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151 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
t or f
hyperkalemia inc effect of digoxin
f
dantrolene moa
blocks Ca release from SR -> used for malignant hyperthermia
overdose w/ highest mortality: benzo's or barbi's
barbi
antiviral agent used in tx of drug induced Parkinson's
amantadine
H1 of H2 receptor activation:
1. edema
2. gastric acid secretion
3. SA nodal activity
4. pain and pruritis
5. bronchial sm mm activity
6. inotropic action and automaticity
1. H1
2. H2
3. H2
4. H1
5. H1
6. H2
t or f
the lack of DA production in the substantia nigra leads to the extrapyramidal dysfunction characteristically seen ion patients w/ Parkinson's
true
lack of DA -> excess of ACh -> extrapyramidal dysf
which PG maintains patency of the ductus arteriosus and is used in the tx of primary pulmonary HTN
PGI2
which CNS Ach receptor(s) are excitatory?
inhibitory?
M1 and nicotinic are excitiatory
M2 inhibitory
t or f
b2 adrenergic agents are used in management of acute asthma attack
t
do local anesthetics bind to the activated or inactivated sodium channels
inactivated
what is the DOC for Tourette
s
pimozide
what mosquito is responsible for the transmission of malaria
anopheles
what enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram
aldehyde dehydrogenase
which diuretic is used as an adrenal steroid antagonist
spironolactone
what drugs is given transdermally for chronic pain but can cause chest wall rigidity if given IV
fentanyl
what is the DOC for penicillin-resistant GC
spectinomycin
is heparin contraindicated in pregnancy
no
what oral antifungal agent is used to tx dermatophyte infections by disrupting microtubule structure and depositing keratin
griseofulvin
which anticonvulsant can cause teratogenic craniofacial abnormalities and spina bifida
carbamazapine
what are the three beta lactamase inhibitors
clavulanic acid
sulbactam
tazobactam
which anticonvulsant used in the tx of bipolar disorder is refractory to lithium
carbamazepine
are antineoplastic agents that work on actively proliferating cells schedule or dose dependent
schedule
which class of diuretics is used to tx metabolic acidosis, acute mountain sickness, and glaucoma and to aid in the elimination of acidic drug overdose
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
(acetazolamide, dorzolamide)
what estrogen receptor agonist in bone is used in the tx and prevention of osteoporosis
raloxifene
which tetracycline is used in the tx of SIADH
demeclocycline
how is the eye effected by opiods
pinpoint pupils
grey baby syndrome
chloramphenicol
CN VIII damage
aminoglycosides
teratogenicity
metronidazole
cholestatic hepatitis
erythromycin
hemolytic anemia
nitrofurantoin
dental staining in kids
tetracycline
altered folate metabolism
trimethoprim
auditory toxicity
vancomycin
cartilage abnormalities
fluoroquinolones
gynecomastia
spironolactone
digitalis
cimetidine
Alcohol
ketoconazole
photosensitivity
Sulfonamides
Amiodarone
Tetracycline
SLE
hydralazine
INH
procainamide
phenytoin
torsades de poites
class III and Class Ia antiarrhythmics
gingival hyperplasia
phenytoin
fanconi's
tetracycline
which anticonvulsant is also used in the tx of bipolar disorder and for migraine headaches
valproic acid
what antitubercular agent causes loss of red green visual discrimination
ethambutol
name the insulin prep
1. peak 8 hrs, lasts 24 hrs
2. peak .5 hrs, lasts 5 hrs
3. peak 8 hrs, lasts 18 hrs
4. peak in .3 hrs, lasts 3 hrs
1. ultralente
2. insulin
3. lente or NPH insulin
4. lispro
is digoxin or digitoxin renally eliminated
digoxin
(digiToxin is hepaTically eliminated)
what is the DOC for steroid induced osteoporosis
alendronate
what are the first signs of overdose from phenobarbitals
nystagmus and ataxia
how are lipid solubility and potency related for inhaled anesthetics? how do they affect onset and recovery?
directly
high lipid solubility -> high potency -> slow onset -> slow recovery
what a1 agonist, not inactivated by COMT, is used as a decongestant and for tx of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
phenylephrine
which laxative is used in the tx of hepatic encephalopathy
lactulose
are hydrolyis, oxidation, and reduction p hase I or II
phase I
what beta blocker is also an alpha blocker
labetalol
what agent is used IM to tx acute dystonias
diphenhydramine
t or f
anaerobes are resistant to aminoglycosides
t
aminoglycosides use O2 dep uptake
what two beta blockers dec serum lipids
pindolol
acebutolol
if a drug is ionized, is it water or lipid soluble? can it cross a membrane?
