Budding - forms envelope from piece of cell membrane
Name the six steps of virus replication.
1. attachment
2. penetration
3. uncoating
4. replication
5. assembly
6. release
How do you get a live-attenuated vaccine?
Isolate human virus, use it to infect monkey cells, allow mutations to accumulate that make it a good pathogen in monkey cells, then use it to vaccinate people.

worry about reversion to pathogenic strain

only type of vaccine that causes full immunity (the others you only get humoral)
What type of drug is ribavirin?
synthetic guanosine analog

Virus polymerase inhibitor - increases error rate of viral polymerase

used to treat Hep C
What three types of virus specific proteins do most antiviral drugs target?
RNA dependent RNA polymerase
RNA dependent DNA polymerase
Virus-specific proteases
Describe the genome configuration of polio and influenza A. (ie. how many pieces? what type of nucleic acid?)
Both are RNA
Polio is unimolecular
Influenza A has 8 segments and is negative sense
What is the only double stranded RNA virus?
What is the only single stranded DNA virus?
dsRNA = reovirus
ssDNA = parvovirus
What type of virus is HCV (hep c)?

nucleic acid type, positive or negative sense, type of reading frame, family
+ssRNA, enveloped
translated into one long polyprotein
family Flaviviridae, genus Hepacivirus

there are 11 different genotypes (+ many subtypes) - 1a and 1b are most common in US
leading cause of chronic liver disease in US
What presents clinically with spider angiomatas (that go away with pressure but return) and palmar erythema?
hepatocellular carcinoma
(you would probably also have jaundice, elevated liver function enzymes)
How is Hep C transmitted?
mostly through large or repeated percutaneous exposure to infectious blood (injection drug use, donor blood, blood products/organs, needlestick injuries, tatoos, during birth from infected mother) - infrequently through sex and sharign personal items
What is Hep C's trophism?
Hepatocytes
T and B cells and monocytes in chronic infection

Virus E2 protein, possible receptors are CD81 or LDL receptor
What is Hep C's mechanism of disease?
infects hepatocytes
not directly cytopathic, cell loss is due to immune destruction

production of Th1 cytokines drives inflammatory response that leads to lesion development and fibrinogenesis
Define RNA virus quasispecies.
RNA dependent RNA polymerases make lots of errors so an individual type of RNA virus exists as heterogenous mix of closely related virus genomes
How does interferon work?
Promotes antiviral state by binding to cell membrane receptor and triggering transcription of virus-eradicating intracell proteins and protein synthesis inhibitors.

used to treat hep C
What type of virus is Influenza A?
-ssRNA, 8 segments (10 proteins), enveloped

family orthomyxoviridae
What is the tropism of Influenza A?
respiratory tract epithelium
What are the two important surface antigens on influenza A and what do they do?
Hemagglutinin (HA) (5 subtypes affect humans)- erythrocyte agglutinatior - essential for virus attachment and uptake by host cells - determines virulence/pathogenicity of strain

Neuraminidase (N) (2 subtypes affect humans)- cleaves neuraminidase/sialic acid (part of host cell receptor molecule to which HA attaches) - needed for release of new viruses from infected cell and prevent aggregation
What is unique about Influenza A among RNA viruses?
It replicates in the nucleus! (steals 5' cap from exiting host mRNA)
3 requirements for a pandemic
1. new virus with little/no immunity in the population
2. can replicate in humans and cause disease
3. efficiently transmitted person to person
Neuraminidase inhibitors
Flu treament
only for patients over 7 years old
relenza (zanamivir)
tamiflu (oseltamivir)
treats both flu A and B
Rimantadine
blocks early step in replication cycle of Influenza A only
Amantadine
Flu treatment
blocks viral particle uncoating and release of genomic material into host cell
How long can flu virus live on a surface?
2-8 hours
What type of vaccine is Flu-Mist?
live-attenuated nasal spray
induces neutralization and mucosal antibodies but T cell immunity is unknown
What is unique about poxviridae among the DNA viruses?
It replicates in the cytoplasm (most DNA viruses replicate in nucleus)!

it is also the biggest DNA virus

extra info: has a strong capsule that resists dessication (can be transferred on fomites)
What type of anemia does parvovirus B19 cause?
aplastic anemia
What is the virus structure of CMV?
herpes virus
lipid envelope, tegument and icosahedral capsid
DNA and preformed mRNA
What is the tropism of CMV?

what is required for attachment to host cell and what is the (possible) receptor?
broad tissue tropism but especially glandular, CNS and hematopoetic cells

requires tethering via heparan sulfate proteoglycan

receptor may be epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)
What is the CPE (cytopathic effect) of CMV?
enlarged cells with nuclear (with characteristic clearing) and cytoplasmic inclusions
Symptoms of congenital CMV.
cytomegalic inclusion disease (CID)
periodic symptoms throughout life
CNS effects: cerebral calcification, hearing and vision loss, mental retardation
trombocytopenia - causes petechial rash and purpura (blueberry muffin)
How is CMV transmitted?
body fluids - saliva, sexual transmission is possible, blood transfusions, transplant
transplacental or post-natal (infected genital secretions during birth or breast milk)
What infection is the main cause of death in AIDS patients?
CMV! causes pneumonitis, AIDS dementia, blindness from retinitis
What are the treatments for CMV?
none for healthy people (even pregnant women)

