• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/141

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

141 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Mnemonic for hernias

"MDs dont LIe"

MEdial to inferior epigastric artery= Direct hernia

Lateral to inferior epigastric artery=Indirect hernia
How many layers are involved in direct and indirect inguinal hernias?
Indirect= all 3 layers of spermatic fascia (external spermatic, cremasteric, internal spermatic)

External= ONLY external spermatic fascia
What is the most common diaphragmatic hernia? describe it
Sliding hiatal hernia

GE junction is displaced "hourglass stomach)

cardia normal (paraesophageal hernia is where cardia moves into thorax and GE jx normal)
what is the leading cause of bowel incarceration?
femoral hernia

more common in women

protudes BELOW inguinal ligament through femoral canal
Indirect inguinal vs. Direct inguinal hernia
INdirect:
goes thru INternal (deep) inguinal ring, external (superficial) inguinal ring, and INto scrotum
INfants-due to failure of processus vaginalis to close

Direct:
bulges DIRECTLY thru abdominal wall MEDIAL to inferior epigastic artery (Hesselbach's triangle). Goes thru external (superficial) inguinal ring ONLY and covered by external spermatic fascia ONLY.
older men.
What is contained in the femoral triangle vs the femoral sheath?
femoral triangle: contains femoral nerve, artery, and vein


femoral sheath: contains the femoral artery, vein, and lymph nodes (deep inguinal)
What zone in the liver is affected 1st by viral hepatitis?

affected 1st by ischemia?

has P-450 system?

most sensitive to toxic injury?

Alcoholic hepatitis?
Zone 1: periportal zone
Zone 3: pericentral vein

1st by viral hepatitis? Zone 1

affected 1st by ischemia? Zone 3

has P-450 system? Zone 3

most sensitive to toxic injury? Zone 3 (i.e. acetaminophen)

Alcoholic hepatitis? Zone 3
Gastrin

what are potent stimulators?
G cells (antrum of stomach)

increases gastric H+ secretion, increases growth of gastric mucosa, increases gastric motility

phenylalanine and tryptophan are potent stimulators
CCK

what condition is assoc with CCK?
I cells (duodenum, jejunum)

increases pancreatic secretion, increases gallbladder contraction, decreases gastric emptying

pain worsening after fatty food ingestion in cholelithiasis due to increase in CCK
Secretin
S cells (duodenum)

increases pancreatic HCO3- secretion, increases bile secretion, decreases gastric acid secretion

neutralizes gastric acid
somatostatin

what is it used to treat
D cells (pancreatic islets, GI mucosa)

inhibits everything (gastric acid, pepsinogen, intestinal fluid, gallbladder, insulin, glucagon)

used to treat VIPoma and carcinoid tumors
VIP
Parasympathetic ganglia in sphincters, gallbladder, small intestine

increases water/electrolyte secretion, increases relaxation

VIPoma-non-a, non-B islet cell pancreatic tumor that secretes VIP, copious diarrhea
Gastrin

what are potent stimulators?
G cells (antrum of stomach)

increases gastric H+ secretion, increases growth of gastric mucosa, increases gastric motility

phenylalanine and tryptophan are potent stimulators
CCK

what condition is assoc with CCK?
I cells (duodenum, jejunum)

increases pancreatic secretion, increases gallbladder contraction, decreases gastric emptying

pain worsening after fatty food ingestion in cholelithiasis due to increase in CCK
Secretin
S cells (duodenum)

increases pancreatic HCO3- secretion, increases bile secretion, decreases gastric acid secretion

neutralizes gastric acid
somatostatin

what is it used to treat
D cells (pancreatic islets, GI mucosa)

inhibits everything (gastric acid, pepsinogen, intestinal fluid, gallbladder, insulin, glucagon)

used to treat VIPoma and carcinoid tumors
VIP
Parasympathetic ganglia in sphincters, gallbladder, small intestine

increases water/electrolyte secretion, increases relaxation

VIPoma-non-a, non-B islet cell pancreatic tumor that secretes VIP, copious diarrhea
Nitric oxide
increases smooth muscle relaxation