water
no
what are the longest acting and shortest acting benzo's
diazepam is the longest
(Die after a long life)
midazolam is the shortest
(MIDgets are short)
also (Triazolam Oxazepam and Midazolam -> TOM thumb)
what is the DOC for infections w/ sporothrix, mucor, histo, crypto, candida and aspergillus
amphotericin B
what neurotransmitter is presynaptically inhibited by reserpine and quanethidine
NE
which 2 cephalosporins cross the BBB
cefuroxime
cefaclor
t or f
cocaine induced coronary ischemia shouldn't be tx w/ beta blockers
true
go with Ca channel blockers
what antimuscarinic is used as an inhalant for asthma
ipratropium
what two forms of insulin, if mixed together , precipitate zinc
lente and NPH or protamine zinc insulin (PZI)
what androgen receptor blocker is used to tx prostatic cancer
flutamide
which virus is tx with palivizumab
RSV
name the classes of antiarrhythmics
I: Na channel blockers
II: beta blockers
III: K channel blockers
IV: calcium channel blockers
which muscarinic receptor uses a dec in adenyl cyclase as its second messenger
M2
what antiepileptic agent has SIADH as a side effect
carbamazepine
what is the only anesthetic that causes CV stimulation
ketamine
which bacteriostatic drug whose major side effect is the lepra reax inhibits folic acid synthesis
dapsone
(one of the acute episodes of chills and fever, malaise, and skin eruption occurring in the chronic course of leprosy)
what form of antimicrobial therapy is best for an immunocompromised patient
bactericidal
which class of heparin is active against factor Xa and has no effect on Pt
LMWH
what is the DOC for coccidio
fluconazole
what three cephalosporons have good penetration against B frag
cefotetan
cefoxitin
fetizoxime
which immunosuppressive agent is converted to 6-mercaptopurine
azathioprine
which size nerve fibers are mores sensitive to local anesthetic block
small myelinated > small unmyelinated > lg myelinated > lg unmyelinated
what enzyme is inhibited by TMP
DHF reductase
what are the two absolute requirements for the P450 enzyme system
NADPH and O2
a depressive patients on paroxetine goes to the ER w/ pain and is given meperidine. shortly afterword she develops diaphoresis, mycolonus, mm rigidity, hyperthermia, and seizures
sertonin crisis
SSRI mixed with MAOI, TCADS, detromethorphan and meperidine

tx w/ cyproheptadine
tx demineralization of bone
bisphosphonates
what is the only class of diuretics to retain Cl used in the short term tx of glaucoma and of acute mountain sickness
acetazolamide
t or f
all aluminum containing anatacids can cause hypophophatemia
true
what TCA causes sudden cardiac death in children
desipramine
what two beta2 agonists are used to produce bronchodilation
albuterol
metaproterenol
what IV only agent inhibits water reabsorption in the PCT and is used to tx inc intracranial press, inc intraoccular press, and acute renal failure
mannitol
what cell type do cromolyn and nedocromil affect for prophylactic management of astham
mast cell degranulation
what two beta2 agonists cause myometrial relaxation
ritodrine
terbutaline
where in the spinal cord are the presynaptic opiod receptors
dorsal horn on the primary afferent neurons
what thrombolytic agent is derived from beta hemolytic strep, is antigenic, and produces depletion of ciculating fibrinogen, plasminogen, and factors V and VII
streptokinase
what antifungal agent is used to tx dermatophyte infections by inhibiting squalene epoxidase
terbinafine
which class of antihypertensives produces angioedema, hyperkalemia, and dry cough
ACEI
which medication req an acidic gastric pH for activation to form a protective gel like coating over ulcers and GI epi
sucralfate
of what serotonin receptors is sumatriptan an agonist
5HT-1D
a pt w/ hx of epilepsy goes to ER w/ sedation, gait ataxia, diplopia, vertical nystagmus.