in severe immune compromised or congenital CMV: gangciclovir and valganciclovir (guanosine analogs, polymerase inhibitors) - strong side effects
What are the two classes of retroviruses?
oncornavirinae - imortalizes cells - ex. human T cell leukemia virus (HTLV1 and 2)

lentavirinae - slow viruses - neurologic and immunosuprresive - ex. HIV
What is the tropism for HIV and what two glycoproteins are involved and what are their functions?
tropism for CD4+ T cells, macrophages, and epithelial cells

envelope GP120 binds CXR4 on T cells and CCR5 on macrophages - cell attachment

transmembrane GP41 - induces viral-cell fusion
What is another name for pneumocystis carnii
pneumocystis jirovecii
What is the name of the core protein of HIV?
p24 - levels in blood are measured and correlate with extent of disease progression
What level of CD4+ corresponds with AIDS classification?
CD4 < 200/microliter
What are the symptoms of AIDS?
CMV ulcers in GI and malnutrition -> HIV wasting syndrome
pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
mycobacterium avium
Kaposi's sarcoma (herpes 8 virus)
opportunistic infections
CNS disease
severe CMV
Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors
azidothymidine (AZT), dideoxyinosine (ddl),dideoxycytidine (ddc), d4T, 3TC
HIV protease inhibitors
sawuinavir, ritonavir, indinavir, nelfinavir
What is HAART?

*hint, think AIDS
highly active anti-retroviral therapy

cocktail of 3+ drugs: nucleoside analogues (or other RT inhibitor) and protease inhibitors

ex. AZT, indinavir and 3TC
What is an HIV provirus?
when it has been reverse transcribed to DNA but not yet integrated (part of pre-integration complex)
name the three types of protozoans and examples of each
1. flagellates: giardia lamblia
2. amoebas: entamoeba histolytica
3. sporozoa: plasmodium, toxoplasma, cryptosporidium
toxoplasma gondii

where does it come form?
what are the two lifecycle forms?
symptoms?
tachyzoites cause acute infection
bradyzoites can cause cysts in muscle and nerve tissue and latent infection, reactivation

cats are the definitive host
humans aquire it from undercooked meat of animals that have been fed with contaminated cat feces or eating food contaminated with cat feces

can be mono-like or typhus-like symptoms - mostly asymptomatic in healthy ppl
TORCH syndrome (causes brain necrosis and calcifications, psychomotor retardation, seizures, deafness, microencephalopathy, micro-opthalmia, jaudice, hepatosplenomegaly, etc etc.)
AIDS patients with CD4<100 - very sever, multifcocal necrotizing enecephalitis
What is a trophozoite?
Pathogenic form of parasite that only develops in favorable environments
has a short life span
found in symptomatic patient - mostly in liquid, diarrhetic stools
Giardia lamblia
flagellated protozoan
causes sever diarrhea
found in wild animal feces - cysts contaminate water sources
What is a cyst?
Form that does not feed or reproduce, can survive outside of host, and if formed because of inhospitable environment
passed in stools of asymptomatic patient - transmitter of infection
Entamoeba histolytica
Amoeba
Causes ulcerative colitis
Button-hole ulcers - "flask-shaped" deep, extensive ulcer undermining normal mucosa below the "button hole"
trophozoite destroys PMNs and tissue cells via parasitic lectin
oral-fecal transmission

can get to liver by perforating bowel, getting into blood and traveling via portal vein
What are the characteristics of strongyloides hyperinfection?
Often triggered by immune suppression (ie. high dose corticosteroids)

flattening of villi, congestion, and inflammation of lamina propria of small intestine

intra-alveolar hemorrhage and foci of neutrophilic exudates in the lungs

enteric bacterial sepsis and respiratory failure
Taenia solium
eating eggs gives you a larval infection (more dangerous)

cysticerci = larval form - forms translucent cysts in the brain

can get from food contaminated with human feces

treat with mebendazol and surgery
Echinococcus granulosus
get from food contaminated with dog/wolf feces

larval form = hydatid cysts - travel to liver or brain
Leishmaniasis
trypanosome protozoa

cutaneous cases in Middle East

can become disseminated infection in immunosuppressed and infect macrophages/mononuclear phagocytes - leasd to acute phase cytokine reactions and wasting/cachexia

look for amastigotes (Leishmania form) containing rod-shaped mitochondria (kineoplast)

transmitted by sand fly
What parasite can phagocytize RBCs?
Entamoeba histolytica
What is unique to the cell wall and cell membrane of fungi?
cell wall = chitin and glucan
cell membrane = ergosterol
Types of asexual reproduction in fungi.
infective forms: budding, fission, endosporulation, hyphal elongation
saprophytic/culture forms: fruiting head with formation of conidia or sporangiospores
Candida albicans
endogenous
infections are caused by overgrowth
superficial infection = thrush but can also be localized invasive or disseminated invasive (rectal ulcers, vascular invasion)
Cryptococcus neoformas
exogenous - inhalational spread
pigeon poo
in T-cell immunosuppressed - meningoencephalitis, pulmonary infection - nodules and localized granulomas (a cutaneous presentation would mean systemic dissemination from the lungs via blood stream)
Aspergillus
mould
inhalation from soil and decaying veggies
broad disease specturm - respiratory/sinus infection, disseminatited/invasive, allergies, granulomas, fungus ball (non-invasive in pre-existing lung cavities)