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426 Cards in this Set

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What are the parts of the General Description of the Psychiatric Patient?
Appearance: grooming, poise, clothes, body type (disheveled, neat). Behavior: quantitative and qualitative aspects of the patient?s motor behavior (restless, tics). Attitude toward the examiner: (cooperative, frank, and seductive).
What is the Definition of Mood?
A sustained emotion. Mood is a pervasive and sustained emotional "climate." Types of mood include: dysphoric, elevated, euthymic, expansive, irritable, depression, anger, and anxiety.
What is Affect?
Behavior that expression of a subjectively experienced emotion. Affect refers to fluctuating changes in emotional "weather." Types of affect include: euthymic, irritable, constricted; blunted; flat; inappropriate, and labile.
What is Appropriateness of Behavior?
Suitability or compatibility of behavior in reference to the context of the situation (appropriate or inappropriate).
What are the Aspects of Speech?
The physical characteristics of speech (relevant, coherent, fluent, excitable).
What are the three types of Perceptual Disturbances?
The three broad types of perceptual disturbances are hallucinations, pseudohallucinations and illusions.
What are the Elements of Thought?
Form of thought, which includes the way in which a person thinks (flight of ideas, loose associations, tangentiality, circumstantiality).
What is Content of Thought?
Topic of thought that the person is actually thinking about, such as delusions, paranoia, or suicidal ideas.
What are the Elements of Sensorium and Cognition?
Alertness, orientation, memory, concentration and attention, capacity to read and write, visuospatial ability, abstract thinking, fund of information.
What tests are used to evaluate Concentration and Attention?
Serial sevens and ability to spell backwards.
How is Visuospatial Ability tested?
The capacity to visually perceive the spatial relationship between objects, such as the ability to draw two overlapping pentagons.
How is Abstract Thinking tested?
The ability to reduce the information to a concept, such as interpretation of proverbs (eg, known truths, social norms, or moral values).
How is Fund of Information and Knowledge tested?
Calculating ability, naming of past presidents.
How is Judgment and Insight assessed?
By the ability to act appropriately and self-reflect, such as making sound, appropriate, and reasonable decisions.
What is the Id?
The id consists of the drives (instincts) that are present at birth. There are two drives: sex and aggression.
What is the Ego?
Defense mechanisms, judgment, relation to reality, object relationships. The ego is developed shortly after birth.
What is the Superego?
Superego is the conscience, formed during latency period. Superego is the part of the unconscious that is formed through internalization of the moral standards of parents and society. Superego censors and restrains ego.
What are defense mechanisms?
The methods that the ego uses to ward off anxiety and control instinctive urges and unpleas-ant affects (emotions). Defense mechanisms are: unconscious (except suppression), discrete, dynamic and irreversible, and adaptive and maladaptive.
What are some types of defense mechanisms?
Denial, repression, and suppression, projection, splitting, blocking, regression.
What is projection?
Attributing one?s own wishes, thoughts, or feelings to someone else, such as attributing one?s own feeling to the weather, the government, or other people.
What is denial?
The avoidance of becoming aware of some painful aspect of reality, which is unpleasant.
What is splitting?
External objects are divided into all good or all bad, such as idealizing people and devaluing them in relationships. The patient doesn?t realize that there is both good and bad in each person.
What is blocking?
Blocking is the cessation of thought to avoid confronting an unpleasant idea, such as a married woman who forgets the name of her new boss because she has an uncomfortable attraction.
What is regression?
Return to an earlier stage of development, usually an immature stage.
What is romatization?
Psychic derivatives are converted into bodily symptoms, such as chronic pain, problems with the digestive or nervous systems, and irritable bowel syndrome.
What is introjection?
Features of the external world are taken and made part of the self, such as when a child envelops representational images of his absent parents into himself, simultaneously fusing them with his own personality.
What is displacement?
An emotion or drive is shifted to another that resembles the original in some aspect, such as a person punching cushions when angry or getting angry at a friend when he is actually upset about an exam grade.
What is repression?
An idea or feeling is withheld from consciousness, such as unconscious forgetting.
What is intellectualization?
Excessive use of intellectual processes to avoid affective expression or experience.
What is isolation?
Separation of an idea from the affect that accompanies it.
What is rationalization?
Rational explanations are used to justify unacceptable attitudes, beliefs, or behaviors.
What is reaction formation?
An unacceptable impulse is transformed into an emotion that is opposite. It is a defensive process in which anxiety-producing or unacceptable emotions and impulses are mastered by exaggeration of the directly opposing tendency.
What is undoing?
Acting out the reverse of an unacceptable behavior, such as ?I need to wash my hands whenever I have these thoughts.?
What is sublimation?
Impulse gratification is achieved by changing the aim or object from unacceptable to an acceptable form; allows instincts to be channeled. Examples are altruism, anticipation, humor, identification, and introjection.
What is suppression?
Conscious forgetting, such ways as refusing to talk about a traumatic event until some time afterwards; only conscious defense mechanism.
What is dissociation?
Splitting off of the brain from conscious awareness, such as trauma or drugs, which allows the mind to distance itself from experiences that are too much for the psyche to process at that time.
What is the intelligence quotient (IQ)?
Measures academic performance, which is derived from one of several different standardized tests designed to assess intelligence.
What is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)?
A personality test that uses an empirical keying approach, which means that the clinical scales were derived by selecting items endorsed by patients known to have been diagnosed with certain pathologies.
What are projective tests?
Used for ambiguous stimuli, revealing hidden emotions and internal conflicts. Testing includes: Rorschach test (inkblot), Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), sentence completion, drawings.
What is the objective of neuropsychologic tests?
Used to distinguish organic neurologic disorders from psychiatric disorders: Bender-Gestalt, Luria-Nebraska, Halted-Reitan.
What are the theories on human development by Erik Erikson?
Erikson believed that human personality was determined by childhood and adult experiences. His theory of human development covers infancy to old age. Stages are determined by cri-ses, which are the turning points of the stages.
What is Stage 1 of Erikson?s Theory of Human Development?
Basic Trust versus Mistrust (birth to 1 year). Infants develop a feeling of trust that their wants will be satisfied; if the parent is not atten-tive, the infant will learn to mistrust.
What is Stage 2 of Erikson?s Theory of Human Development?
Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt (1 to 3 years). Children have a sense of mastery over themselves and their drives. They can be coop-erative or stubborn. Children gain a sense of their separateness from others.
What is Stage 3 of Erikson?s Theory of Human Development?
Initiative versus Guilt (3 to 5 years). Initiative stimulants motor and intellectual activity. Sexual curiosity is present; sibling rivalry.
What is Stage 4 of Erikson?s Theory of Human Development?
Industry versus Inferiority (6 to 11 years). The child enters a program of learning and becomes able to work and acquire adult skills. Children learn that they are able to master and complete a task.
What is Stage 5 of Erikson?s Theory of Human Development?
Identity versus Role Diffusion (11 years through end of adolescence). Group identity develops and there is a preoccupation with appearances. Adolescent learns to deal with morality and ethics.
What is Stage 6 of Erikson?s Theory Of Human Development?
Intimacy versus Isolation (21 to 40 years). There is development of intimacy of sexual relations, friendships. The person learns to care and share with others without fear of losing self.
What is Stage 7 of Erikson?s Theory Of Human Development?
Generativity versus Stagnation (40 to 65 years). The individual deals with raising children as well as other interests outside the home. If childless, there is the development of altruism and creativity.
What Is Stage 8 of Erikson?s Theory Of Human Development?
Integrity versus Despair (over 65 years). The individual attains a sense of satisfaction with one?s life. Allows for an acceptance of one?s place in the life cycle.
What was the primary belief of Jean Piaget?
Piaget believed that intelligence was an extension of biologic adaptation and had a logical struc-ture. His theory consisted on how children and adolescents think and acquire knowledge.
What is Stage 1 of Piaget?s theory of when children (birth to 2 years) acquire knowledge?
Sensorimotor Stage. Infants begin to learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment. Object permanence is achieved.
What is stage 2 of Piaget?s theory of when children (2-7 years) acquire knowledge?
The child uses symbols and language more extensively. Children are egocentric, use ani-mistic thinking, and have a sense of immanent justice. Death is reversible. There is a lack the law of conservation.
What is Stage 3 of Piaget?s theory of when children (7-11 years) acquire knowledge
Egocentricity is replaced by operational thought; therefore, they can see things in other?s perspective. The law of conservation is understood, and death is understood to be irreversible at age 10.
What is Stage 4 of Piaget?s theory of when children (age 11 to the end of adolescents) acquire knowledge?
Ability to think abstractly, reason deductively, and define concepts. Characterized by hypothetical thinking and deductive reasoning.
What did Sigmund Freud believe regarding children?s sex drives?
Freud believed that children were influenced by sexual drives. He noted that infants were capable of sexual activity from birth, the initial stages being nongenital.
What is the oral stage of Freud?s theory of children?s sex drive?
Birth to 18 months. The mouth is the main site of gratification and is manifested by chewing, biting, and sucking.
What is the anal stage of Freud?s theory of children?s sex drive?
1 to 3 years. The anus is the main site of gratification. If harsh toilet training, may become anally fixated, resulting in obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.
What is the phallic stage 3 of Freud?s theory of children?s sex drive?
3 to 5 years. The genital area is the main site of gratification. Penis envy and fear of castration occur during this stage. Increase in genital masturbation with fantasies involving the opposite-sex parent, resulting in the oedipal complex.
What is the latency stage 4 of Freud?s theory of children?s sex drive?
5-11 years. Formation of the superego, resolution of the Oedipal complex. Sexual interests dur-ing this period are quiescent. There is sublimation of sexual energy into ener-getic learning and play activities.