Loss of NO implicated in increased LES tone in achalasia
Motilin
produced in small intestine during FASTING

causes MMCs (migrating motor complexes)
Ghrelin
makes your stomach "Growl!"

increases GH, ACTH, cortisol, and prolactin secretion

increases before meals and
decreases after meals

Regulates hunger

lost following gastric bypass

assoc w/hyperphagia in Prader-Willi
intrinsic factor
parietal cells (stomach)- also produce gastric acid

Vit B12 binding, uptake in terminal ileum

autoimmune destruction leads to chronic gastritis and pernicious anemia
gastric acid
parietal cells (stomach)- also produce IF

stimulated by histamine, ACh, gastrin

inhibited by somatostatin, GIP, prostaglandin, secretin

Gastrinoma- results in high levels of acid secretion and ulcers
pepsin
chief cells (stomach)

stimulated by vagal secretion and local acid

converted from pepsinogen by H+
HCO3-
mucosal cells (stomach, duodenum, salivary glands, pancreas) and Brunner's gland (duodenum)

neutralizes acid

it increases pancreatic and biliary secretion

trapped in mucus that covers gastric epithelium
ECL cells
produce Histamine which promotes the release of HCl from parietal cells (much more so than gastrin's direct effect on parietal cells)

stimulated by Gastrin
What stimulates salivary secretion?
T1-T3 superior cervical ganglion (sympathetic)

facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve (parasympathetic)
What monosacharrides are absorbed by enterocytes?
glucose, galactose, fructose
What is taken up by SGLT1?

what mechanism
glucose and galactose

via Na-dependent secondary active transport
What is taken up by GLUT-5?

what mechanism
Fructose

facilitated diffusion since there is so much fructose in intestinal lumen
How are monosaccharides transported to the blood in enterocytes?
via GLUT-2
Where is iron, folate, B12, and bile acids absorbed?
Iron: duodenum

Folate: jejunum

B12: ileum
Bile acids: ileum
precursor of purines and pyrimidines?
purines: IMP precursor

pyrimidines: orotate precursor with PRPP added later
Antibiotic and anti-neoplastic drugs that function by interfering with nucleotide synthesis

Give mechanism
Hydroxyurea: inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

6-MP: blocks de novo purine synthesis (purine antagonist)

5-FU: inhibits thymidylate synthase (decreases dTMP)

MTX: inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (decreases dTMP)

TMP: inhibits Bacterial dihydrofolate reductase (decreases dTMP)
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
absence of HGPRT enzyme

excess uric acid production
Adenosine deaminase deficiency
excess ATP and dATP causing feedback inhibition

prevents DNA synthesis and decreases lymphocytes

major cause of SCID
What happens with a mutation in nucleotide excision repair?
xeroderma pigmentosum

prevents repair of thymidine dimers caused by UV light
What happens with a mutation in mismatch repair?
HNPCC (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer)
What do lupus patients make antibodies to?
Spliceosomal snRNPs

snRNPs combine w/pre-mRNA to remove introns by forming a spliceosome
total energy expenditure of adding one amino acid to peptide during translation
4-phosphate bonds

t-RNA aminoacylation takes 2 phosphates from ATP->AMP
I-cell disease
inclusion cell disease

lysosomal storage disorder

failure to add mannose-6-phosphate to lysosome proteins....causes enzymes to be trafficked out of cell

FATAL in childhood
Drugs that act on microtubules
bendazole (antihelminthic)

griseofulvin (anitfungal)

vincristine/vinblastine (anti-cancer)

paclitaxel (anti-breast cancer)

colchicine (anti-gout)
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
microtubule polymerization defect

results in decreased phagocytosis (since neutrophils divide quickly, less neutrophils)

recurrent pyogenic infections
partial albinism
peripheral neuropathy
transport directions of dynein and kinesin
Dr. Ka

dynein: retrograde

kinesin: anterograde
Kartagener's syndrome
dynein arm defect

results in immotile cilia

causes infertility, bronchiectasis, recurrent sinusitis

assoc w/ situs inversus
what is the cell type for these immunohistochemical stains

