Utmb Anatomy - Test #1

Front 1

what is the jugular or sternal notch?

Back 1

superior aspect (top of) manubrium, between the attachment of clavicles

Front 2

what attaches to sternal angle of louis?

Back 2

costal cartilage for rib 2

Front 3

what ant chest feature lies on mid-clavicular line?

Back 3

nipple, 4th ICS (in male)

Front 4

What projects laterally at the union of the pedicle and lamina of the vertebra?

Back 4

transverse process

Front 5

what is a true rib and how many are there?

Back 5

ribs that attach directly to sterum via costal cartilage

7 true ribs

Front 6

"typical" ribs attach to 3 bony structures. what are they?

Back 6

vertebral body of same rib, vertebral body of above rib, transverse process of same rib

(Ribs 3-9)

Front 7

did man have 13 ribs at one time?

Back 7

maybe

Front 8

where is intercoastal space 3?

Back 8

between rib 3 and 4

Front 9

what is the fatty layer just beneath the skin called?

Back 9

superficial fascia or hypodermis

contains blood and lymph vessels and tissue that connects skin to fascia

Front 10

what are Langer lines (cleavage lines) and how do they relate to scar formation?

Back 10

Linear clefts in the skin indicative of the direction of the fibers (orientation of collagen bundles in dermis); they correspond closely to the creases of the body but vary with body configuration

Incisions made parallel to them are thought to heal more efficiently with minimal scarring

Front 11

where is the female breast anatomically located?

Back 11

Superficial fascia (superficial to the pectoralis major muscle in the hypodermis of the skin)

Mammillary crease occurs at rib 6

Breast extends transversely from lateral border of sternum to the midaxillary line and vertically from 2nd to 6th ribs.

A small portion of the breast may extend into the axillary region along the edge of the pec major forming the axillary process or tail (of Spence)

Front 12

what 2 vessels supply most of the blood supply to the breast?

Back 12

(1) internal thoracic

(2) lateral thoracic

Front 13

most of the lympathic drainage of breast tissue is toward which lymph node?

Back 13

axiallary nodes

Front 14

the line on which mammary tissue can be found in mammals is called what?

Back 14

milk line

Front 15

what are 5 physical signs of breast cancer?

Back 15

(1) lump

(2) dimpling (invasion of suspensory ligaments)

(3) retracted nipple (invasion of lactiferous ducts)

(4) Peu d' orange (blockage of lymph)

(5) loss of mobility

Front 16

what is found in the deltopectoral triangle or groove?

Back 16

cephalic vein

Front 17

what 2 vessels supply the pectoral and lateral thoracic wall regions?

Back 17

(1) lateral thoracic

(2) thorocoacromial artery

Front 18

name 3 structures that pierce the clavipectoral fascia above the pectoralis minor

Back 18

(1) thorocoacromial artery and vein

(2) cephalic vein

(3) lateral pectoral nerve

Front 19

what is the innervation to pec major?

Back 19

lateral and medial pectoral nerves

Front 20

what is the axillary artery called proximally?

Back 20

subclavian artery

Front 21

what is the action of the pectoralis major?

Back 21

(1) medial rotation of humerus

(2) adduction of arm

(3) shoulder flexion

Front 22

describe the involvement of the intercoastal muscles in respiratory cycle

Back 22

ALL – elevate ribs during forced inspiration

Innermost IC – deep to chest plate; pull ribs down for forced expiration (others relax)

External IC – runs down and anteriorly, starts posteriorly and ends at costochondral junction

Internal IC – runs down and posteriorly, starts at sternum and runs deep to external IC

Front 23

what is a neurovascular bundle?

Back 23

grouping of arteries, veins, and nerves in one location

Front 24

name 2 nerurovascular bundles in anterior chest wall and breast region

Back 24

(1) intercoastal

(2) thorocoacromial artery and vein and lateral pectoral nerve

Front 25

other than muscles what is found in the intercostal spaces?

Back 25

intercoastal neurovascular bundle

Front 26

typically how many vertebrae are there in the human vertebral column?

