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67 Cards in this Set

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Short acting beta blocker
and is it B1 selective?
Esmolol
B1 selective beta blocker
Myasthenia gravis diagnosis
Tensilon test w/edrophonium, a very short acting AChE inhib
Low dose dopamine effect
D1-->renal artery vasodilation
Moderate dose dopamine
B1>a
Increased cardiac output
High dose dopamine effect
alpha receptors predominate
Succinylcholine
Depolarizing blockade->flaccid paralysis

b/c nAChR AGONIST
Pancuronium
Competitive nAChR antag. Non-depolarizing blockade->paralysis. Reversible w/physostigmine
Methyltyrosine
Inhibitor of tyrosine hydroxylase
Antidote for organophosphate or sarin gas
Pralidoxime
Donepezil
AChE inhib for Alzheimer's
Norepinephrine selectivity
a1, a2, B1
Dobutamine selectivity
B1>B2
Phenylephrine
a1 agonist
Two non-selective alpha blockers. Difference between the two?
Phentolamine=reversible
Phenoxybenzamine=irreversible
Paralysis reversible by pyridostigmine
Pancuronium

Competitive antagonism of nAChR can be overcome by increased ACh due to AChE inhib
Drugs reaction: pulm fibrosis
Busulfan, amiodarone, bleomycin
Drugs reaction: heart damage
Doxorubicin (adriamycin), daunorubicin
Drugs reaction: acute cholestatic hepatitis
Macrolide antibiotics (erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin)
Minoxidil
Opens K+ channels in vSMCs resulting in vasodilation but also causes hair growth (Rogaine)
Antidote for methanol
Fomepizole inhibs alcohol dehydrogenase
Antidote for ethylene glycol
Fomepizole: inhibs alcohol dehydrogenase and prevents conversion to oxalic acid
Antidote for copper
Penicillamine (metal chelator)
What drug class is cefazolin?
1st generation cephalosporin
What drug class is cefotetan?
2nd generation cephalosporin
What drug class is loracarbef?
2nd generation cephalosporin
What drug class is cephalexin?
1st generation cephalosporin
What drug class is ceftriaxone?
3rd generation cephalosporin
What drug class is cefaclor?
2nd generation cephalosporin
What bugs do 4th generation cephalosporins cover?
Bad ones, including pseudomonas
What bugs do 1st generation cephalosporins cover?
PEcK

Proteus
E. coli
Klebsiella
What bugs do 2nd generation cephalosporins cover?
HEN PEcKS

H. influenza
Enterobacter
Neisseria

Proteus
E. coli
Klebsiella
Serratia
What bugs do 3rd generation cephalosporins cover?
Bad ones: meningitis (b/c cross BBB) and sepsis.
What are the aminoglycosides and what is their mechanism?
Gentamycin, neomycin, amikacin, tobramycin, streptomycin. Bind 30S, initial mismatch causes damage and increase permeability resulting in higher drug levels that stop translation and kill cell. Cidal. Synergy w/ penicillins
What are the tetracyclines and what is their mechanism?
Tetracycline, doxycycline, minocycline.

Bind 30S, block A site, preventing tRNA binding

Demeclocycline is an ADH-antagonist, not used for antibiotic effect
What are the macrolides and what is their mechanism?
Erythromycin
Clarithromycin
Azithromycin

Bind 50S subunit and block translocation
What is the mecahnism of clindamycin?
Binds 50S and blocks peptidyl transferase
What is the mecahnism of clindamycin?
Binds 50S and blocks peptidyl transferase
Methimazole
Inhibits thyroid peroxidase, preventing synthesis of thyroid hormone. Similar to propylthiouracil

For hyperthyroidism
Propylthiouracil
Inhibits:
1) synthesis of T4 by blocking thyroid peroxidase
2) Blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

For hyperthyroidism. Similar to methimazole
Treatment for patent ductus arteriosus
Indomethacin
Omalizumab
Monoclonal anti-IgE antibody for treating bad asthma
Promethazine
Antihistamine used for anti-nausea effects
Fexofenadine
Allegra

Second generation anti-histamine doesn't cross BBB so doesn't cause drowsiness etc
Calcineurin
Signal transduction protein for activation of T-cells to make IL-2. Inhibition by cyclosporine or tacrolimus/FK506 causes immunosuppression
mTOR
Signal transduction protein for IL-2 receptor. Siroliumus blocks T-cell prolif by inhibiting mTOR.
a2 agonists & classic side effects
clonidine: rebound hypertension

methyldopa: warm hemolytic anemia
Nitroprusside effect & its side effect
Major vasodilator

Metabolism produces cyanide
Ethacrynic acid
Loop diuretic

Not a sulfa, so can be used in place of furosemide w/ sulfa allergy
Indapamide
Thiazide diuretic
Triamterene
K+ sparing diuretic

Aldosterone receptor antag
Antacid side effects:
1) Calcium carbonate
2) Aluminum hydroxide
3) Magnesium hydroxide
Calcium carbonate->rebound
Aluminum hydroxide->constipation
Magnesium hydroxide->diarrhea
Antidote for methanol & ethylene glycol
Fomepizol
Antidote for benzodiazepines
Flumazenil
Treatment for patent ductus arteriosus
Indomethacin
Omalizumab
Monoclonal anti-IgE antibody for treating bad asthma
Promethazine
Antihistamine used for anti-nausea effects
Fexofenadine
Allegra

Second generation anti-histamine doesn't cross BBB so doesn't cause drowsiness etc
Calcineurin
Signal transduction protein for activation of T-cells to make IL-2. Inhibition by cyclosporine or tacrolimus/FK506 causes immunosuppression
mTOR
Signal transduction protein for IL-2 receptor. Siroliumus blocks T-cell prolif by inhibiting mTOR.
a2 agonists & classic side effects
clonidine: rebound hypertension

methyldopa: warm hemolytic anemia
Nitroprusside effect & its side effect
Major vasodilator

Metabolism produces cyanide
Ethacrynic acid
Loop diuretic

Not a sulfa, so can be used in place of furosemide w/ sulfa allergy
Indapamide
Thiazide diuretic
Triamterene
K+ sparing diuretic

Aldosterone receptor antag
Antacid side effects:
1) Calcium carbonate
2) Aluminum hydroxide
3) Magnesium hydroxide
Calcium carbonate->rebound
Aluminum hydroxide->constipation
Magnesium hydroxide->diarrhea
Antidote for methanol & ethylene glycol
Fomepizol
Antidote for benzodiazepines
Flumazenil