Vimentin
Desmin
Cytokeratin
GFAP
Neurofilaments
Vimentin: connective tissue

Desmin: muscle

Cytokeratin: epithelial cells

GFAP: neuroglia

Neurofilaments: Neurons
Ouabain
binds to K+ binding site of Na/K ATPase thus inhibiting Na+/K+ ATPase
Digoxin and digitoxin
directly inhibit the Na+/K+ ATPase which leads to indirect inhibition of Na/Ca exchange

increases Ca2+

increases cardiac contractility
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
faulty collagen synthesis

Type III collage affected

assoc w/ hyperextensible skin
tendency to blood (easy bruising)
hypermobile joints
Osteogenesis imperfecta
brittle bone disease

Autosomal dominant

abnormal Type I collagen

Multiple fractures w/ min trauma

Blue sclerae
Alport's syndrome
abnormal type IV collagen (imp in basement membranes)

X-linked recessive

nephritis and deafness
Lyonization
random x-inactivation in females
Heteroplasmy
presence of both normal and mutated mtDNA

results in variable expression of mitochondrial inherited disease
(P)rader-Willi syndrome
deletion of normally active (P)aternal allele at imprinted locus of chromosome 15

mental retardation, hyperphagia, obesity, hypogonadism, hypotonia
angel(M)an's syndrome
deletion of a normally active (M)aternal allele at imprinted locus of chromosome 15

mental retardation, seizures, ataxia, inappropriate laughter

"happy puppet"
Hypophosphatemic rickets
X-linked DOMINANT-all female offspring of affected father are affected

increased phosphate wasting at proximal tubule

results in rickets-like presentation
Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy
Mitochondrial inheritance pattern: all offspring of affected females may show (due to heteroplasmy) signs of disease.

degeneration of retinal ganglion cells and axons

leads to acute loss of central vision
Achondroplasia
Autosomal Dominant

defect of FGFreceptor3

results in dwarfism

head and trunk normal size
ADPKD
Autosomal Dominant

defect in APKD1 on chromosome 16 (16 letters in polycystic kidney)

always BILATERAL, present w/flank pain, hematuria, hypertension, progressive renal failure

berry aneuryms, mitral valve prolapse
FAP
familialy adenomatous polyposis

Autosomal Dominant

colon covered w/ adenomatous polyps after puberty

APC gene on chromosome 5 (5 letters in "polyp")

progresses to colon cancer unless resected
Familial hypercholesterolemia
Autosomal Dominant

defective or absent LDL receptor

homozygotes worse than heterozygotes

severe atherosclerotic dz early in life

tendon xanthoma (achilles classically)
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
Autosomal Dominant

inherited disorder of blood vessels

recurrent epistaxis, skin discolorations, AVMs (arteriovenous malformations)
Hereditary spherocytosis
Autosomal Dominant

due to spectrin or ankyrin defect

splenectomy is curative
Huntington's
Autosomal Dominant, CAG trinucleotide repeat disorder ("Try Hunting MY FRIED X")

progressive dementia, choreiform movts, caudate atrophy, decreased levels of GABA and ACh

symptoms manifest betw 20-50

chromosome 4 ("Hunting 4 food")
Marfan's syndrome
Autosomal Dominant

Fibrillin gene mutation

affects skeleton, heart, eyes

dissecting aortic aneurysms, subluxation of lenses, floppy mitral valve
MEN
Autosomal Dominant

Multiple endocrine neoplasias (1, 2A, 2B)

familial tumors of Pancreas, Parathyroid, Pituitary, thyroid, adrenal

2A and 2B assoc with ret gene
Neurofibromatosis type 1 (von Recklinghausen dz)