What is Freud?s theory of children?s sex drive?
Genital stage (11 years to adulthood). Capacity for true intimacy.
What is mental retardation?
Significantly subaverage intellectual function (IQ less than 70), as mea-sured by a variety of IQ tests, accompanied by concurrent impairment in adapting to demands in various environments. The onset is before 18 years of age.
What are risk factors for mental retardation?
Inborn errors of metabolism, chro-mosomal abnormalities. Rubella, CMV, other viruses. Exposure to toxins, alcohol, hypoxia, malnutrition. Postnatal toxins/infection, poor prenatal care, heavy metals, trauma, social deprivation.
What is the prevalence of mental retardation?
1% of the population. Occurs at a 1.5:1 male-to-female ratio.
What is mild retardation?
IQ of 50-70. Academic skills can be attained to sixth-grade level. Often live independently or with minimal supervision. May have problems with impulse control, self-esteem and may have con-duct disorders, substance-related disorders, ADHD.
What is moderate retardation?
IQ 35-50. Academic skills can be attained to a second-grade level; may be able to manage activities of daily living; live in residential community settings; problems conforming to social norms.
What is severe retardation?
Severe (IQ 20-35) and profound retardation (IQ less than 20): Little or no speech. Very limited abilities to manage self-care; requires highly supervised care settings.
What are the diagnostic test abnormalities in Mental Retardation?
Amniocentesis: May reveal chromosomal abnormalities associated with mental retardation in high-risk pregnancies (mother >35 years of age).
What is the treatment of mental retardation?
Special education techniques may improve ultimate level of function. Behavioral guidance and attention to promoting self-esteem may improve long-term emotional adjustment.
What is the differential diagnosis of mental retardation?
Includes learning and communication disorders, sensory impairment, autistic disorder, borderline intellectual functioning (IQ 70-100), and environmental deprivation.
What are learning disorders?
Learning achievement substantially below expectations, given the patient?s age, intelligence, sensory abilities, and educational experience. Types are reading disorder (most common), mathematics disorder, and disorder of written expression.
What are the causes of learning disorders?
Caused by general medical conditions, such as cerebral palsy, lead poisoning, and fetal alcohol syndrome. Many cases have no obvious etiology.
What is the prevalence of mental retardation?
5% of school-age children.
What is the usual age of diagnosis of mental retardation?
Diagnosed during elementary school. Motor problems may be present. Conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, ADHD may be present. School failure and behavioral disturbances may occur.
What diagnostic tests are used for mental retardation?
IQ testing and academic achievement tests are the major diagnostic tools.
What is the differential diagnosis of learning disorders?
Environmental deprivation, hearing or vision impairment, and mental retardation.
What is Autistic Disorder?
Qualitative impairments in social interaction, communication, imaginative activities, and interests.
What are the causes of Autistic Disorder?
CNS damage caused by known or unknown factors. Medical con-ditions associated with autistic disorder include encephalitis, maternal rubella, PKU, tuberous sclerosis, fragile X syndrome, perinatal anoxia. Etiology unknown.
What is the prevalence of Autistic Disorder?
0.04% of the general population. Occurs at a 5:1 male-to-female ratio. Onset of autistic disorders. Before 3 years of age.
What are social symptoms of Autistic Disorder?
Lack of peer relationships and a failure to use nonverbal social cues.
What are communicative symptoms of Autistic Disorder?
Absent or bizarre use of speech.
What are behavioral symptoms of autistic disorders?
Odd preoccupation with repetitive activities, bizarre manner-isms, and rigid adherence to purposeless ritual. Mental retardation is present in 75% of patients with autistic disorder.
What are the physical findings of Autistic Disorder?
Higher incidence of abnormal electroencephalograms, sei-zures, and abnormal brain morphology. Self-injuries caused by head banging or biting are sometimes present.
What is the disease course of Autistic Disorder?
30% of individuals with autistic disorder become semi-inde-pendent in adulthood, but almost all have severe disabilities. Predictors of a poor outcome are mental retardation and failure to develop speech. Seizures in 25%.
What is the treatment of Autistic Disorder?
Family counseling, special education, and newer antipsy-chotic medications to control episodes of severe agitation or self-destructive behavior.
What is the differential diagnosis of Autistic Disorder?
Major rule-outs are mental retardation, hearing impairment, environ-mental deprivation, selective mutism, Rett syndrome, and Asperger syndrome.
What is Attention-Deficit-Hyperactivity Disorder?
Inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that interfere with social or academic function. Symptoms last for at least 6 months, and onset before 7 y. Symptoms in multiple settings.
What are the risk factors for Attention-Deficit-Hyperactivity Disorder?
No specific etiology has been identified. Other CNS pathology and disadvantaged family and school situations are sometimes present.
What is the prevalence of Attention-Deficit-Hyperactivity Disorder?
5% of school-age children. 9:1 male-to-female ratio. Family history of mood and anxiety disorders, substance-related disorders, and antiso-cial-personality disorder.
What is the onset of Attention-Deficit-Hyperactivity Disorder?
Usually first recognized when the child enters school, and symptoms usually persist throughout childhood. ADHD persists into adulthood in 30% of affected indi-viduals.
What are the symptoms of Attention-Deficit-Hyperactivity Disorder?
Short attention span, fidgeting, inability to sit still, inability to wait in lines, failure to stay quiet or sit still in class, disobedience, shunning by peers, fighting, poor academic performance, carelessness, poor relationships with siblings.
What coexisting conditions are associated with Attention-Deficit-Hyperactivity Disorder?
Low self-esteem, mood lability, conduct disorder, learning disorders, motor skills disorder, communication disorders, drug abuse, school failure, and physical trauma as a result of impulsivity.
What are the diagnostic tests of Attention-Deficit-Hyperactivity Disorder?
IQ tests and various structured symptom-rating scales are often used by teachers and parents.
What is the differential diagnosis of Attention-Deficit-Hyperactivity Disorder?
Major rule-outs are age-appropriate behavior, response to environ-mental problems, mental retardation, autistic disorder, and mood disorders.
What is the treatment of Attention-Deficit-Hyperactivity Disorder?
Multiple-sensory modalities for teaching, instructions that are short and frequently repeated, immediate reinforcement for learning, and minimization of distractions. Methylphenidate (Ritalin), other amphetamines, antidepressants, and clonidine.
What is Conduct Disorder?
Persistent violations in four areas: aggression, property destruction, deceitfulness or theft, and rules.
What are the risk factors for Conduct Disorder?
Genetic influences play a role by affecting temperament. Stressful family and school environments have been implicated. Prevalence is 10% of school-age children. Occurs at a 9:1 male-to-female ratio.
What is the onset of Conduct Disorder?
Most often during late childhood or early adolescence.
What is the course Conduct Disorder?
In most individuals, the symptoms gradually remit.
What are the symptoms of conduct disorder?
Bullying, fighting, cruelty to people or animals, rape, vandalism, fire-setting, theft, robbery, running away, and/or school truancy.
What are the complications of Conduct Disorder?
Substance-related disorders and school failures.
What are the outcomes of Conduct Disorder?
Often, antisocial personality disorder, somatoform disorders, depressive disorders, and substance-related disorders.
What is the differential diagnosis of Conduct Disorder?
Major rule-outs are environmental problems, ADHD, and oppositional defiant disorder.
What is the treatment of Conduct Disorder?
Healthy group identity and role models are provided by structured sports pro-grams and other programs. Structured-living settings that place value on group identification and cooperation are useful.
What is Oppositional Defiant Disorder?
Persistent pattern of negativistic, hostile, and defiant behaviors toward adults, including arguments, temper outbursts, vindictiveness, and deliberate annoyance.
What are the causes of Oppositional Defiant Disorder?
High reactivity and increased motor behavior are may predispose to this disorder. Inconsistent or poor parenting may also contribute. 10% of school-age children. Occurs at a 1:1 male-to-female ratio.
What is the onset of Oppositional Defiant Disorder?
Usually in latency (6 years to puberty) or early adolescence and may start gradually. Onset later in girls.
What problems are associated with Oppositional Defiant Disorder?
Family conflict and school failure, low self-esteem and mood lability, early onset of substance abuse, ADHD and learning disorders. Family conflict often escalates after the onset of symptoms.
What is Child Enuresis?
Disorder characterized by repeated voiding of urine into clothes or bed in a child at least 5 years of age. Diagnosed only if the behavior is not caused by a medi-cal condition.
What are the causes of Child Enuresis?
Current psychologic stress, family history of enuresis, and urinary tract infections.
What is the prevalence of Child Enuresis?
3% of children aged 10. Slightly more common in boys. May occur only at night, only during daytime, or both.
What is the treatment of Child Enuresis?
Appropriate toilet training and avoiding large amounts of fluids before bed, decrease emotional stressors, and rewarding the child with praise for a dry bed. A bell-pad apparatus is sometimes used. Imipramine and desmopressin (DDAVP).
What is Stranger Anxiety?
Stranger anxiety: Fear of strangers in unfamiliar contexts that is present from 8 months to 2 years of age.
What is Separation Anxiety?
Fear of separation from the caregiver that is present from approximately 1 to 3 years of age.
What factors predispose to Normal Childhood Anxiety?
Excessively close-knit families, excessive expectations of children, and innate temperamental anxiety all predispose.
What is the prevalence of Normal Childhood Anxiety?
Five percent of school-age children.
What are the symptoms of Normal Childhood Anxiety?
Physical complaints: stomachaches and malaise, fears. nightmares, various phobias such as school phobia and fear of animals or the dark, difficulty sleeping, and self-mutilation such as scratching, nail-biting, and hair-pulling.