Back 26

33

(C=7, T=12, L=5, S=5, Cx = 4)

Front 27

how many vertebrae are there in cervical region? lumbar region?

Back 27

cervical-7
lumbar-5

Front 28

how do the vertebrae of C1/C2 differ from typical vertebrae?

Back 28

C1 (atlas) - no body or spinous process (ring-like)

C2 (axis) - dens as part of its body

Front 29

how do the vertebrae that makeup the sacrum differ from typical vertebrae?

Back 29

(1) fused (5 vertebrae)

(2) have foramena for the dorsal and ventral primary rami (post and ant sacral foramina)

Front 30

what are the components of typical vertebrae?

Back 30

(1) body

(2) transverse processes

(3) spinous process

(4) pedicle

(5) lamina

(6) superior and inferior articular processes with facet joints

Front 31

the motor neurons responsible for voluntary skeletal movements lie in what part of the spinal cord?

Back 31

ventral root and horn of the gray matter

Front 32

where are the sensory neurons associated with peripheral nerves located?

Back 32

dorsal root ganglion, dorsal horn

Front 33

intercoastal nerves are examples of which particular division of a peripheral (somatic) nerve?

Back 33

ventral primary rami

Front 34

the intrinsic muscles of the back are supplied by what specific division of a somatic nerve?

Back 34

dorsal primary rami

Front 35

what 2 areas of the spinal cord are grossly larger than the rest? why?

Back 35

(1) cervical (C4-T1)

(2) lumbosacral (L1-S5)

enlargements because they run to limbs

Front 36

the most common site for herniated disc is found at what vertebral column level?

Back 36

L4-L5

Front 37

in the adult the spinal cord usually ends at what vertebral body level?

Back 37

L1-L2

Front 38

what is the name of the collection of spinal nerve roots found past the end of the spinal cord?

Back 38

Cauda equina

Front 39

what are 2 derivatives of the pia mater?

Back 39

(1) denticulate ligaments

(2) filum terminale

Front 40

what is found in the subarachnoid space?

Back 40

CSF (Cerebrospinal Fluid)

Front 41

if a cerebral artery ruptures, where is the blood found?

Back 41

subarachnoid space

Front 42

what is found in the epidural space?

Back 42

fat and venous plexus

Front 43

when doing a spinal tap to sample the CSF, what is the last meningeal layer that the needle should pierce?

Back 43

arachnoid mater

Front 44

what bony landmark is used to locate the appropriate vertebral level for doing a spinal tap?

Back 44

iliac crest at the spinous process of L4

Front 45

the most common place to insert a needle to do a spinal tap is between the spinous process of which vertebrae?

Back 45

L3-L4

or

L4-L5

Front 46

what is the arterial supply to the spinal cord?

Back 46

spinal branches off aorta and spinal branches off the vertebral arteries

Front 47

in a caudal epidural anesthesia the cannula is placed up which foramen?

Back 47

sacral hiatus

Front 48

what nerve innervates the traps?

Back 48

CN XI (spinal accessory)

Front 49

what is the function of the latissimus dorsi?

Back 49

(1) Internal (medial) rotation

(2) adduction

(3) extension (shoulder joint) - "toilet paper" muscle

Front 50

what is the general function of the serratus posterior muscles?

Back 50

accessory respiratory muscles - aids in breathing and raises/lowers rib cage

Front 51

how does the innervation of the erector spinae differ from the intermediate and superficial back muscles?

Back 51

the erector spinae is innervated by dorsal primary rami of the mid-thoracic and upper lumbar spinal nerves. the others are by ventral primary rami

Front 52

how is the scapula attached to the trunk?

Back 52

muscles mostly and to the skeleton by the acromioclavicular joint

Front 53

what extrinsic muscles of the scapula elevates the scapula?

Back 53

(1) levator scapulae

(2) rhomboids

(3) upper fibers of trapezius

Front 54

what are the 4 rotator cuff muscles?

Back 54

(1) Supraspinatus

(2) Infraspinatus

(3) Teres minor

(4) Subscapularais

Front 55

which of the 4 rotator cuff muscles medially rotates the shoulder joint?