which anticonvulsant overdose resulted in these sx
phenytoin
what are the five penicillinase resistant penicillins
Cloxacillin
Oxacillin
Nafcillin
Dicloxacillin
Methicillin
(CONDM)
which aminoglycoside is the DOC for tularemia and bubonic plague
streptomycin
t or f
progestins are used in combo w/ estrogens to dec the risk of endometrial cancer
t
what neuroleptic agent causes agranulocytosis but does no induce tardive dyskinesia
clozapine
what two factors influence low oral bioavailability
first pass metabolism
acid lability
what is the only site in the body that uses M1 receptors
stomach
what vitamin is a cofactor of aromatic AACD and dec the efficacy of L-dopa if used concomitantly
vit B6 (pyridoxine)
t or f
acetaminophen has analgesic and antipyretic activites but lack antiinflammatory effects
t
what happens to plasma conc of a drug if there is a lg vol of dist
dec
why should opiod analgesics be avoided for pt's with head trauma
can cause cerebral vasodilation and can result in inc intracranial press
what is the DOC for tx of lepra reax
clofazimine
what two drugs, when mixed, can lead to malignant hyperthermia
succinyl choline and halothane
what three beta blockers are used in the tx of glaucoma
timolol
carteolol
propranolol
what is the neurotransmitter at the k-receptor
dynorphin
t or f
succinyl choline is a nicotinic receptor agonist
t
what is the drug of choice for patients w/ hypertension and dec renal funciton
alpha-methyldopa
or clonidine
what is the vol of dist when a drug is highly protein bound
dec
what antihistamine is used in the tx of serotonergic crisis
cyproheptadine
what is the drug of choice for early Parkinson's
selegiline
where is the site of the following
1. osmotic diuretics
2. loop diuretics
3. thiazide diuretics
4. k sparing
5. aldosterone antagonists
1. entire tubule except thick ascending limb
2. ascending limb
3. early distal tubule
4. early collecting duct
5. distal convoluted tubule
what hematoligic malignancy is tx with rituximab
non-hodgkin's lymphoma
which sodium channel blocker is used to tx lithium induced diabetes insipidus
amiloride
which two antipsychotic drugs creat a high risk for developing EPS se
haloperidol and fluphenazine
could an overdose with zolpidem or zaleplon be reversed with flumazenil
yes
what drug blockd intragranular uptak of NE
reserpine
which antihyperlipidemic agent would you NOT prescribe for a patient with a hx of gout or PUD
nicotinic acid
what inhibitor of MT synthesis is DOC for whipworm and pinworm
mebendazole
what antiviral agents inhibit neuramindases of influenza A and B
oseltamivir
zanamivir
what three cephalosporins inhibit vit K dep cofactors
cefamandole
cefoperazone
moxalactam
what direct acting vasodilator is used clinically to tx hypertensive emergencies, insulinomas, and as a uterine sm mm relaxant
diazoxide
which leukotrienes is NOT assoc w/ anaphylaxis and bronchoconstriction
LTB4
what neuroleptic agent causes retinal deposits, hypotensionj, and torsades de pointes
thioridazine
what oral hypoglycemic agent inhibits alpha-glucosidase in the brush border of the sm intestine
acarbose
what enzyme is inhibited by sulfonamides
dihydropteroate synthase
what is the most important determininant of drug potency
affinity for receptor
t or f
estrogen inc risk of ovarian cancer
f
wich sedative hypnotic is contraindicated for patients on warfarin
chloral hydrate
what mixed alpha-antagonists are used for patients w/ pheo
phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine
the dose of which second gen sulfonylurea agent must be dec for patients with hepatic dysf?
with renal dysf?
glipizide

glyburide
which nicotinic receptor antagonist causes hypotension and is assoc w/ malignant hyhperthermia
tubocurarine
what transient def may result in a hypercoagulable state if warfarin is given alone
protein C
what component of the vascular system is sens to CCB
arterioles
what drug blocks gluc uptake, leading to dec formation of ATP and resulting in immobilization of parasites
albendazole
what is the site of action for carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
proximal tubule
bleomycin
G2
cytarabine
S
vinblastine
mitosis
alkylating agents
G0
paclitaxel
mitosis
vincristine
mitosis
6-thioguanine
S
6 mercaptopurine
S
dacarbazine
G0 phase
hydroxyurea
S phase
cisplatin
G0
nitrosureas
G0
inhibition of peripheral COMT, allowing inc CNS availability of L-dopa is accomplished by what two agents
tolcapone
entacapone