What is the treatment of Normal Childhood Anxiety?
Cognitive behavioral therapy is useful to decrease anxiety in older children. SSRIs and benzodiazepines are useful.
What are complications of Normal Childhood Anxiety?
Social avoidance, low self-esteem, and inhibited social development may occur.
What is Tourette Syndrome?
Tourette Syndrome is a neurological disorder characterized by tics: involuntary, rapid, sudden movements or vocalization, which occur repeatedly.
What is the cause of Tourette Syndrome?
Autosomal dominant transmission may occur in some cases. Associations between ADHD and obsessive-compulsive disorder. Abnormalities in the dopaminergic and adrenergic system.
What is the prevalence of Tourette Syndrome?
Five per 10,000. Twice as frequent in males.
What is the onset of Tourette Syndrome?
Onset before the age of 18. Vocal and motor tics wax and wane over time.
What are motor tics?
Quick eye blinks or eye jerks. Lip licking. Head twitches or head jerks. Shoulder shrugs. Muscle tensing.
What are vocal tics?
Grunting, barking, and hissing. Sniffing, snorting, or throat-clearing.
What comorbid problems are associated with Tourette Syndrome?
ADHD and obsessive-compulsive disorder are present in one-third of cases. Lifelong course with remissions and exacerbations.
What is the treatment of Tourette Syndrome?
High-potency antipsychotic drugs, including pimozide, haloperidol, and risperi-done. Clonidine and clonazepam are sometimes useful.
What is Major Depressive Disorder?
Mood disorder with depressed mood or anhe-donia. that presents with at least a 2-week course of symptoms that is a change from the patient?s previous level of functioning.
What are the risk factors for Major Depressive Disorder?
Major depression is seen more frequently in women. There is also a higher incidence in those who have no close interper-sonal relationships. Other risk factors include family history, exposure to stressors, and behavioral reasons.
What is the presentation of Major Depressive Disorder?
Depressed mood, anhedonia; weight loss or gain; insomnia or hypersomnia; psychomotor agitation or retardation; fatigue or loss of energy; worthlessness or guilt; diminished ability to concentrate; recurrent thoughts of death.
What are the physical examination findings associated with Major Depressive Disorder?
Psycho-motor retardation, stooped posture, slowing of movements, slowed speech. Cognitive impairment. Abnormal dexamethasone suppression or thyrotropin-releasing hormone test.
What is the treatment of Major Depressive Disorder?
Pharmacotherapy includes antidepressant medications such as SSRIs. Tricyclic antidepressants, or monoamine oxidase inhibitors. Electroconvulsive therapy may be indicated if the patient is suicidal or worried about side effects from medications.
What is the differential diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder?
Medical disorders: Hypothyroidism, Parkinson?s disease, dementia, medications, pseudodementia, tumors, cerebrovascular accidents. Other mood disorders, substance disorders, and grief.
What is Bipolar I Disorder?
A mood disturbance in which the patient typically experiences manic symptoms for at least 1 week that cause significant distress or impairment in level of functioning.
What are the risk factors for Bipolar I Disorder?
Affects men and women equally; mean age of onset of 30 years. More prevalent in high-socioeconomic status. Genetic linkage. Coexisting disorders may include anxiety, alcohol dependence, and substance-related disorders.
What is the presentation of Bipolar I Disorder?
Persistently elevated mood lasting 1 week; increased self-esteem or grandiosity; distractibility; excessive involvement in activities; talkative; psychomotor agitation; flight of ideas; increased sexual activity; increased goal-directed activity.
What are the physical examination findings associated with Bipolar I Disorder?
Psycho-motor agitation and pressured speech.
What is the treatment of Mood Disorder?
Pharmacotherapy includes mood stabilizers, benzodiazepines, and antipsychotics. Individual psychotherapy is also indicated.
What is the differential diagnosis of Mood Disorder?
Mental disorders: Schizophrenia, personality disorders. Medical disorders: CNS infections, tumors, hyperthyroidism, and medications
What is Dysthymic Disorder?
A chronic disorder characterized by a depressed mood that lasts most of the time during the day and is present on most days for at least 2 years.
What are the risk factors for Dysthymic Disorder?
More common in women who are younger than 64 years of age, unmarried, and young individuals from low-income families. Patients typically have anxiety, substance abuse, and/or borderline personality disorder.
What is the treatment of Dysthymic Disorder?
Long--term individual insight-oriented psychotherapy to help them overcome their long-term sense of despair and resolve conflicts from childhood. Medications include SSRIs, TCAs, or MAOIs.
What is the differential diagnosis of Dysthymic Disorder?
Hypothyroidism, Parkinson?s, dementia, medications, pseudodementia, tumors, CVA. Other mood disorders, substance disorders, and grief; minor depressive disorder and recurrent brief depressive disorder.
What is Cyclothymic Disorder?
A chronic disorder characterized by many periods of depressed mood and many periods of hypomanic mood for at least 2 years. A milder form of Bipolar II Disorder.
What are the risk factors for Cyclothymic Disorder?
Many patients have interpersonal and marital difficulties. Frequently coexists with borderline personality disorder and is seen more frequently in women. Family history of bipolar disorder. Alcohol, substance abuse.
What is the treatment of Cyclothymic Disorder?
Antimanic drugs such as lithium, carbamazepine, and valproic acid are the drugs of choice. Psychotherapy focuses on helping the patients gain insight into their ill-ness and cope with it.
What is the differential diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder?
Medical: Seizures, substances, and medications. Mental: Other mood disorders, personality disorders.
What is Seasonal Affective Disorder?
Disorder characterized by depressive symptoms found during winter months and absent during summer months. Caused by abnormal melatonin metabolism (decreased MSH).
What is the treatment of Seasonal Affective Disorder?
Phototherapy or sleep deprivation.
What are the 5 Stages of Death and Dying?
Stage 1: Shock and denial. Stage 2: Anger. Stage 3:Bargaining. Stage 4: Depression. Stage 5: Acceptance.
What is Schizophrenia?
Schizophrenia is a thought disorder that impairs judgment, behavior, and ability to interpret reality. Symptoms must be present for a period of at least 6 months to make the diagnosis.
What are the causes of Schizophrenia?
Schizophrenia has been associated with high levels of dopamine and abnormalities in serotonin. It is associated with families that are critical, intrusive, and hostile. Schizophrenia is more prevalent in low-socioeconomic status.
What is the presentation of Schizophrenia?
Hallucinations (mostly auditory); delusions (mostly bizarre); disorganized speech or behavior; catatonic behavior; negative symptoms; usually experience social and or occupational dysfunction; saccadic eye movements, hypervigilance.
What are psychologic tests for Schizophrenia?
Score lower on all IQ tests. Neuropsychologic tests usually are consistent with bilateral frontal and temporal lobe dysfunction. Personality tests may show bizarre ideations.
What is the treatment of Schizophrenia?
Hospitalization is usually recommended for stabilization or safety of the patient. Antipsychotic medications are indicated to help control both positive and negative symptoms. Clozapine.
What are the symptoms of Schizophrenia?
Positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions, racing thoughts), negative symptoms (apathy, lack of emotion, poor or nonexistant social functioning), and cognitive symptoms (disorganized thoughts, difficulty completing tasks, memory problems).
What is the presentation of Paranoid-Type Schizophrenia?
These patients typically have preoccupation with one or more delu-sions and/or hallucinations, involving grandeur or persecution.
What are the risk factors for Paranoid-Type Schizophrenia?
These patients tend to be older; typical age of onset is in late twenties or thirties.
What is the presentation of Disorganized-Type Schizophrenia?
Disorganized speech and behavior; flat or inappropriate affect; marked regression to primitive, disinhibited behavior; severe thought disorder; poor contact with reality. These patients tend to be younger than 25.
What is the presentation of Catatonic-Type Schizophrenia?
Psychomotor disturbances, ranging from severe retardation to excitation; extreme negativism; peculiarities of voluntary movements; mutism is very common.
What are complications Catatonic-Type Schizophrenia?
Exhaustion, malnutrition, self-inflicted injury, or hyperpyrexia.
What is Undifferentiated-Type Schizophrenia?
Schizophrenia with features of more than one of the different types of schizophrenia without a clear predominance of a particular set of diagnostic characteristics.
What is the presentation of Undifferentiated-Type Schizophrenia?
Meet criteria for schizophrenia; but does not meet criteria for paranoid type, catatonic type, or disorganized type.
What is the presentation of Residual-Type Schizophrenia?
Absence of delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech/behavior, or catatonia. Have negative symptoms, such as affective flattening, alogia (decline in speech), avolition (lack or decline in motivation)
What is the presentation of Brief Psychotic Disorder?
Hallucinations; delusions; disorganized speech; grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior; symptoms more than one day but less than 30 days.
What are the risk factors for Brief Psychotic Disorder?
Seen most frequently in the low socioeconomic status and with preexisting personality disorders or psychological stressors.
What is the treatment of Brief Psychotic Disorder?
Hospitalization is warranted if the patient is acutely psychotic. Pharmacotherapy includes both antipsychotics and benzodiaz-epines. Benzodiazepines may be used for short-term treatment of psychotic symptoms.
What is the presentation of Schizophreniform Disorder?
Hallucinations; delusions; disorganized speech; grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior; negative symptoms (apathy, poor social function, lack of emotion); social dysfunction; symptoms are present >1 month, but <6 months.
What are the risk factors for Schizophreniform Disorder?
Symptoms like schizophren-ics, except the level of functional impairment and the duration of symptoms is less. No impairment in social, occupational, or academic functioning.