Back 55

subscapularis

Front 56

in addition to movement of the shoulder joint, what is the key function of the rotator cuff muscles?

Back 56

(1) stabilizes the shoulder joint

(2) holds humeral head against glenoid

Front 57

what nerve innervates the infraspinatus muscle?

Back 57

suprascapular

Front 58

if the suprascapular nerve is damaged, what movements of the shoulder would be affected?

Back 58

(1) lateral rotation

(2) initation of abduction

Front 59

in abducting the arm, what muscles raises the arm to the horizontal position? what nerve is involved?

Back 59

(1) deltoid

(2) axillary nerve

Front 60

how is the arm raised above the horizontal position?

Back 60

scapula is rotated by the serratus anterior and lower fibers of trap so that the glenoid points upward

Front 61

rotator cuff injuries most commonly involve which rotator cuff muscle or tendon?

Back 61

supraspinatus

Front 62

which are the boundaries of the quadrangular space?

Back 62

shoulder capsule (or teres minor), long head of triceps, surgical neck of humerus, upper border of teres major

Front 63

what vessel is found in the triangular interval?

Back 63

profunda brachii

Front 64

at what joint does separation of the shoulder occur? what ligaments are often torn?

Back 64

acromioclavicular; acromioclavicular ligament and the coracoclavicular ligaments (trapezoid and conoid)

Front 65

how is the clavicle often broken?

Back 65

by falling on the outstretched upper limb and hand (to break the fall) the clavicle breaks between the lateral and middle thirds. The distal end and upper limb drops

Front 66

the vast majority of clinical dx come from through these 2 non-imagery tasks?

Back 66

History and Physical exam

Front 67

X-rays are a form of what radiation?

Back 67

ionizing

Front 68

name 3 imagery methods that use ionizing radiation

Back 68

radiographic film, CT, nuclear medicine scan

Front 69

what are examples of non-ionizing radiation?

Back 69

ultrasound and MRI

Front 70

name the 4 types of imagery densities and give at least 2 examples of each

Back 70

air/gas: lungs, gas in intestine
fat: adipose tissue, breasts
soft tissues/water density: blood, solid organs, full bladder
bone and metal: ribs, calcified bone, teeth, metal caps, bullet fragments

Front 71

approximately half of all radiographs studies done are what?

Back 71

chest x-rays

Front 72

chest x-rays are taken in which 2 views and why?

Back 72

PA and lateral. To better localize any density that may be found on the films

Front 73

name at least 3 methods/substances film radiography uses to enhance the images

Back 73

contrast iodine soln-angiogram
barium swallow/enema-GI series
Technetium-99M-nuclear bone scan

Front 74

describe angiography

Back 74

an iodine soln is introduced into a vessel (artery or vein) by a catheter. Film xray and or CT are taken at timed intervals. The Iodine metal absorbs xrays rendering a radiopacity (white on neg film) at the location of the iodine-enhancing the vessels of interest

Front 75

what is the advantage of CT over classical film imagery?

Back 75

3D rendering of large anatomical regions with increased resolution of soft tissues, also esp good for visualizing fine bone structure

Front 76

what methods are used to enhance CT imagery?

Back 76

oral, intravenous, or intra-arterial contrast material

Front 77

describe what is found on a normal nuclear medicine bone scan

Back 77

bone is a living tissue and is constantly being remodeled so a light background of tracer deposition is normal over all the bones of the skeleton. in areas of high impact and constant movement such as joints a greater amount of deposition of tracer is seen. tracer is also excreted from the kidney so the kidneys and bladder also show 'normal" enhancement on bone scan

Front 78

what processes would you expect to show enhanced uptake of tracer on nuclear bone scan?

Back 78

deposition of tracer at the site of increased metabolic activity and osteoblast activity. found at sites of metastatic lesions of the bone and at sites of bone healing from injury

Front 79

what is the advantages/limitations of US?

Back 79

advantages: no exposure to ionizing radiation, relatively fast, inexpensive and reliable for screening purposes
disadvantages: less resolution than CT, limited use on areas not blocked by bone or having to discern objects filled with or surrounded by air

Front 80

what are some indications for the use of MRI?