Nf type 2
both Autosomal Dominant

Type 1: cafe-au-lait spots, neural tumors, Lisch nodules, scoliosis

on chromosome 17 (17 letters in von Recklinghausen)

Type 2: acoustic neuroma, juvenile cataracts

NF2 gene on chromosome 22. Type 2=22
Tuberous sclerosis
Autosomal Dominant

adenoma sebaceum (facial lesions), ash leaf spots on skin, cortical and retinal hamartomas

increased incidence of astrocytomas
von Hippel-Lindau dz
Autosomal Dominant

deletion of VHL gene (tumor suppressor) on chromosome 3 (3 words in VHL)

results in constitutive expression of HIF and activation of angiogenic growth factors

hemangioblastomas of retina/cerebellum/medulla, bilateral renal cell carcinoma
X-linked recessive disorders

mnemonic?
Be Wise, Fool's GOLD Heeds Silly Hope

Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
Fabry's dz
G6PD deficiency
Ocular albinism
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Duchenne (and Becker's) muscular dystrophy
Hunter's Syndrome
Hemophilia A and B
Fragile X syndrome
trinucleotide repeat disorder of CGG ("Try Hunting MY FRIED X")

defect of FMR1 gene

Xtra-large testes, jaws, ears
Autosomal trisomies
Down syndrome-trisomy 21 (Drinking age=21)
95% of cases due to meiotic nondisjunction of homologous chromosomes
flat facies, epicanthal folds, simian crease
increased risk of ALL and Alzheimer's

Edward's syndrome-trisomy 18 (Election age=18)
micrognathia (small jaw), clenched hands, death before 1 yr

Patau's syndrome- trisomy 13 (Puberty=13)
cleft lip/Palate, holoProsencephaly, Polydactyly, death before 1 yr
Cri-du-chat
microdeletion of short arm of chromosome 5

microcephaly, high-pitched crying (cry of the cat)
Williams syndrome
microdeletion of long arm of chromosome 7 (includes elastin gene)

distinctive elfin facies, mental retardation, hypercalcemia (increased sensitivity to vit D), extreme friendliness
22q11 deletion syndromes
CATCH-22

Cleft palate
Abnormal facies
Thymic aplasia
Cardiac defects
Hypocalcemia (parathyroid aplasia)
22q11 chromosome microdeletion

due to aberrant development of 3rd and 4th branchial pouches

DiGeorge syndrome: thymic, parathyroid, cardiac defects
Velocardiofacial syndrome: palate, facial, and cardiac defects
What is bile needed for?
digestion of triglycerides and micelle formation in small intestine
3 types of salivary gland tumors
generally benign and occur in parotid

pleomorphic adenoma: most common benign tumor, painless moveable mass

Warthin's tumor: benign, salivary gland tissue trapped in lymph node

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma: most common Malignant tumor
Where is the myenteric nerve plexus (Auerbach's) located?

Where is the submucosal nerve plexus (Meissner's) located?
Myenteric nerve plexus (auerbach's): located in Muscularis externa

Submucosal nerve plexus (meissner's): located in Submucosa
what is responsible for lower esophageal sphincter relaxation?
VIP and NO
Achalasia

What can cause secondary achalasia?
failure of relaxation of LES due to loss of Myenteric nerve plexus (lose smooth muscle motility)

dysphagia to both SOLIDS and LIQUIDS

increased risk of ESOPHAGEAL CANCER

bird's beak on barium swallow

secondary achalasia is caused by Chagas' dz (destruction of ganglion cells by amastigotes)
GERD
heartburn and regurgitation upon lying down, also possible nocturnal cough and dyspnea

Complications: strictures, Barrett's esophagus
Esophageal varices
PAINLESS bleeding of submucosal veins in lower 1/3 of esophagus (smooth muscle only)

caused by portal hypertension due to anastomosis betw LGV and EV
Mallory-Weiss syndrome
Mallory weiss tear!

