Ut Houston Med Developmental Anatomy Final 2008

Front 1

Cells of the embryoblast (inner cell mass) can develop into __ and thus are ___?

Back 1

Any cell of the embryo, but not trophoblast cells, thus they are pluripotent

Front 2

What is the first microscopically visible sign of the cranio-caudal body axis?

Back 2

The prechordal plate

Front 3

What is a sarcococcygeal teratoma?

Back 3

A remnant of the pluripotential primitive streak remains and causes a tumor with many types of tissues. (most common tumor in newborns)

Front 4

What is the adult remnant of the notochord?

Back 4

nucleus pulposus

Front 5

Where does neural tube fusion begin and which direction does it proceed?

Back 5

begins in the cervical region and proceeds cranially AND caudally

Front 6

What does intermediate mesoderm form?

Back 6

urinary system and part of the genital system

Front 7

What does somatic mesoderm form?

Back 7

along with ectoderm: the body wall, parts of the limbs, most of the dermis

Front 8

what does splanchnic mesoderm form?

Back 8

coverings of visceral organs

Front 9

Before embryonic folding, where is the cardiogenic area located?

Back 9

in front (caudal to) of the neural tube and oropharyngeal membrane

Front 10

The adult remnant of the pleuropericardial folds is the ___?

Back 10

fibrous pericardium

Front 11

The adult remnant of the septum transversum is the ___?

Back 11

Central tendon of the diaphragm

Front 12

The adult remnant of the pleuroperitoneal folds is the ___?

Back 12

Postero-lateral musculature of the diaphragm

Front 13

The crura of the diaphragm is the adult remnant of what?

Back 13

the mesentery of the esophagus

Front 14

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia affects the ___ aspect of the diaphragm, which is derived from ___?

Back 14

The posterior-lateral portion derived from the pleuroperitoneal membrane

Front 15

Eventration results from ___ and has ___ affects?

Back 15

results from faulty muscle development and produces a thin diaphragm that balloons superiorly into the thorax

Front 16

Name the four periods of lung development? During which stage does surfactant start being produced (coincides with the earliest possible time for viable birth)?

Back 16

4 periods: 1. Pseudoglandular 2. Canalicular 3. Terminal Sac 4. Alveolar; Canalicular stage is when surfactant starts

Front 17

Arrange these in order of blood flow: ventricle, truncus arteriosus, aortic sac and arches, atrium, bulbus cordis, sinus venosus

Back 17

sinus venosus -> atrium -> ventricle -> bulbus cordis -> truncus arteriosus -> aortic sac &arches

Front 18

After looping, which parts of the primordial heart are found anterior?

Back 18

ventricle, bulbus cordis, and truncus arteriosus

Front 19

The adult remnant of the fetal atria are the __?

Back 19

auricular appendages

Front 20

The left sinus venosus becomes the ___?

Back 20

coronary sinus

Front 21

What forms the majority of the smooth adult left atrium?

Back 21

incorporation of the pulmonary veins

Front 22

The smaller membranous portion of the adult interventricular septum is formed by what?

Back 22

aorticopulmonary septum

Front 23

The aorticopulmonary septum is formed by what cell population?

Back 23

neural crest

Front 24

1st aortic arch forms

Back 24

portions of the maxillary and external carotid arteries

Front 25

2nd aortic arch forms

Back 25

stapedial artery

Front 26

3rd aortic arch forms

Back 26

common carotid and portions of the internal carotid arteries

Front 27

4th aortic arch forms

Back 27

aortic arch on left and proximal subclavian artery on right

Front 28

5th aortic arch

Back 28

rudimentary

Front 29

6th aortic arch

Back 29

portions of right and left pulmonary arteries, and ductus arteriosus

Front 30

The adult derivatives of the vitelline veins are:

Back 30

1. Portal system of veins
2. Hepatic sinusoids and veins
3. Portion of Inferior Vena Cava

Front 31

The left umbilical vein empties into the ___ in the fetus which becomes ___ in the adult.

Back 31

ductus venosus, ligamentum venosum

Front 32

The adult derivative of the left umbilical vein is the ___

Back 32

round ligament of the liver

Front 33

The adult derivatives of the anterior cardinal vein are:

Back 33

superior vena cava, jugular, and brachiocephalic vein

Front 34

Four sources of the IVC are:

Back 34

1. right supracardinal
2. sub and supra cardinal anastomosis
3. right subcardinal
4. right vitelline

Front 35

The thoracic duct is formed by:

Back 35

The caudal portion of the right duct, the anastomis, and the cranial portion of the left fetal duct

Front 36

The three fetal blood shunts are:

Back 36

1. ductus venosus- liver bypass
2. foramen ovale- IVC -> RA -> LA
3. ductus arteriosus SVC-> RA->RV->DA->aorta

Front 37

Turners syndrome commonly causes what CHD?

Back 37

postductal coarctation

Front 38

1/3 of persons with Downs sydrome have what CHD?