Back 80

brain disease such as infarction and tumors, body cavity tumors, soft tissue injuries that produce edema, spinal cord injuries

Front 81

what are some contraindictinos for MRI?

Back 81

ferrous containing objects such as metal surgical staples and aneurysm clips, pace makers, implanted medication pumps, some IUDs, nerve stimulator devices

Front 82

on T1 weighted MRI what tissue in general is displayed as bright white?

Back 82

fat

Front 83

CSF and edema are best visualized as enhanced signal (bright white) using which weighted MRI?

Back 83

T2

Front 84

the subspecialty of modern imagery that can directly treat disease thru minimally invasive precutaneous access to internal structures is what radiology?

Back 84

interventional radiology

Front 85

what forms the medial wall of the axilla? the anterior wall?

Back 85

medial: thoracic wall and overlying serratus anterior.
anterior: pectoralis major and minor

Front 86

at what anatomic landmark does the subclavian artery become the axillary artery?

Back 86

as it crosses the 1st rib

Front 87

what is the largest branch of the axillary artery? and what are the two major branches off of it?

Back 87

Subscapular
Scapular circumflex and thorocodorsal

Front 88

to insure survival of the upper limb (esp the hand) where can the axillary artery be ligated during an ER procedure following a traumatic bullet-induced tear in the axillary artery just below the clavicle?

Back 88

any where proximal to the subscapular artyer

Front 89

what cord of the brachial plexus lies deep to the axillary artery?

Back 89

posterior

Front 90

name 3 nerves derived from the posterior cord.

Back 90

upper and lower subscapular, thorocodorsal, radial, axillary

Front 91

what is the"M" of the brachial plexus?

Back 91

lateral cord-musculocutaneous, median, median cord-ulnar nerves

Front 92

what component of the bachial plexus supplies the flexor region of the arm?

Back 92

upper roots to make up musculocutaneous nerve

Front 93

what muscle group in the arm is innervated by the median nerve?

Back 93

none

Front 94

what muscle group in the arm is innervated by the radial nerve?

Back 94

triceps brachii

Front 95

where is the radial nerve in the arm most susceptible to trauma?

Back 95

radial (spiral) groove on humerus

Front 96

what 3 muscles attach to the corocoid process of the scapula?

Back 96

pect minor, corocobrachialis, short head of the biceps brachii

Front 97

what is the name for the most common upper brachial plexus injury?

Back 97

Erbs Palsy

Front 98

what motions are lost that cause the final positioning of the upper limb in Erbs Palsy?

Back 98

flexion of elbow, lateral rotation of shoulder, some supination

Front 99

what are the likely circumstances which cause upper brachial plexus injuries?

Back 99

falls that increase the angle between the neck and shoulder, or difficult baby deliveries where the same space is stretched.

Front 100

what is the name of the highest axillary lymph nodes within the axilla?

Back 100

apical

Front 101

how does lymph from the axilla enter the circulation?

Back 101

the large veins in the root of the neck-near junction of internal jugular and subclavian veins

Front 102

what results in a Colle's fracture?

Back 102

common fracture of forearm in >50 yo due to forced dorsiflexion of the hand (FOOSH). distal radial styloid process will have complete transverse fracture with the fragment being displaced dorsally and often comminuted. Shortens radius and distal end and forms "dinner fork" deformity

Front 103

what vein is commonly used for venipuncture? where is it located?

Back 103

Median cubital vein
superficial to cubital fossa

Front 104

what is the primary (and most powerful) spinator of the forearm?

Back 104

biceps brachii of the flexed forearm; the supinator muscle supinates the forearm in the absence of resistance

Front 105

name the main flexor of the forearm.

Back 105

brachialis

Front 106

name the divisions of the brachial artery where it spilts at the region of the cubital fossa.

Back 106

radial and ulnar arteries

Front 107

list the nerves and their neuromusclar relationships in the forearm

Back 107

median nerve= 6.5 flexor muscles
ulnar nerve= 1.5 flexor muscles
radial nerve= all extensors plus the brachioradialis

Front 108

what is the characteristic clinical sign of a radial nerve injury at the level of the radial groove of the humerus?