What is the treatment of Schizophreniform Disorder?
For a 3- to 6-month course. Individual psychotherapy may be indicated to help the patient assimilate the psychotic experience into his life.
What is the presentation of Schizoaffective Disorder?
Delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized behavior, catatonic behavior, negative symptom, affective flattening, alogia, avolition, anhedonia, social withdrawal. Depressive or manic episode.
What are symptoms for Schizophrenia?
Delusions or hallucinations for at least 2 weeks in the absence of mood symptoms.
What is the treatment of Schizoaffective Disorder?
Antidepressant medications and/or anticonvulsants to control the mood symptoms. Antipsychotic medications to help control the ongoing symptoms.
What is the presentation of Delusional Disorder?
Nonbizarre delusions for at least one month; no impairment in level of functioning; patients are usually reliable unless their delusions cause them to fear treatment; types of delusions include erotomanic, jealous, grandiose, somatic, mixed, unspecified.
What are the risk factors for Delusional Disorder?
Mean age of onset is about 40 years. Seen more commonly in women, and most are married and employed. Delusional disorder has been associated with low socioeconomic status. Limbic or basal ganglia abnormalities.
What is the treatment of Delusional Disorder?
Pharmacotherapy consists of antipsychotic medications; however, most studies indicate that many patients do not respond to treatment. Individual psychotherapy.
What is Anxiety?
Anxiety is a syndrome with worry that is difficult to control, hypervigilance and restlessness, difficulty concentrating, and sleep disturbance. Autonomic hyperactiv-ity and motor tension.
What is the cause of Anxiety?
Anxiety is a conditioned response to environmental stimuli paired with a feared situation. Biologic theories implicate various neurotransmitters (norepinephrine, and serotonin), and CNS.
What is Panic Disorder?
Recurrent, unexpected panic attacks characterized by intense anxiety that often includes marked tachycardia, hyperventilation, dizziness, and sweating.
What are the causes of Panic Disorder?
Associated with separations during childhood and interpersonal loss. Panic symptoms may be caused by panicogens (lactate CO2, yohimbine, caffeine). 2% of the population. 1:2 male-to-female.
What is the disease course of Panic Disorder?
Severity of symptoms may wax and wane, and may be associated with intercurrent stressors.
What is the treatment of Panic Disorder?
SSRIs (fluoxetine), alprazolam, diazepam, imipramine, and MAOIs. Psychotherapeutic interventions include relaxation training and systematic desensitization for agoraphobic symptoms.
What is the presentation of Agoraphobia?
Fear of places from which escape would be difficult if panic symptoms (public places, being outside, public transportation, crowds). More common in women. Often leads to severe restrictions on travel and daily routine.
What is the presentation of Specific Phobia?
Fear or avoidance of objects or situations other than agoraphobia or social phobia. Commonly involves fear of animals, natural environments, injury, and situations.
What is the presentation of Social Phobia?
Fear of humiliation or embarrassment in either general or specific social situations (eg, public speaking, stage fright, urinating in public restrooms).
What is the treatment for Phobic Disorders?
Cognitive-behavioral therapies for phobias include systematic desensitization and assertiveness training. Pharmacotherapy includes SSRIs, buspirone, and beta-blockers.
What is Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
Obsessions are anxiety-provoking, thoughts of contamination, doubt, guilt, aggression, sex. Compulsions are behaviors to reduce anxiety (hand-washing, organizing, checking, counting, praying).
What is the cause of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
Abnormalities of serotonin metabolism.
What is the prevalence of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
Prevalence: 2% of population. Occurs at a 1:1 male-to-female ratio. Some evidence of heritability. Insidious onset during childhood, adolescence, or early adulthood.
What is the disease course of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
Symptoms usually wax and wane. Depression, other anxieties, and sub-stance abuse are common comorbidities.
What are the physical examination findings associated with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
Chapped hands from excessive hand-washing compulsion maybe present.
What is the treatment of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
Behavioral psychotherapies are relaxation training, guided imagery, exposure, response prevention, thought-stopping techniques, and modeling. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
What is Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)?
Anxiety symptoms following a threat-ening event that caused fear, helplessness, or horror. When this anxiety lasts less than 1 month (but greater than 2 days) and symptoms occur within 1 month of stressor, it is diagnosed as ASD.
What is Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?
PTSD is characterized as when the anxiety lasts longer than 1 month, it is diagnosed as PTSD. PTSD is severe anxiety.
What are causes of Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?
Physical or psychological trauma, or more frequently a combination of both, precipitate ASD and PTSD. Sources of trauma include experiencing or witnessing childhood or adult physical, emotional or sexual abuse.
What is the age of onset of Acute Stress Disorder and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?
Onset at any age. About 50% of cases resolve within 3 months. Symptoms usually begin immediately after trauma, but may occur after months or years.
What are symptoms of Acute Stress Disorder and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder?
Re-experiencing event: Dreams, flashbacks, intrusive recollec-tions. Avoidance of stimuli associated with trauma, or numbing of general respon-siveness. Anxiety, sleep disturbances, hypervigilance, depression, emotional lability, guilt.
What is the treatment of Acute Stress Disorder and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder?
Counseling after a stressful event may prevent PTSD. Group psychotherapy with other survivors is. Pharmacotherapy includes SSRIs, other antidepres-sants, and benzodiazepines.
What is Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
Excessive anxiety >6 months. Psychologic and physiologic symptoms of anxiety. Genetic predisposition. Prevalence 5%. Occurs at a 2:3 male-to-female ratio. Onset during childhood but can occur later.
What is the disease course of Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
Usually chronic, but symptoms worsen with stress. Depression, somatic symptoms, and substance abuse are comorbid conditions.
What is the treatment of Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
Behavioral psychotherapy includes relaxation training and biofeedback. Pharma-cotherapy includes SSRIs, venlafaxine, buspirone, and benzodiazepines.
What are the Somatoform Disorders?
A group of disorders characterized by physical symptoms with no medical explanation. The symptoms interfere with the patient?s ability to function in social or occupational activities.
What is Somatization Disorder?
Multiple symptoms affecting multiple organs. Persistent, varied physical symptoms that have no identifiable physical origin. Internal psychological conflicts are unconsciously expressed as physical signs.
What are the risk factors for Somatization Disorder?
Affects women more than men; inversely related to socioeconomic status. Begins by age 30. Genetic linkage to the disorder. Male relatives tend to have antisocial personal-ity disorder, whereas female relatives tend to have histrionic personality disorder.
What is the presentation of Somatization Disorder?
Physical symptoms affecting many organ systems; no medical explanation; diagnosis requires at least four pain symptoms, two gastrointestinal symptoms, one sexual symptom, and one pseudoneurologic symptom.
What is the treatment of Somatization Disorder?
Regular brief monthly visits. Increase patient?s awareness that the symptoms are psychological. Individual psychotherapy is needed to help patients cope with their symptoms and develop other ways of expressing feelings.
What is the differential diagnosis of Somatization Disorder?
Medical: multiple sclerosis, myasthenia gravis, SLE, AIDS, thyroid disorders, and chronic systemic infections. Psychiatric: depression, generalized anxiety disorder, schizophrenia.
What is Conversion Disorder?
Neurologic symptoms (mutism, blindness) that cannot be explained by any medical disorder. Young women, lower socioeconomic status, low IQ, military. Associated with passive-aggressive, dependent, antisocial, histrionic personality.
What is the presentation of for Conversion Disorder?
Neurologic symptoms affecting voluntary or sensory function. Must have psychologic factors associated with the onset or exacerbation of the symp-toms. Mutism, blindness, and paralysis are the most common symptoms.
What are the possible finding of Conversion Disorder?
Anesthesia and paresthesia, abnormal movements, gait disturbance, weakness, paralysis, tics, jerks, pseudoseizures. La belle indifference: Patient seems unconcerned about impairment.
What is the treatment of Conversion Disorder?
Psychotherapy focus on stress and coping skills. Amobarbital interview may be helpful in obtaining more information.
What is the differential diagnosis of Conversion Disorder?
Neurologic: Dementia, tumors, basal ganglia disease, and optic neuritis. Psychiatric: Schizophrenia, depressive disorders, anxiety disorders, factitious. Malingering.
What is Hypochondriasis?
Disorder characterized by the patient?s belief that she has some specific disease. Despite reassurance, the patient?s belief remains the unchanged.
What are the risk factors for Hypochondriasis?
Men and women are affected equally; however, hypochondriasis may be more common in men. Most common onset is between the ages of 20 and 30.
What is the treatment of Hypochondriasis?
Psychotherapy to help relieve stress and help cope with illness. Regularly scheduled visits to doctor.
What is Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
A disorder characterized by the belief that some body part is abnormal, defective, or misshapen.
What are the risk factors for Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
Women more than men, between 15 and 20 yrs. Comorbid disorders include depressive disorders, anxiety disorders, and psychotic disorders. Family history of depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder. Involves serotonergic system.
What is the presentation of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
Most common concerns involve facial flaws; there is constant mirror-checking; attempting to hide the alleged deformity; housebound; avoids social situations; causes impairment in level of functioning.
What is the treatment of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
Individual psychotherapy to help cope with stress of alleged imperfections. Pharmacotherapy may include the use of SSRIs, TCAs, or MAOIs.
What is the differential diagnosis of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
Medical: Brain damage, causing neglect syndrome. Psychiatric: Anorexia, narcissistic personality disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, schizophrenia, delusional disorder.
What is Pain Disorder?
Pain in one or more anatomic sites, causing clinically significant distress or impairment of social, occupational functioning. Psychiatric factors have a role in the onset, severity, exacerbation, or maintenance of symptoms.