PAINFUL mucosla lacerations at the GE jx due to severe vomiting

usu found in alcoholics and bulimics
BoerHaave syndrome
"Been Heaving syndrome"

TRANSMURAL esophageal rupture due to violent retching
Esophagitis
assoc w/reflux, infection (HSV-1, CMV, Candida), or chemical ingestion
Plummer Vinson syndrome
plummers "DIG" open clogs

Triad of:
Dysphagia (due to esophageal webs-mucosa and submucosa protude into the esophageal lumen)

Iron deficiency anemia

Glossitis (inflammation/infection of the tongue)
BARRett's esophagus
BARR=
Becomes Adenocarcinoma
Results from Reflux

glandular metaplasia-replacement of non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium with intestinal columnar epithelium in distal esophagus

pre-malignant condition
What are the risk factors for esophageal cancer?

Locations for squamous cell ca and adenocarcinoma?
"ABCDEF"

Achalasia/Alcohol
Barrett's esophagus (greatest risk for adenocarcinoma)
Cigarettes
Diverticuli (e.g. Zenker's diverticulum)
Esophageal web (PlumVsynd)/Esophagitis
Familial

presents as progressive dysphagia (solids then liquids) leading to wt loss

Squamous: upper and middle 1/3
Adenocarcinoma: lower 1/3
What is the most common benign tumor of the esophagus?
Leiomyoma
Celiac sprue

Tropical sprue

Whipple's disease
All are malabsorption syndromes that can cause diarrhea, steatorrhea, wt loss, and weakness

Celiac sprue: autoantibodies to gluten, involves PROXIMAL small bowel primarily

Tropical sprue: infectious (responds to antibiotics), can affect ENTIRE small bowel

Whipple's disease: infection w/ Tropheryma whippelii (gram positive), PAS-positive macrophages in lamina propria, OLDER MEN
Pancreatic insufficiency
malabsorption of fat and fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K)

due to cystic fibrosis, obstructing cancer, and chronic pancreatitis
Abeta-lipoproteinemia
decreased synthesis of apoB->
inability to generate chylomicrons->
decreased secretion of cholesterol, VLDL into bloodstream->
fat accumulation in enterocytes

malabsorption and neurologic manifestations in early childhood
Celiac sprue
autoimmune-mediated intolerance of gliadin (gluten) leading to steatorrhea and blunting of villi

antibodies to gliadin and tissue transglutaminase

assoc w/dermatitis herpetiformis

increases risk of malignancy
what is the most common tumor of the adrenal medulla in adults?

describe the effects
pheochromocytoma, derived from chromaffin cells

secretes excessive amts of the catecholamines (epi, NE, dopamine-all tyrosine-derived)

causes episodic HTN

VMA (breakdown product of NE) in urine
most common adrenal tumor in children
neuroblastoma

can occur anywhere along the sympathetic chain

HVA (breakdown product of dopamine) in urine

N-myc oncogene
What is secreted by adrenal medulla? by what cells specifically? what is the primary regulatory control?
catecholamines

by chromaffin cells

controlled by preganglionic sympathetic fibers
What is secreted by zona glomerulosa, fasciculata, reticularis?

what is the primary regulatory control for each?
GFR: Salt, sugar, sex

Glomerulosa: aldosterone
controlled by renin-angiotensin system

Fasciculata: cortisol, sex hormones
controlled by ACTH, hypothalamic CRH

Reticularis: sex hormones (androgens)
controlled by ACTH, hypothalamic CRH
Adrenal gland drainage

Gonadal vein drainage
Right goes directly into IVC

left adrenal vein-> left renal vein-> IVC
left gonadal vein-> left renal vein-> IVC

right adrenal vein-> IVC
right gonadal vein-> IVC
NE can be converted into epinephrine by what enzyme
PNMT, which is stimulated by cortisol, mainly during periods of stress
what is the rate-limiting step in Catecholamine synthesis ?
conversion of tyrosine to dopa by tyrosine hydroxylase
rate-limiting enzyme of glycolysis
What's #1 in glycolysis?

phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
child presents with pellagra but is NOT niacin deficient
pellagra= diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia

Hartnup disease; due to a transport protein defect with increased excretion of neutral amino acids (tyrosine which is the precursor for the biosynthesis of niacin)
heavy smoker, severe pain, faint pulses. Raynauds, and gangrene of the toes/fingers
Buerger's Dz

small and medium vessel vasculitis
child comes in with progressive neurodegeneration, hepatosplenomegaly, and cherry-red spot on macula.

what dz?

what is the deficiency?

What if pt had no hepatosplenomegaly?
Niemann-Pick dz, a lysosomal storage dz

sphingomyelinase is deficient, so sphingomyelin accumulates

What if pt had no hepatosplenomegaly? Tay-Sachs (hexosaminidase A deficiency)
pt has sever fasting hypoglycemia, highly elevated glycogen in liver, increase in blood lactate and hepatomegaly.

what does pt have?

what is the deficiency?

What if if was milder presentation with NORMAL blood lactate levels?
Von Gierke's disease (type I), glycogen storage dz

Glucose-6-phosphatase is deficient

milder presentation with NORMAL blood lactate levels?
Cori's dz (type III)-defective debranching enzyme (a 1-6 glucosidase); gluconeogenesis is intact
child presents with progressive neurodegeneration, developmental delay, cherry-red spot on macula, lysosomes with onion skin, but no hepatosplenomegaly?

What is dz?

what is the deficiency?
Tay-sachs, a lysosomal storage dz

hexosaminidase A deficiency, leading to accumulation of GM2 ganglioside
Pompe's dz
deficiency of lysosomal a-1-4 glucosidase (acid maltase) Type II glycogen storage dz

cardiomegaly and systemic findings leading to early death

"Pompe's trashes the Pump" (heart, liver, muscle)
McArdle's dz
Mcardle's=MUSCLE

deficiency of skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase, Type V glycogen storage dz

increased glycogen in muscle, but can't be broken down

painful muscle cramps and myoglobinuria w/strenuous exercise
What endocrine hormones use the cAMP signalling pathway?
"FLAT CHAMP GCG"

FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
CRH
hCG
ADH (v2 receptor)
MSH
PTH
GHRH
Calcitonin
Glucagon
What endocrine hormones use the IP3 signalling pathway?
"GOAT"- all made in hypothalamus

GnRH
Oxytocin
ADH (v1 receptor)
TRH
Cushing's syndrome

exogenous and endogenous causes
increased cortisol

Exogenous: steroid; #1 cause, low ACTH

Endogenous
1.Cushing's dz; secretion from pituitary adenoma, high ACTH

2.Ectopic ACTH; nonpituitary tissue making ACTH, high ACTH

3. Adrenal; adenoma, carcinoma, adrenal hyperplasia, low ACTH

Dex suppression test to determine cause: both Ectopic and Adrenal will have high cortisol after both low and high doses of dex
What is Conn's syndrome?

what are the findings?

What is the treatment?
primary hyperaldosteronism caused by aldosterone-secreting tumor

hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, LOW renin

Tx: Spironolactone
What is secondary hyperaldosteronism?
kidney perception of low intravascular volume resulting in overactive RAAS; HIGH plasma renin

due to renal artery stenosis, CHF, nephrotic syndrome, chronic renal failure, cirrhosis
Addison's Disease
CHRONIC adrenal insufficiency

Primary: due to adrenal atrophy/destruction where no cortisol or aldosterone is produced, excess ACTH is produced causing hypotension and skin hyperpigmentation (MSH)

Secondary: due to prob with pituitary where little ACTH is produced; no hyperkalemia and no hyperpigmentation