Back 108

wrist drop

Front 109

what muscles flex the middle phalanges? the distal phalanges?

Back 109

flexor digitorum superficialis- proximal
flexor digitorum profundus-distal

Front 110

which muscle is the prime mover in pronation?

Back 110

pronator quadratus

Front 111

what nerve is compromised when a person has trouble pronating his forearm?

Back 111

median nerve

Front 112

list the muscles that extend and abduct or adduct the hand at the wrist joint. identify their main functions

Back 112

extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis (extend and abduct hand at wrist), extensor carpi ulnaris (extend and adduct hand at wrist)

Front 113

list the muscles that extend the medial four digits.

Back 113

extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi, extensor indicis

Front 114

list the muscles that extend or abduct the thumb

Back 114

extensor pollicis longus and brevis, abductor pollicis longus

Front 115

what prevents bowstringing of the extensor tendons when the hand is hyperextended?

Back 115

extensor retinaculum

Front 116

tingling sensations and pain on lateral side of hand is due to compression of what nerve? where does this nerve pass through to enter the hand?

Back 116

median nerve; runs through carpal tunnel

Front 117

what structures accompany the median nerve through the carpal tunnel?

Back 117

9 tendons
4 from FDS
4 from FDP
1 from FPL

Front 118

list the main arteries supplying the forearm muscles

Back 118

radial and ulnar arteries

Front 119

what nerve is at risk when then "funny bone" is hit or injured?

Back 119

ulnar nerve

Front 120

A knife wound on the palm at the level of the extended thumb injures what artery on the palm? this artery is the terminal continuation of what artery?

Back 120

superficial palmar arch
ulnar artery

Front 121

what is the radial pulse taken?

Back 121

lateral to the tendon of the flexor carpi radialis

Front 122

what are the 4 bones that unite to form the pelvic girdle?

Back 122

ilium, ischium, pubis, sacrum

Front 123

in the hip joint what is the name of the bony socket in which the head of the femur is located?

Back 123

acetabulum

Front 124

what is the deep fascia of the thigh called?

Back 124

fascia lata

Front 125

what is the deep fascia of the leg called?

Back 125

crural fascia

Front 126

is the greater saphenous vein located in the superficial fascia, or deep to the deep fascia?

Back 126

both the greater and less saphenous veins are in the superficial fascia

Front 127

into which large vein does the blood in the greater saphenous vein drain?

Back 127

the femoral vein

Front 128

when does the femoral artery become the popliteal artery?

Back 128

when passes distally through the adductor hiatus in the adductor magnus muscle

Front 129

what 2 ligaments transform the greater and lesser sciatic notches into the greater and lesser sciatic foremina?

Back 129

sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments

Front 130

which muscle is a major extensor of the thigh at the hip joint- especially when standing up from a squatting position or climbing the stairs?

Back 130

gluteus maximus

Front 131

what nerve innervated gluteus maximus?

Back 131

inferior gluteal nerve

Front 132

which 2 muscles are used to keep the pelvis level when a leg is raised in walking?

Back 132

gluteus medius and minimus

Front 133

what nerve innervated gulteus medius and minimus?

Back 133

superior gluteal nerve

Front 134

what is the name of the largest nerve found in the gluteal region?

Back 134

sciatic nerve

Front 135

the sciatic nerve emerges from beneath a small muscle in the gluteal region and then travels down across 5 other small or short gluteal muscles. what are their names?

Back 135

emerges from beneath the piriformis muscle and then travels superficial to the superior and inferior gemelli muscles, obturator internus and externus tendons and quadratus femoris muscle

Front 136

what is the major function of the piriformis, superior and inferior gemelli, obturator externus and internus and quadratus femoris muscles?

Back 136

as a group, these muscles are lateral rotators of the thigh at the hip joint. they also stabilize and steady the femoral head in the acetabulum

Front 137

what muscle does the lateral division of the sciatic nerve sometimes pierce?