How is Pain Disorder diagnosed?
Diagnosis is based on history after excluding a physical disorder that would explain the pain and its onset, severity, duration, and maintenance and the degree of disability. Mental or social stressors may explain the disorder.
What are the risk factors for Pain Disorder?
Diagnosed more frequently in women than in men. The peak ages of onset are in the fourth and fifth decades.
What is the presentation of Pain Disorder?
Pain in anatomic sites; pain causes distress; psychologic factors; symptoms are not faked; long medical histories; preoccupied with pain; half have depression, most patients have dysthymia.
What is the treatment of Pain Disorder?
Discuss the probable psychologic origin of the pain with the patient. Antidepressants, such as SSRIs. Biofeedback, hypnosis, and nerve- blocking is helpful. Individual psychotherapy to explore the emotional aspects of the pain.
What is the differential diagnosis of factitious disorder?
Must be distinguished from a true general medical conditions or mental disorders, including disorders that are caused by noncompliance with treatment, iatrogenic, or the result of attempted suicide, or self-mutilation.
What is Factitious Disorder?
Conscious production of symptoms of medical or mental disorders to assume sick role. Creates physical or psychological symptoms. Called factitious disorder by proxy if the signs and symptoms are fabricated for another person, such as a mother.
What are the risk factors for Factitious Disorder?
Seen more commonly in men and in hospital and health care workers. Many of the patients suffered abuse that resulted in frequent hospitalizations as children, resulting in a need to assume the sick role.
What is the presentation of Factitious Disorder?
May have abdominal scars from prior surgeries. These patients typically demand treatment when in the hospital; if tests are negative, they may accuse doctors and threaten litigation and become angry when confronted.
What is the differential diagnosis of Factitious Disorder?
Psychiatric: Other somatoform disorders, antisocial personality disorder, histrionic personality disorder, schizophrenia, substance abuse, malingering, and Ganser?s syndrome
What is Malingering?
The conscious production of signs and symptoms for an obvious gain (money, avoidance of work, free housing). Malingering is not a mental disorder.
What are the risk factors for Malingering?
Seen more frequently in men, especially in prisons, factories, and the mili-tary. Malingering often occurs in the work environment. It also occurs when there are legal disputes that involve money and medical issues.
What is the presentation of Malingering?
Most patients express subjective symptoms; tend to complain frequently and exaggerate the effect of the symptoms on their functioning and lives; preoccupied more with rewards than with alleviation of symptoms.
What is the treatment of Malingering?
Do not embarrass the patient by confronting him, and do not allow the physician-patient relationship to be damaged. If confronted, patient will become angry and more guarded and suspicious.
What is the differential diagnosis of Malingering?
Somatoform disorders
What are Cognitive Disorders?
Syndromes of delirium, dementia, and amnesia, which are caused by general medical conditions, substances, or both.
What are the risk factors for Cognitive Disorders?
Very young or advanced age, debilitation, general medical conditions, sustained or excessive exposure to toxic substances.
What are the symptoms of Cognitive Disorders?
Memory impairment. Aphasia, apraxia. Agnosia: Failure to recognize or identify people or objects. Disturbances in executive function: Inability to think abstractly and plan activities.
What is Delirium?
Delirium is characterized by prominent disturbances in alertness, confusion, and a short and fluctuating course. It is caused by acute metabolic problems or substance intoxication.
What are the causes of Delirium?
Associated with general medical conditions such as systemic infections, metabolic disorders, hepatic and renal diseases, seizures, and head trauma. High or rapidly decreasing levels of many drugs, especially in elderly and severely ill individuals.
What is the presentation of Delirium?
Delirium occurs in 25% of elderly, hospitalized patients. Key symptoms include agitation or stupor, fear, emotional lability, hallucinations, delusions, and disturbed psychomotor activity.
What are the physical examination findings of Delirium?
Motor abnormalities commonly present include incoordination, trem-or, asterixis, and nystagmus. Incontinence is common. There is often an underlying general medical conditions or substance-specific syndromes.
What are the EEG abnormalities associated with Delirium?
EEG often shows either generalized slowing of activity, fast-wave activity, or focal abnormalities. Abnormal findings on neuroimaging and neuropsychiatric testing may be present.
What is the treatment of Delirium?
Correction of physiologic problems. Frequent orientation and reassurance. Protective use of physical restraints and high-potency antipsychotic medications for dangerous agitation.
What is the differential diagnosis of Delirium?
Dementia, substance intoxication or withdrawal, and psychotic disorders.
What is Dementia?
Dementia is characterized by prominent memory disturbances coupled with other cognitive disturbances. It is caused by CNS damage and has a protracted course.
What are the causes of Dementia?
CVS disease, intracranial processes; brain injuries, radiation, or tumors. Seizures, metabolic; demyelinating; Wilson; uremia, endocrinopathies; nutritional deficiencies; alcohol, inhalants, sedative-hypnotics, toxins.
What is the prevalence of Dementia?
Five percent of the population over 65 years of age and more than 20% of persons over 85 years of age; heritability; some types of neurodegenerative dementias (eg, Huntington disease).
What are the symptoms of Dementia?
Disorientation, anxiety, depression, emotional lability, personality disturbances, hallucinations, and delusions. Abnormal findings on neuroimaging and neuropsychiatric testing.
What are the physical examination findings associated with Dementia?
Evidence of CNS motor pathology is often present. There may be underlying general medical conditions or substance-specific syndromes.
What are the diagnostic test abnormalities associated with Dementia?
EEG abnormalities. Neuroimaging and neuropsychi-atric testing abnormalities. Mini-Mental Status Exam abnormalities.
What is the laboratory ecaluation of Dementia?
Basic laboratory examination for dementia includes B12 and folate levels, RPR, CBC with SMA, and thyroid function tests.
What is the treatment of Dementia?
Cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine, memantine, and galantamine). Alzheimer's drugs increase levels of acetylcholine.
What is the differential diagnosis of Dementia?
Delirium and less-severe, age-related cognitive decline must be excluded. Alzheimer-type dementia patients occupy more than 50% of nursing-home beds; Alzheimer?s is found in 50-60% of nursing-home patients.
What are the risk factors for Dementia?
Female, family history, head trauma, Down syndrome. Neuroanatomic findings include cortical atrophy, flattened sulci, and enlarged ventricles.
What is the histopathology of Alzheimer?s Disease?
Senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, neuronal loss, synaptic loss, granulovacuolar degeneration. Associated with chromosome #21 (amyloid). Decreased acetylcholine, norepinephrine. Gradual deterioration with death after 8 yrs.
What is the pathophysiology of Pick Disease?
Atrophy of frontal and temporal lobes. Pick bodies (intraneuronal inclusions) in brain; most common in men with a family history of Pick disease; symptoms are similar to Alzheimer?s disease.
What is Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease?
Rare spongiform encephalopathy caused by a slow virus (prion); dementia, myoclonus, EEG abnormalities; progresses over months from malaise and personality changes to dementia, death; visual and gait disturbances, choreoathetosis, myoclonus
What is Huntington Disease?
Rare, progressive loss of GABA-ergic neurons of basal ganglia; choreoathetosis and dementia; caused by a defect in an autosomal dominant gene on chromosome 4, resulting in atrophy of caudate nucleus, ventricular enlargement.
What is Parkinson disease?
Common, progressive, neurodegenerative disease involving loss of dopaminergic neu-rons in substantia nigra; onset 50 and 65 yrs; tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, gait disturbances. Dementia in 40%. Depressive symptoms.
What is HIV-related dementia?
HIV destroys brain in 30% of individuals with AIDS, beginning with personality changes; diffuse and rapid multifocal destruction of brain. Gait disturbance, hypertonia and hyperreflexia, pathologic reflexes, and oculomotor deficits.
What is Wilson disease?
Wilson?s disease is a rare, inherited, genetic disorder of copper metabolism. It occurs in 1 out of every 30,000 people.
What is normal pressure hydrocephalus?
Dementia, urinary incontinence, and gait apraxia; enlarged ventricle; normal pressure; treatment includes shunt placement
What is Pseudodementia?
Typically seen in an elderly patient who has a depressive disorder but appears to have symptoms of dementia, such as psychomotor retardation and decreased concentration.
What are Amnestic Disorders?
Prominent memory impairment in the absence of disturbances in level of alertness or the other cognitive problems that are present with Delirium or dementia. Evidence of chronic alcohol abuse is often present.
What are the diagnostic test abnormalities associated with Amnestic Disorders?
EEG may show generalized slowing of activity, fast-wave activity, or focal abnor-malities; abnormal findings from neuroimaging and neuropsychiatric testing may be present.
How do Amnestic Disorders present?
Deficits in memory, inability to recall or retain information. Cognitive defect limited to memory. If additional cognitive defects are present, a diagnosis of dementia or delirium should be considered.
What is the treatment of Cognitive Disorder?
Correction of the underlying pathophysiology (eg, administration of thiamine in alcohol-induced amnestic disorder) may be effective in reversing or slowing the progression of symptoms.
What is the differential diagnosis of Cognitive Disorder?
Delirium, dementia, and dissociative amnesia are the common rule-outs.
What is the clinical presentation of Dissociative Disorders?
Fragmentation of aspects of consciousness, including memory, identity, and perception. Amnesia, per-sonality change, erratic behavior, odd inner experiences.
What is the clinical presentation of Dissociative Amnesia?
Significant episodes in which the individual is unable to recall important and often emotionally charged memories.
What are the causes of Dissociative Amnesia?
Psychological stress. More common in women and younger adults. Onset is usually detected retrospectively by the discovery of memory gaps of variable duration.