Back 38

primum type ASD aka peristent atrioventricular canal

Front 39

What is more common, membranous VSD or Muscular VSD?

Back 39

membranous

Front 40

What are the four classic malformations in Tetralogy of Fallot?

Back 40

1. Pulmonary artery stenosis
2. VSD
3. Overriding Aorta
4. Right ventricular hypertrophy

Front 41

What type of aortic coarctation is compatible with extrauterine life and why?

Back 41

postductal coarctation b/c collateral circulation develops during the fetal period

Front 42

A machinery like murmur is common in what CHD?

Back 42

Patent ductus arteriosus

Front 43

How do transcription factors activate transcription?

Back 43

They bind co-activators or mediators that acetylate histone tails and cause them to decondense.

Front 44

What do mutations in the TFIIH gene cause?

Back 44

extreme skin sensitivity to sunlight

Front 45

Wilms Tumor protein WT1 codes for what and its mutation causes what?

Back 45

codes a repressor in the developing kidney; mutation cause kidney tumors

Front 46

TGF-Beta superfamily includes what and is important in forming what body axis?

Back 46

1.TGF-B's, BMP's, activin, and nodal
2.dorsal ventral axis

Front 47

BMP-4 induces expression of what tissue layer

Back 47

epidermis

Front 48

Noggin, chordin, and follistatin do what

Back 48

prevent BMP-4 binding and allow ectoderm to differentiate into neural cells

Front 49

Retinoic acid is critical for formation of what body axis?

Back 49

rostral caudal

Front 50

Cerberus protein promotes formation of what structures? Blocks function of what?

Back 50

Head structures
Blocks Wnt8 and BMP4

Front 51

Cholesterol is important for the function of what secreted protein?

Back 51

Sonic Hedghog

Front 52

Secreted factor important in dorsal-ventral axis formation

Back 52

SHH

Front 53

What secreted factor is noted as being critical for angiogenesis?

Back 53

VEGF

Front 54

Ventromedial portion of the somites forms what?

Back 54

sclerotome; vertebrae and ribs

Front 55

Dorsolateral portion of the somites forms what?

Back 55

myoblasts and dermis; dermomyotome

Front 56

membranous Neurocranium forms what?

Back 56

flat bones of the calvaria

Front 57

cartilaginous Neurocranium forms what bones?

Back 57

base of skull: body of sphenoid, ethmoid, lesser wing of sphenoid, petrous and mastoid parts of temporal bone

Front 58

mebranous Viscerocranium forms what?

Back 58

maxilla, zygomatic bone, mandibular process

Front 59

Cartilaginous Viscerocranium forms what?

Back 59

malleus, incus, stapes, styloid process, hyoid bone, laryngeal cartilages

Front 60

What secreted factors influence sclerotome development and from where are they secreted?

Back 60

SHH and noggin; notochord/floor plate

Front 61

What gene is important in formation of the vertebrae from sclerotome?

Back 61

PAX1

Front 62

FGF10 is important for what?

Back 62

initiates outgrowth of the limb bud

Front 63

What does the zone of polarizing activity produce and what does it do?

Back 63

produces RA which initiates expression of SHH and controls Anterior Posterior axis

Front 64

pia and arachnoid are formed from ___ cell line whereas dura is formed from___

Back 64

neural crest; mesoderm

Front 65

sulcus limitans separates what two parts of the neural tube

Back 65

basal plate (efferent neurons) and alar plate (afferent sensory, somatic and visceral neurons)

Front 66

neural crest cells that form dorsal ganglia have and neural crest cells that make up sympathetic ganglia have two different migration patterns, what are they?

Back 66

1.precursors of dorsal root gangllia stay at same rostral-caudal level
2. sympathetic precursors migrate 2-3 somite lengths rostral or caudal

Front 67

dienchepalon gives rise to what

Back 67

hypothalamus, thalamus, epithalamus, posterior hypophysis, eye

Front 68

mesencephalon gives rise to what

Back 68

midbrain

Front 69

metencephalon gives rise to what

Back 69

pons and cerbellum

Front 70

myelencephalon gives rise to what

Back 70

medulla oblongata

Front 71

telencephalon gives rise to what

Back 71

cerebral hemispheres

Front 72

What fetal brain flexure is seen in the adult?

Back 72

midbrain flexure

Front 73

how are layers 1-6 of the neocortex ordered?

Back 73

1,6,5,4,3,2

Front 74

cobblestone lissencephaly is caused by what?

Back 74

overmigration of neurons

Front 75

what happens in periventricular heterotopia

Back 75

neurons fail to begin the process of migration

Front 76

where does adult neurogenesis occur?

Back 76

olfactory bulb and hippocampus

Front 77

name two ways in vivo that a modulator of neurogenesis affect the levels of new neurons

Back 77

1. changes level of proliferation
2. the effect is on survival of new neurons

Front 78

onuf's nucleus, a sexually dimorphic region does what?