Back 137

the piriformis muscle by the lateral or peroneal (fibular) division in about 12%

Front 138

what is the name of the group of large muscles found in the posterior thigh compartment?

Back 138

hamstrings

Front 139

what nerves innervated the hamstrings?

Back 139

tibial division of the sciatic nerve

Front 140

what bony structures serves as the superior attachment site (origin) for the hamstrings?

Back 140

ischial tuberosity

Front 141

which posterior thigh muscle does not originate from the ischial tuberosity?

Back 141

short head of the biceps femoris

Front 142

how do the hamstrings move the thigh? how do they move the leg?

Back 142

extend the thigh and flex the leg
can rotate leg medially (ss mm) and laterally (biceps)

Front 143

what vessel supplies the majority of blood to the posterior compartment of the thigh?

Back 143

profunda femoris via perforating branches

Front 144

what is major nerve of the anterior compartment of the thigh

Back 144

femoral nerve

Front 145

what is the major nerve of the medial compartment of the thigh?

Back 145

obturator nerve

Front 146

what is the major nerve of the posterior compartment of the thigh?

Back 146

tibial division of the sciatic nerve

Front 147

what nerve innervates the quadriceps muscle?

Back 147

femoral nerve

Front 148

what nerve innervates the adductor muscle?

Back 148

obturator nerve

Front 149

what are the boundaries of the femoral triangle?

Back 149

inguinal ligament, satorius muscle, and adductor longus muscle

Front 150

what is the relationship of the femoral vein, nerve, artery within the femoral triangle?

Back 150

NAVEL
lateral to medial
nerve-artery-vein-empty space-lymphatics

Front 151

what is the major function of the quadriceps?

Back 151

extension of the leg at the knee joint

Front 152

what muscle of the quadriceps can act at 2 different joints? what other anterior muscle can act at 2 different joints?

Back 152

rectus femoris of quads can act at knee or hip as can the sartorius muscle

Front 153

which artery supplies most of the blood to the neck and head of femur?

Back 153

medial femoral circumflex artery

Front 154

from what artery does the medial femoral circumflex artery arise?

Back 154

profunda femoris, sometimes the femoral artery itself

Front 155

what compartment of the thigh is the gracilis muscle located in?

Back 155

medial compartment

Front 156

which muscle is often included in the group of medial thigh muscles, but is actually a lateral rotator of the thigh? it can be found deep to the inferior gemellus and quadratus femoris muscles in gluteal region?

Back 156

obturator externus

Front 157

which anterior thigh compartment muscle is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve and helps to keep the knee extended?

Back 157

tensor fasciae latae muscle

Front 158

what muscle's tendon contains the largest sesamoid bone in the body?

Back 158

quadriceps tendon

Front 159

which muscle is the chief flexor of the thigh at the hip joint? it has a distal part that enters the anterior compartment of the thigh deep to the femoral nerve before inserting into the lesser trochanter.

Back 159

iliopsoas muscle

Front 160

which superficial, medial thigh muscle is such a relatively weak adductor of the thigh that surgeons can often transplant it without causing a significant deficit?

Back 160

gracilis muscle

Front 161

what term would describe an abnormal protusion of abdominal contents thru femoral canal?

Back 161

femoral hernia

Front 162

describe the general consequences of having a severely injured superior gluteal nerve

Back 162

it innervated the gluteus medius and minimus and the tensor fasciae latae. the 2 gluteus muscles prevent sagging and dipping of the unsupported side of the pelvis when walking. injury will result in impaired, disabling gait, called gluteal gait or dipping gait

Front 163

which are more common, hamstring strains or quadriceps strains?

Back 163

hamstring as twice as common

Front 164

which artery supplies the majority of the blood to the anterior compartment of the leg?

Back 164

anterior tibial artery

Front 165

which artery supplies the majority of the blood to the lateral compartment of the leg?

Back 165

peroneal artery

Front 166

which artery supplies the majority of the blood to the posterior compartment of the leg?

Back 166

posterior tibial artery

Front 167

which nerve supplies the muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg?