What are the symptoms of Dissociative Amnesia?
Amnesia that may be general or selective for certain events. The amnesia may suddenly or gradually remit, particularly when the traumatic circumstance resolves, or the amnesia may become chronic.
What comorbid disorders are associated with Dissociative Amnesia?
Mood disorders, conversion disorder, and personality disorders are commonly present.
What is the treatment of Dissociative Amnesia?
Hypnosis, suggestion, and relaxation techniques are helpful. The patient should be removed from stressful situations. Psychotherapy should be directed at resolving underlying emotional stress.
What is the differential diagnosis of Dissociative Amnesia?
Major rule-outs are amnestic disorder due to a general medical condition, substance-induced amnestic disorder, and other dissociative disorders.
What is Dissociative Fugue?
Sudden, unexpected travel, accompanied by the inability to remember one?s past and confusion about personal identity, or the assumption of a new identity.
What is the cause of Dissociative Fugue?
Dissociative Fugue is typically precipitated by a severe trauma or stressor and eventually remits without treatment.
What is the onset of Dissociative Fugue?
Usually sudden, often following a stressful life event. Most episodes are isolated and last from hours to months. Resolution is usually rapid, but amnesia may persist.
What is the treatment of Dissociative Fugue?
Psychotherapy, cognitive therapy, medication, family therapy, and clinical hypnosis.
What is the differential diagnosis of Dissociative Fugue?
Major rule-outs are complex partial seizures, other dissociative disorders, factitious disorder, and malingering.
What is Dissociative Identity Disorder?
Presence of multiple, distinct personalities that recurrently control the individual?s behavior, accompanied by failure to recall important personal information.
What are the causes of Dissociative Identity Disorder?
Can be caused by previous traumatic experience, and the memory of past trauma may create a mental stigma; most patients of this disorder commit suicide.
What other comorbid conditions often occur with Dissociative Identity Disorder?
Borderline personality disorder, PTSD and other mood disorders, substance-related disorders, sexual disorders, and eating disorders. Symptoms may fluctuate or be continuous.
What is the treatment of Dissociative Identity Disorder?
Psychotherapy to uncover psychologically traumatic memories and to resolve the associated emotional conflict.
What is the differential diagnosis of Dissociative Identity Disorder?
Major rule-outs are borderline personality disorder, bipolar disorder with rapid cycling, and factitious disorder and malingering.
What is Depersonalization and Derealization Disorder?
Persistent or recurrent feeling of being detached from one?s mental processes or body, accompanied by an intact sense of reality
What are the risk factors for depersonalization and derealization disorder?
Psychologic stress. Childhood trauma has been associated with increased risk for both panic disorder and dissociative symptoms in adulthood.
What is the onset of Dissociative Disorders?
Onset in adolescence or early adulthood. Stressful events may precede onset. Depersonalization: an out-of-body experience. Derealization: Environment is distorted or strange, feeling of being detached from physical surroundings.
What are the symptoms of Dissociative Disorders?
Amnesia, depression and anxiety. A sense of being detached from yourself (depersonalization). A perception of the people and things around you as distorted and unreal (derealization). A blurred sense of identity.
What is the treatment of Dissociative Disorders?
Treatment for Dissociative Disorders may include psychotherapy, hypnosis and medication.
What is the differential diagnosis of Dissociative Disorders?
Major rule-outs are substance-induced mental disorders with dissociative symptoms, including intoxication, withdrawal, hallucinogen-induced persisting perceptual disorder, panic disorder, and PTSD.
What is Adjustment Disorder?
Maladaptive reactions to an identifiable psychosocial stressor.
What is the onset of Adjustment Disorder?
Within 3 months of the initial presence of the stressor. Lasts 6 months or less once the stressor is resolved. Can become chronic if the stressor continues and new ways of coping with the stressor are not developed.
What are the symptoms of adjustment disorder?
Overwhelming anxiety, depression, or emotional turmoil associated with specific stressors. Social and occupational performance deteriorate, erratic or withdrawn behavior.
What is the differential diagnosis of Adjustment Disorder?
Normal reaction to stress. Disorders that occur following stress (eg, GAD, PTSD, Major Depressive Disorder).
What is Substance Intoxication?
Reversible, substance-specific syndrome caused by the recent ingestion of or exposure to a substance.
What is Substance Withdrawal?
Substance-specific, maladaptive behavioral change, with physi-ologic and cognitive concomitants, caused by the cessation of or reduction in heavy and prolonged substance use.
What are the causes of Substance-Related Disorders?
Intoxication and withdrawal are disturbances that are a direct physiologic result of a substance. Many recreational drugs can cause intoxication and withdrawal.
What is Substance Dependence?
Loss of control; monopolization of time by substance; majority of time is spent obtaining/using drugs, recovering from use, and discussing drugs; adverse medical, social, emotional consequences, including tolerance, withdrawal.
What is Impulse Control Disorder?
Intermittent-explosive disorder, kleptomania, pathological gambling, pyromania, trichotillomania, onychophagia and dermatillomania.These disorders are ego-syntonic. Mediated by the serotonergic system.
What is Intermittent Explosive Disorder?
Aggressive impulses result in serious assaultive acts or destruction of property. Degree of the aggressive act is out of proportion to the stressor.
What are the risk factors for Intermittent Explosive Disorder?
Affects men more than women. History of head trauma, seizures, encephalitis, hyperactivity. Low levels of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid, abnormalities in limbic system, testosterone. Symptoms lessen as patient ages.
What is the presentation of Intermittent Explosive Disorder?
Neurologic examination may reveal right-left ambivalence; psychologic tests often normal; poor work histories; marital difficulties; problems with the law.
What is the treatment of Intermittent Explosive Disorder?
Anticonvulsants, antipsychotics, beta-blockers, or SSRIs are somewhat helpful. Psychotherapy may be beneficial. When psychotherapy is used, it must be with pharmacotherapy and in a group setting.
What is the differential diagnosis of Intermittent Explosive Disorder?
Medical: Epilepsy, brain tumors, degenerative disease, and endocrine disorders. Psychiatric: Antisocial personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, schizo-phrenia, and substance intoxication.
What is Kleptomania?
Disorder characterized by the recurrent failure to resist impulses to steal objects that the patient does not need. There is increased anxiety prior to the act, followed by release of anxiety after the act.
What are the risk factors for Kleptomania?
More common in women. Symptoms may be linked to stress. Associated with mood disorders, obsessive compulsive disorders, and eating disorders, such as bulimia nervosa. Linked to brain disease and mental retardation.
What is the treatment of kleptomania?
Insight-oriented therapy. Behavioral therapy, including aversive conditioning and systematic desensitization, have been helpful. If pharmacotherapy is indicated, consider SSRIs or anticon-vulsants.
What is the differential diagnosis of kleptomania?
Antisocial personality disorder, malingering, mania, and schizophrenia.
What is pyromania?
Fire-setting followed by fascination and gratification. More frequently in men who are mildly retarded and alcohol abuse. Truancy and cruelty to animals.
What is Pathological Gambling?
Persistent and recurrent gambling, a need to gamble with more money, attempts to stop gambling and/or to win back losses, illegal acts to finance gambling, or loss of relationships due to gambling.
What is the differential diagnosis of Pathological Gambling?
Medical: Brain dysfunctions. Psychiatric: Antisocial personality disorder, conduct disorder, mania, and schizophrenia.
What are the risk factors for Pathological Gambling?
More common in men. Alcohol dependence. Predisposed by death, loss of a loved one, poor parenting, exposure to gambling, divorce. Linked to mood disorders, obsessive compulsive disorders, panic disorder, agoraphobia, ADHD.
What is the presentation of Pathological Gambling?
May engage in antisocial behavior to obtain money for gambling; appear overconfident; suicide attempts; multiple arrests and/or incarceration.
What is the treatment of Pathological Gambling?
Gamblers anonymous (GA) is the most effective treatment. It involves public confessions, peer pressure, and sponsors.
What is the differential diagnosis of Pathological Gambling?
Mania, antisocial personality disorder
What is Trichotillomania?
Disorder characterized by pulling one?s own hair, resulting in hair loss. There is anxiety before the act and a release of anxiety after the act.
What are the risk factors for Trichotillomania?
Affects women more than men. Associated disorders include OCD, obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, and depressive disorders
What is the presentation of Trichotillomania?
Hair loss is significant; most affected is scalp; may eat hair, resulting in bezoars, obstruction, malnutrition; head-banging, nail-biting; examination of the scalp reveals short, broken hairs along with long hairs.
What is the treatment of Trichotillomania?
Treatment usually consists of behavior-modification techniques to decrease the patient?s anxiety, SSRIs, anticonvulsants, or antipsychotics decrease the urges.
What is the differential diagnosis of Trichotillomania?
Medical: Alopecia areata, tinea capitis. Psychiatric: OCD, factitious disorder
What is Anorexia Nervosa?
Failure to maintain a normal body weight, fear and preoccupa-tion with gaining weight, unrealistic self-evaluation as overweight, and amenorrhea for three cycles or more.
What are the subtypes of Anorexia Nervosa?
Subtypes are restricting type (no binge-eating or purging) and binge-eating/purging type (regularly engaged in binge-eating/purging).
What are the risk factors for Anorexia Nervosa?
Higher concordance for illness in monozygotic twins. Psychologic risk factors include emotional conflicts concerning family control and sexuality.
What is the prevalence of Anorexia Nervosa?
0.5%. Occurs at a 1:10 male-to-female ratio.
What is the onset of Anorexia Nervosa?
Average age is 17 years. Very late-onset anorexia nervosa has a poorer prognosis. Onset is often associated with emotional stressors, particularly conflicts with parents about indepen-dence, and sexual conflicts.