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is ACUTE adrenocortical insufficiency
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
ACUTE adrenocortical insufficiency due to adrenal hemorrhage

assoc w/ N. meningitidis septicemia, DIC, and endotoxic shock
what are the 5Ps in pheochromocytoma
since it is a tumor of adrenal medulla which secretes catecholamines (epi, NE, dopamine)

elevated blood Pressure
Pain (headache)
Palpitations (tachycardia)
Perspiration
Pallor
Jod-Basedow phenomenon
Jod=iodine in German

hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis) that can occur after iodine/iodide administration in a person w/iodine deficiency goiter
Causes of hypercalcemia
"CHIMPANZEES"

Calcium ingestion (milk-alkali syndrome)
Hyperparathyroid
Hyperthyroid
Iatrogenic(thiazides)
Multiple myeloma
Paget's disease
Addison's disease
Neoplasms
Zollinger-Ellison syndrom
Excess vitamin D
Excess vitamin A
Sarcoidosis
how do you treat prolactinoma?

what can it impinge on and cause?
give bromocriptine or cabergoline (dopamine agonsists) since dopamine from the hypothalamus normally inhibits prolactin production allowing GnRH to stimulate spermatogenesis and oogenesis

cause shrinkage of pituitary adenoma

can impinge on OPTIC CHIASM causing BITEMPORAL HEMIANOPIA
what can be given to prevent mast cell degranulation in asthma?
Cromolyn sodium
when do you see hypersegmented polys (PMNs/neutrophils)?
folate/B12 deficiency

macrocytic anemia
what drug inhibits COX and why is that important?
aspirin

inhibits formation of TsA2.
what drug inhibits ADP-induced expression of GpIIb/IIIa
clopidogrel and ticlopidine
what drug inhibits GpIIb/IIIa directly
Abciximab
What has the classic triad of iron deficiency anemia, esophageal webs, atrophic glossitis (smooth, painful tongue)
Plummer vinson syndreom
What bugs do NOT gram stain well
"These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color"

Treponema (too thin)
Rickettsia (intracellular parasite)
Mycobacterium (high lipid content wall requires acid-fast stain)
Mycoplasma (no cell wall)
Legionella (intracellular)
Chlamydia (intracellular parasite)
What does Giemsa stain
Giemsa is for parasites like BPC and trypanosomes

BPC-Borrelia, plasmodium, chlamydia
What does PAS stain detect
Whipple's Dz

different types of glycogen storage disease

Paget's disease

diagnose α1-antitrypsin deficiency if periportal liver hepatocytes stain positive.
what can india ink be used for
cryptococcus
what can silver stain be used for
Legionella

Fungi
What are the only gram positive organisms?
Staph, strep -> cocci

bacillus, clostridium, Corynebacterium, listeria, mycobacterium (think TB+, gram +) -> bacilli

Actinomyces israelii, nocardia ->branching filamentous
Culture for H flu
Chocolate agar w/ factors V and X

I eat chocolate 5-10 times a day when I have H. flu!
Culture for N. gonorrhoeae
Thayer-Martin or

VPN media

to connect to Neisseria, use your VPN client
Culture for Bordetella pertussis
Bordet for Bordetella

Bordet-Gengou agar
Culture for C. diptheriae
Tellurite or Lofflers media

T-Lo for Dipth
Culture for M. tuberculosis
Lowenstein-Jensen agar

J-Lo has Tb!
Culture for M pneumoniae
Eaton's agar

EatON my pneumonia!
Culture for Lactose-fermenting enterics
MacConkey's agar (pink colonies)

Klebsiella, E. coli




Enterobacter, citrobacter, serratia
Culture for Legionella
charcoal yeast extract agar
Fungi
Fungi are Sabor!

Sabouraud's agar
What are the obligate aerobes?
"Nocardia Pathogens Must Breath"

Nocardia
Pseudomonas
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Bacillus
What are the obligate anaerobes?
anaerobes Can't Breath Air

Clostridium
Bacteroides
Actinomyces

normal flora in GI tract

aminO2glycosides are ineffective bc need O2 in order to enter bacterial cell