Back 167

deep peroneal nerve

Front 168

which nerve supplies the muscles in the lateral compartment of the leg?

Back 168

superficial peroneal nerve

Front 169

which nerve supplies the muscles in the posterior compartment of the leg?

Back 169

tibial nerve

Front 170

explain dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the foot at the ankle joint

Back 170

dorsiflexion: bring dorsal surface of foot upward
plantarflexion: push the sole of foot downward. when you strand on toes

Front 171

explain inversion and eversion

Back 171

inversion: turning foot inside or medial border of foot brought upward
eversion: turning foot outside or lateral border upward

Front 172

what is the most commonly injured nerve in the LE? where is the typical site of injury?

Back 172

common peroneal nerve; where it runs superficial over the lateral neck of fibula

Front 173

what condition results when the common peroneal nerve is severely injured?

Back 173

foot drop- loss of eversion

Front 174

which 3 muscles unit to form the calcaneal tendon (achilles)?

Back 174

soleus, lateral and medial gastrocnemius, plantaris

Front 175

which of the muscles that insert on Achilles tendon can commonly by absent?

Back 175

plantaris

Front 176

where are the muscles referred to as "tom, dick, and harry" located? what bony landmark are these muscles associated with?

Back 176

represents the 3 deep muscles of the post calf: Tibialis post, flexor Digitorum longus, flexor Hallucis longus. the tendons of these 3 muscles travel post to medial malleolus with the TP located closest to the malleolus.

Front 177

name 2 muscles that can evert the foot at the ankle joint

Back 177

peroneus longus and peoneus brevis

Front 178

name 2 muscles that can invert the foot at the ankle joint

Back 178

tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior

Front 179

name 2 superficial post leg compartment musscles that can powerfully plantarflex the foot at the ankle joint

Back 179

gastrocs and soleus

Front 180

name 2 muscles that can dorsiflex the foot at the ankle joint

Back 180

tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorium longus, peroneus tertius (if present)

Front 181

which small leg muscle can weakly flex the knee joint, but its main function is to "unlock" the knee joint as flexion is started

Back 181

popliteus muscle

Front 182

what is the strongest ligament in the body? at which joint is it located? what is its major function?

Back 182

iliofemoral ligament at the hip joint- helps prevent overextension at this joint, especially during standing

Front 183

which knee ligament is directly attached to the medial meniscus?

Back 183

medial collateral ligament

Front 184

the cruciate ligament of the knee are named for their attachment to what?

Back 184

tibia

Front 185

in the knee joint, what is the function of ACL?

Back 185

prevents post displacement of femur on tibia or ant displacement of tibia under femur

Front 186

which tarsal bones are involved in the ankle joint?

Back 186

talus

Front 187

what is the name of the strong ligament attached to the medial malleolus?

Back 187

deltoid ligament

Front 188

which ankle ligament is most commonly injured? is it a lateral or medial ankle ligament?

Back 188

anterior talofibular ligament on lateral side

Front 189

which primary motions occur at the ankle joint?

Back 189

dorsiflexion and platarflexion

Front 190

which primary motions occurr at the transverse tarsal and subtalar joint?

Back 190

inversion and eversion of foot

Front 191

which strong ligament deep in the medial sole of foot is located inferior to the head of the talus and helps maintain the longitudinal arch of the foot?

Back 191

the spring, or plantar calcaneonavicular ligament

Front 192

what general type of imaging would you use to detect a herniated disc in the vertebral column and at the same time assess the integrity of the spinal cord?

Back 192

MRI

Front 193

name the major anatomical elements of the Scotty Dog as seen in standard radiographs of vertebral column

Back 193

ear- superior articulating process
front leg- inferior articulating process
eye- pedicle
nose-transverse process
neck-pars interarticularis

Front 194

in what specific imaging modality does the cerebrospinal fluid appear intensely bright?

Back 194

T2-MRI

Front 195

what is the best imaging modality to view tears of the knee ligaments and menisci?

Back 195

MRI

Front 196

can MRI be useful to identify fractures of the long bones of the LE?