What are the symptoms of Anorexia Nervosa?
Restricted intake and low-calorie diets. Purging; excessive concern with appearance. Denial of emaciated conditions; binge-eating/purging: Self-induced vomiting; laxative and diuretic abuse.
What are the symptoms of Anorexia Nervosa?
Excessive interest in food-related activities, obsessive-compulsive symptoms, depression. Waxing-and- waning course. Long-term mortality rate of 10%; death from starvation, purging, suicide.
What are the physical examination findings associated with Anorexia Nervosa?
Signs of malnutrition include emaciation, hypotension, bradycardia, lanugo, and peripheral edema. Eroded teeth caused by emesis and scarred hands from self-induce emesis.
What are diagnostic tests for Anorexia Nervosa?
Normochromic, normocytic anemia, elevated LFTs, abnormal electrolytes, low estrogen/testosterone, bradycardia, abnormal EEG. Metabolic alkalosis, hypochloremia, hypokalemia; metabolic acidosis caused by laxatives.
What is the treatment of Anorexia Nervosa?
Initial correction of consequences of starvation. Behavioral therapy, with rewards or punishments based on weight, not on eating behaviors. Family therapy to reduce conflicts over control by parents. Antidepressants for depression.
What is the differential diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa?
Major rule-outs are bulimia nervosa, general medical conditions that cause weight loss, Major Depressive Disorder, schizophrenia, OCD, and body dysmorphic disorder.
What is Bulimia Nervosa?
Characterized by frequent binge-eating and purging and a self-image that is unduly influenced by weight.
What are types of Bulimia Nervosa?
Purging type: Self-induced vomiting or the use of laxatives, diuretics, or enemas. Nonpurging type: Fasting or exercise, but no purging during bulimic episodes.
What are the risk factors for Bulimia Nervosa?
Psychologic conflict regarding guilt, helplessness, self-control, and body image predispose. Frequent association with mood disorders.
What is the prevalence of Bulimia Nervosa?
Two percent in young adult females. Occurs at a 1:9 male-to-female ratio. During late adolescence or early adulthood and often follows a period of dieting Course. May be chronic or intermittent
What is the outcome of Bulimia Nervosa?
Seventy percent of cases remit after 10 years. Comorbid-substance abuse is associ-ated with a poorer prognosis.
What are symptoms of Bulimia Nervosa?
Binge-eating. Dieting, followed by binge-eating. Associated with emotional stress and followed by guilt, self-recrimination; recurrent, inappropriate compensatory behavior; self-evaluation unduly influenced by weight.
What comorbid problems are associated with Bulimia Nervosa?
Depressive symptoms, substance abuse, and impulsivity (eg, kleptomania). Borderline personality disorder present in about 50%.
What are the physical examination findings associated with Bulimia Nervosa?
Scarring on the knuckles or back of the hand. Swollen glands, such as lymph nodes, salivary glands and parotid glands. This is caused by frequent binging and purging, which aggravates areas of the face and neck.
What are the diagnostic test abnormalities associated with Bulimia Nervosa?
Evidence of laxative or diuretic abuse, including frequent trips to the bathroom after meals, signs and/or smells of vomiting, presence of wrappers or packages of laxatives or diuretics.
What is the treatment of Bulimia Nervosa?
Cognitive and behavioral therapy; psychodynamic psycho-therapies are useful for borderline personality traits. Antidepressant medica-tions, particularly SSRIs.
What is the differential diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa?
Major rule-outs are anorexia nervosa, binge-eating/purging, Major Depressive Disorder? with atypical features, and borderline personality disorder.
What is a personality disorder?
Personality patterns that are pervasive, inflexible, and maladaptive.
What are the three personality disorder clusters:
Cluster A: Peculiar thought processes, inappropriate affect. Cluster B: Mood lability, dissociative symptoms, preoccupation with rejection. Cluster C: Anxiety, preoccupation with criticism or rigidity
What are the risk factors for personality disorder?
Risk factors include innate temperamental difficulties, such as irritability; adverse environmental events, such as child neglect or abuse; and personality disorders in parents.
What is the prevalence of personality disorder?
All are relatively common. More males have antisocial and narcissistic personality disorders, more females have borderline and histrionic personality disorders.
What is the onset of personality disorder?
Diagnosed in late adolescence or early adulthood. Chronic over decades without treatment. Symptoms of paranoid, schizoid, and narcissistic personality disorder often worsen with age.
What are the symptoms of personality disorder?
Long pattern of difficult interpersonal relationships, problems adapting to stress, failure to achieve goals, chronic unhappiness, low self-esteem. Mood disorders.
What is the treatment of personality disorder?
Intensive and long-term psychodynamic and cognitive therapy are the treatments of choice for most personality disorders. Mood stabilizers and antidepressants is sometimes useful for Cluster B personality disorders.
What is the differential diagnosis of Personality Disorder?
Major rule-outs are mood disorders, personality change due to a gen-eral medical condition, and adjustment disorders.
What is Paranoid Personality Disorder?
Distrust and suspiciousness. Individuals are mistrustful and suspicious of the motivations and actions of others and are often secretive and isolated. Patients with paranoid personality disorder are emotionally cold and odd.
What is Schizoid Personality Disorder?
Detachment and restricted emotionality. Individuals are emotionally distant. They are disinterested in others and indifferent to praise or criticism. Social drifting and dysphoria.
What is Schizotypal Personality Disorder?
Discomfort with social relationships; thought distortion; eccentricity. Socially isolated and uncomfortable with others. Ideas of reference and persecution, odd preoccupa-tions, odd speech.
What is Histrionic Personality Disorder?
Colorful, exaggerated behavior and excitable, shallow expression of emotions; uses physical appearance to draw attention to self; sexually seductive; and uncomfortable in situations where he is not the center of attention.
What is Borderline Personality Disorder?
Unstable affect, mood swings, marked impulsivity, unstable relationships, recurrent suicidal behaviors, chronic feelings of emptiness or boredom, identity disturbance, inappropriate anger. Defense mechanism is splitting.
What is Antisocial Personality Disorder?
Continuous antisocial or criminal acts, inability to conform to social rules, impulsivity; disregard for rights of others, aggressiveness, lack of remorse, deceitfulness. Symptoms since age 15, and at least 18 years.
What is Narcissistic Personality Disorder?
Sense of self-importance, grandiosity, and preoc-cupation with fantasies of success. Believes she is special, requires excessive admiration, reacts with rage when criticized, lacks empathy, is envious of others, exploitative.
What is Avoidant Personality Disorder?
Social inhibition, inadequacy, hypersensitivity to criticism. These persons shy away from work or social relationships because of fears of rejection based on feelings of inadequacy. Lonely and inadequate; preoccupied with rejection.
What is Dependent Personality Disorder?
Submissive and clinging; need to be taken care of. Worry about abandonment. They feel inadequate and helpless and avoid disagreements with others. They focus dependency on a family member or spouse.
What is Obsessive Personality Disorder?
Preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, control. Strict and perfectionistic, overconscientious, and inflexible. Obsession with work and productivity and are hesitant to delegate. Unable to give up possessions.
What are the normal stages of sleep?
Sleep is divided into two stages, nonrapid eye movement (NREM) and rapid eye movement (REM).
What is REM latency?
The period lasting from the moment sleep occurs to the first REM period.
What is sleep latency?
The time needed before actually falling asleep. Typically less than 15 minutes in most individuals; however, may be abnormal in many disorders, such as insomnia.
What changes occur in the sleep cycle?
Newborn: up to 18 hours. 1-12 months: 14-18 hours. 3-5 years: 11?13 hours. 5-12 years: 9-11 hours. Adolescents: 9-10 hours. Adults, including elderly: 7?8 hours. Sleep time decreases with age. REM decreases.
What are the neurotransmitters of sleep?
Serotonin: Increased during sleep; initiates sleep. Acetylcholine: Increased during sleep; linked to REM sleep. Norepinephrine: Decreased during sleep; linked to REM sleep. Dopamine: Increased during sleep; linked to arousal and wakefulness
What are the effects of tryptophan on sleep?
Tryptophan increases total sleep time.
What are the effects of dopamine on Sleep?
Dopamine agonists produce arousal. Dopamine antagonists: Decrease arousal, thus produce sleep. Benzodiazepines: Suppress Stage 4 and, when used chronically, increase sleep latency.
What is Narcolepsy?
Excessive daytime sleepiness and abnormalities of REM sleep for a period greater than 3 months. REM sleep occurs in less than 10 minutes. Feel refreshed upon awakening.
What is the presentation of Narcolepsy?
Sleep attacks; cataplexy; sudden loss of muscle tone which may have been precipitated by a loud noise or intense emotion; hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations; sleep paralysis.
What is the treatment of Narcolepsy?
Forced naps at a regular time of day is usually the treatment of choice. When medi-cations are given, psychostimulants are preferred. If cataplexy is present, antidepressants such as TCAs are preferred.
What is Sleep Apnea?
Cessation of airflow at nose or mouth. Apneic episodes >10 seconds. Loud snore followed by a heavy pause. Pathologic apnea is defined as more than 5 episodes an hour or more than 30 episodes during the night.
What is the presentation of Sleep Apnea?
Obese, middle-aged males; daytime sleepiness, depression, mood changes; spouses complain of snoring and restlessness; dry mouth in morning; headaches; arrhythmias, hypoxemia, pulmonary hypertension, sudden death.
What are the types of sleep apnea?
Obstructive apnea: Muscle atonia in oropharynx; nasal, tongue, or tonsil obstruction. Central apnea: Lack of respiratory effort during sleep. Mixed: Central at first, but prolonged due to airway collapse.