Back 78

innervates penile musculature

Front 79

mutations that cause Pallister Hall syndrome (PHS) affect what family of secreted factors?

Back 79

Hedghog family; reduce the transcriptional activation of HH pathway targets

Front 80

hook em horns sign on brain CT indicates what?

Back 80

agenesis of corpus callosum (septum pellucidum)

Front 81

reelin does what

Back 81

induces radial neuronal migration

Front 82

optic nerve is myelinated by ___ type of cell, because it is really ___

Back 82

oligodendrocyte, a tract of the CNS

Front 83

what forms the epithelium of the iris? the stroma? the sphincter and dilator muscles?

Back 83

epithelium and muscles- both layers of optic cup (neuroectoderm) continuous with pigmented and nonpigmented retina
stroma- neural crest

Front 84

what supplies the developing lens with nutrients and what happens to these structures at birth?

Back 84

hyaloid artery and tunica vasculosa lentis both degenerate

Front 85

layers of the cornea come from what cell populations?

Back 85

epithelium- surface ectoderm
middle layer- mesoderm
endothelium- neural crest

Front 86

what is the key regulatory gene for eye development and how is it regulated to prevent cyclopia?

Back 86

PAX6

-SHH -> pax2 downregulates pax6

Front 87

what cell populations form the tympanic membrane>

Back 87

ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm form the 3 layers

Front 88

retinopathy of prematurity is caused by what?

Back 88

premature birth causes termination of formation of inner retinal vessels; can result in blindness

Front 89

transcription factor that causes corneal opacity, color deficiency, deafness, and cysts of the lining of the 3rd and 4th ventricles

Back 89

VSX1/RINX

Front 90

transcription factor that causes corneal opacities, anterior synechiae with secondary glaucoma, abnormal teeth and umbilicus

Back 90

PITX1/RIEG1

Front 91

transcription factor that causes congenital glaucoma by formation of abnormal trabecular meshwork

Back 91

GLC3A

Front 92

Branchial arch 1- (think M)
name the nerve, muscles, cartilages, pouch, groove, and membrane structures

Back 92

CNV
Mm of Mastication, Mylohyoid, Ant. digastric, tensors veli palatini and tympani; malleus, incus; pouch, groove and membrane form external and middle ear

Front 93

Branchial arch 2 (think S)
nerve muscles cartilages pouch

Back 93

CNVII
Mm of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid, post. digastric; stapes, styloid process, part of hyoid; tonsillar sinus

Front 94

Branchial arch 3
nerve muscles cartilages pouch

Back 94

CN IX
sylopharyngeus
part of hyoid
inf. parathyroid, thymus

Front 95

Branchial arch 4 and 6
nerves muscles cartilages pouch

Back 95

superior laryngeal (4) and recurrent laryngeal (6) nerves
cricothyroid and intrinsic larynx muscles; superior parathyroid; parafollicular cells of thyroid

Front 96

where are the openings for a branchial fistula

Back 96

tonsillar sinus and side of neck

Front 97

Branchial arch 1- (think M)
name the nerve, muscles, cartilages, pouch, groove, and membrane structures

Back 97

CNV
Mm of Mastication, Mylohyoid, Ant. digastric, tensors veli palatini and tympani; malleus, incus; pouch, groove and membrane form external and middle ear

Front 98

Branchial arch 2 (think S)
nerve muscles cartilages pouch

Back 98

CNVII
Mm of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid, post. digastric; stapes, styloid process, part of hyoid; tonsillar sinus

Front 99

Branchial arch 3
nerve muscles cartilages pouch

Back 99

CN IX
sylopharyngeus
part of hyoid
inf. parathyroid, thymus

Front 100

Branchial arch 4 and 6
nerves muscles cartilages pouch

Back 100

superior laryngeal (4) and recurrent laryngeal (6) nerves
cricothyroid and intrinsic larynx muscles; superior parathyroid; parafollicular cells of thyroid

Front 101

where are the openings for a branchial fistula

Back 101

tonsillar sinus and side of neck

Front 102

where are the openings for a second arch fistula

Back 102

passes between carotids and exits deep to platysma

Front 103

where are the openings for a third arch fistula

Back 103

pierces thyrohyoid and goes posterior to carotid

Front 104

where is the opening for an external sinus typically found

Back 104

anterior border of scm; discharges mucous

Front 105

Defects of lower eyelids and deformed ears you think:

Back 105

treacher collins

Front 106

why should you never prescribe tetracycline to a child under age 8?

Back 106

b/c it disrupts tooth formation which is completed by about age 8

Front 107

anterior 2/3 of tongue is formed from what branchial arch? posterior 2/3? innervations?

Back 107

anterior 2/3 from 1st arch; general sensation CNV special CNVII(chorda tympani)
posterior 2/3 from 3rd mostly and 4th arch special sensory and gen. by CN IX except on epiglottis CNX