Back 196

yes

Front 197

currently what is the fastest and most economical modality used to determine if an individual might have a deep venous thrombus in the LE?

Back 197

ultrasound

Front 198

what are some of the potential disadvantages of ultrasound in locating DVT?

Back 198

US is blocked by bone so the progression of DVTs cannot be viewed well particularly if traveling to the pelvis

Front 199

name the carpal bones starting at the lateral side of each row.

Back 199

proximal: scaphoid, lunate, triquetrium, pisiform
distal: trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

Front 200

fracture of what carpal bone results in tenderness and pain in the snuffbox?

Back 200

scaphoid

Front 201

at what joints do pronation and supination occur?

Back 201

radioulnar joints

Front 202

name the muscles on the thenar eminence. what nerve innervated them?

Back 202

abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis.
innervated by recurrent branch of median nerve

Front 203

which tendons of the flexor forearm muscles attache to the middle phalanges of the non-thumb digits?

Back 203

tendons of FDS

Front 204

which artery gives rise to the superficial palmar arch? to the deep arch?

Back 204

superficial: ulnar artery
deep: radial palmar arch

Front 205

what structure is affected in the condition know as Dupuytren's contracture?

Back 205

palmar fascia and aponeurosis

Front 206

name the muscles that are primarily responsible for this action:
oppostion of thumb

Back 206

opponens pollicis

Front 207

name the muscles that are primarily responsible for this action:
abduction of non-thumb digits

Back 207

dorsal interossei

Front 208

name the muscles that are primarily responsible for this action:
adduction of non-thumb digits

Back 208

palmar interossei

Front 209

name the muscles that are primarily responsible for this action:
flexion of MP joints

Back 209

lumbricals

Front 210

name the muscles that are primarily responsible for this action:
extension of IP joints

Back 210

lumbricals and interossei

Front 211

name the muscles that are primarily responsible for this action:
flexion of DIP joints

Back 211

flexor digitorium profundus

Front 212

name the muscles that are primarily responsible for this action:
flexion of PIP joints

Back 212

flexor digitorum superficialis

Front 213

what nerve innervates the majority of the intrinsic muscle of the hand? what intrinsic muscles does it not innervate?

Back 213

ulnar nerve except for thenar muscles and lumbricals 1 and 2

Front 214

what nerve supplies cutaneous sensation to the tip of the thumb? to the tip of the middle finger? to the tip of the little finger?

Back 214

median nerve
median nerve
ulnar nerve

Front 215

name the nerve that is injured in a wrist drop

Back 215

radial nerve

Front 216

name the nerve that is injured in a clawhand?

Back 216

ulnar nerve

Front 217

name the nerve that is injured in a hand of benediction?

Back 217

median nerve

Front 218

name the nerve that is injured in an ape hand?

Back 218

median nerve

Front 219

name the nerve that is injured in carpal tunnel syndrome?

Back 219

median nerve

Front 220

what nerve does not supply any intrinsic hand muscles? what area does it supply in the hand?

Back 220

radial nerve; it supplies sensory innervation to the dorsolateral side of the hand

Front 221

what type of injury is often called a "shoulder separation?"

Back 221

dislocation of AC joint

Front 222

what ligament surrounds the head of radius?

Back 222

anular ligament

Front 223

what condition results in inflammation of the synovial sheaths, which enclose the tendons of the forearm muscles traveling over the phalanges?

Back 223

tenosynovitis

Front 224

excessive extension and lateral rotation of the humerus results in dislocation of what joint?

Back 224

glenohumeral joint

Front 225

what nerve may be damaged in an injury to glenohumeral joint?

Back 225

axillary nerve

Front 226

if a patient cannot flex DIP joint of the digit held in the extended position, what muscle tendon is damaged?

Back 226

flexor digitorum profundus

Front 227

inability to oppose the thumb is due to injury to what nerve? what muscle is damaged?

Back 227

recurrent branch of median nerve
opponens pollicis

Front 228

damage to the ulnar nerve weakened adduction of the non-thumb digits. what muscles were affected?

Back 228

palmar interossei