What is the treatment of Sleep Apnea?
Continuous positive nasal airway pressure is the treatment of choice. Weight loss, surgery.
What is Insomnia?
Disorder characterized by difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep.
What are the risk factors for sleep apnea?
Patients often have underlying depression or anxiety. Psychiatric disorders are seen more frequently in women. Other conditions include PTSD, OCD, and eating disorders.
What is the differential diagnosis of Insomnia?
Pain, CNS lesions, endocrine diseases, aging, brain-stem lesions, alcohol, diet, medications. Anxiety, tension, depression, and environmental changes, other sleep disorders.
What is Sexual Dysfunction?
A group of disorders of a particular phase of the sexual response cycle. These disorders can be psychologic, biologic, or both, and include, desire, arousal, orgasm, and pain.
What is Premature Ejaculation?
Ejaculation before the man wants to ejaculate, before penetration, or just after penetration.
What is Dyspareunia?
Pain associated with sexual intercourse in either male or female.
What is Vaginismus?
Involuntary constriction of vagina that interferes with sexual act. Both vaginal lubrication and vaginal dilation decrease. When the vagina is dry and undilated, thrusting of the phallus is painful.
What are Paraphilias?
A pattern of recurring sexually arousing mental imagery or behavior that involves unusual and especially socially unacceptable sexual practices (sadism, masochism, fetishism, pedophilia).
What is the presentation of Paraphilias?
Sexual activity is ritualistic. Fantasy is typically fixed and shows very little variation. Intense urge to carry out the fantasy.
What is the treatment of Paraphilias?
Individual psychotherapy. Behavioral techniques, such as aversive conditioning, antiandrogens or SSRIs to help reduce patient?s sexual drive.
What are the types of Paraphilias?
Exhibitionism; fetishism; frotteurism; pedophilia; voyeurism; masochism; sadism; transvestism.
What is Gender Identity Disorder?
Gender dysphoria (discontent with the biological sex they were born with).
What are the risk factors for Gender Identity Disorder?
Seen more frequently in men than in women. Cause is unknown. Many believe it may be due to biologic reasons, such as hormones.
What is the presentation of Gender Identity Disorder?
Wear opposite gender?s clothes; girls refuse to urinate sitting down; believe they were born with wrong body; medications or surgery to change appearance; women bind breasts, mastectomies, take testosterone; men remove hair, take estrogens.
What the three main groups of antipsychotic medications?
Pure dopamine-2 antagonists, D2-5HTZ antagonists, Multireceptor antagonists.
What are indications for antipsychotic medication?
Psychomotor Agitation. Schizophrenia. Other Psychotic Disorders. Mood Disorders.
What are general adverse effects of antipsychotic medication?
Sedation. Hypotension. Anticholinergic.
What are the side effects of antipsychotics?
Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary hesitancy, constipation, bradycardia, confusion, delirium. Gynecomastia, galactorrhea, amenorrhea. Photosensitivity, pigmentation, cataracts. Cardiac conduction abnormalities, agranulocytosis (clozapine).
What are the movement syndromes associated with antipsychotics?
Older antipsychotic medications are associated with extrapyramidal syndromes. Second generation antipsychotic medications cause minimal or no EPS. Low-potency antipsychotics cause less EPS, but have more sedative effects.
What are extrapyramidal syndromes?
Involuntary muscle movements or spasms, which occur in the face and neck. Occurs when release and re-uptake of the neurotransmitter dopamine is not regulated correctly. Primary cause is antipsychotic drugs.
What is the clinical presentation of acute dystonia?
Presentation: Spasms of various muscle groups. Can be dramatic and frightening to patient. Young men may be at higher risk.
What is the treatment of acute dystonia?
Anticholinergics, such as benztropine, diphenhydramine, or trihexyphenidyl.
What is the presentation of bradykinesia?
Slowed volitional movement, increased muscle tone, and resting tremor. Decreased facial expression, festinating gait, cogwheel rigidity, and pill-rolling.
What is akathisia?
Akathisia presents as fidgety movements while seated, rocking in place while standing, pacing, or the inability to sit or stand still for an extended period of time as well as the overwhelming urge to move.
What is the treatment of akathisia?
Benzodiazepines or beta-blockers for patients who do not have symptoms of Parkinson's disease. Anticholinergics for patients with Parkinson's symptoms.
What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Rare and potentially life-threatening condition characterized by muscular rigidity, hyperthermia, autonomic instability, and delirium. Usually associated with high dosages of high-potency antipsychotics.
What is the treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Medications include dantrolene and bromocriptine. Dantrolene can be given intravenously or orally starting with 2-3 mg per kg doses divided TID up to a total of 10 mg/kg/day. Bromocriptine can be given orally or by NG tube.
What are the second generation antipsychotic medications?
Clozapine, Risperidone, Olanzapine, Quetiapine, Ziprasidone, Aripiprazole.
What is the mechanism of action of antidepressants?
Antidepressants inhibit reuptake of serotonin, norepinephrine, or both. Some antidepressants block acetylcholine (muscarinic) and alpha-adrenergic and histamine receptors.
What is the treatment of Major Depressive Disorder?
SSRIs, Atypical antidepressants, tricyclic antidepressants, monoamine oxidase inhibitors. Cognitive behavior therapy. Psychotherapy. Electroconvulsive therapy
What is the overall efficacy of the treatment of Major Depressive Disorder?
Around 70%. Antidepressants are superior to placebo, but overall effect is low to moderate. The first-line alternative to medication is psychotherapy, which does not have superior efficacy.
What are the selective-serotonin-reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
Fluoxetine (Prozac), paroxetine (Paxil), and sertraline (Zoloft), and fluvoxam-ine. (Luvox), citalopram (Celexa), escitalopram (Lexapro).
What are the commonly used tricyclic antidepressants?
Tertiary TCAs are imipramine, amitriptyline, doxepin, clomipramine, and trimipramine. Secondary amine TCAs are Desipramine, nortriptyline, and protriptyline.
What are monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
Inhibit MAO-A and/or MAO-B in the CNS and have antidepressant efficacy; hydrazines are more sedating; tranylcypromine is more activating; selegiline is used for the treatment of early-stage Parkinson's, depression, senile dementia.
What are the indications for monoamine oxidase inhibitors?
Prescribed for patients resistant to TCAs. Newer MAOIs such as selegiline are safer. MAOIs are second-line treatment depressive disorders with atypical features, and anxiety disorders.
What are the causes of hypertensive crises in patients taking MAO inhibitors?
HTN crisis may occur with tyramine foods, decongestants, beta agonists, amphetamines.
What are the indications for electroconvulsive therapy?
Major depressive episodes that have not responded. Major depressive episodes with imminent risk of suicide. Major depressive episodes in patients with contraindications to antidepressant medication.
What are the adverse effects of electroconvulsive therapy?
Transient memory disturbance. Transiently increased intracranial pressure.
What are the indications for lithium?
Bipolar and schizoaffective disorders: First-line medication for treatment and prophylaxis of mood episodes. May augment responsiveness to anti-depressant medications.
What are adverse effects of lithium?
Tremor, GI distress, headache; acne; weight gain. Benign ECG changes; 5% of patients develop thyroid problems; leukocytosis, polyuria: Diabetes insipidus; teratogenicity. Dehydration and hyponatremia predispose to toxicity.
What are the indications for divalproex?
Prophylactic therapy for migraines or treatment of epilepsy or mania. Treatment of choice for rapid-cycling bipolar disorder, or for bipolar disorder when lithium is ineffective, impractical, or contraindicated.
What are the indications for carbamazepine?
An anti-seizure medication. Second-line choice for treatment of bipolar disorder when lithium and divalproex are ineffective or contraindicated. Other mood stabilizers: lamotrigine, gabapentin topiramate.
What are the indications for anxiolytic medications?
Adjustment disorder with anxiety. Panic disorder: SSRIs, alprazolam, and clonazepam decrease frequency and intensity of panic attacks. Generalized Anxiety: venlafaxine, SSRIs, buspirone. OCD: SSRIs, clomipramine. Social phobia: SSRIs, buspirone.
What precautions should be taken when prescribing benzodiazepines?
Avoid abrupt changes in benzodiazepine dosage. Use lower dosages for the elderly. Do not mix with alcohol or other sedative-hypnotic medications. Dependency potential.
What are the adverse effects of benzodiazepines?
Sedation; impairment of cognitive and motor performance; disinhibition; tolerance and withdrawal; abuse; possible teratogenicity.
What are the pharmacologic properties of buspirone?
Effective in the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder and social phobia; lag time of 1 week before clinical response; no withdrawal syndrome; no sedation or cognitive impairment; headache.
What are risk factors for suicidal behavior?
History of suicide threats and attempts; perceived hopelessness (demoralization); presence of psychiatric illness/drug abuse; males; elderly; social isolation; low job satisfaction; chronic illness.
What is the emergency management of suicide?
Set limits; search for concealed weapons; use antipsychotic medications or benzodiazepines to control agitation; establish rapport. Remove any means for committing suicide. Notify police.
What are the three components of informed consent?
Information: risks, benefits, alternatives. Voluntariness: noncoerced. Competency: understanding and judgment.
What are the situations when informed consent is not required?
Exceptions: emergencies; waiver by patient: if patient is competent to do so. Therapeutic privilege. Information would be harmful to patient.
What are the indications for involuntary treatment?
Suicidal, homicidal, gravely disabled; grave disability: Inability to provide for food, clothing or shelter; medication, seclusion, physical restraint: psychiatric emergencies.